EJPME-US002-02 Pre Test

___ is achieved when all capabilities of military and civilian are integrated and synchronized.

- Unity of effort

What are the instruments of National Power which allow the US Government to achieve its national strategic objectives?

- Diplomatic, informational, military, and economic

The ___ is written guidance from the Secretary of Defense to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff for the preparation and review of contingency plans for specific missions. It includes the relative priority of the plans, specific force levels, and supporting resource levels.

- Guidance for Employment of the Force

The National Security Council (NSC) is the President's principal forum for considering national security ___ matters.

- Policy

The direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support, including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations is known as ___.

- Administrative control

The ___ organize, train, and equip, and provide combat ready forces to conduct operations as directed by the President and Secretary of Defense.

- Military departments

U.S. Africa Command, U.S. Central Command, U.S. European Command, U.S. Northern Command, U.S. Pacific Command, and U.S. Southern Command constitute the ___.

- Geographic combatant commands

These commands are established by combatant commanders when authorized by the Secretary of Defense through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for unified commands. They may be established on a geographic area basis such as U.S. Forces Japan or on a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific.

- Subordinate unified commands

Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish the missions or tasks assigned is known as ___.

- Tactical control

___ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.

- Operational control

Which of the following is NOT a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

- Commandant of the Coast Guard

EJPME-US002-02 Post Test

The first-ever National Defense Strategy (NDS) was initiated by Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) Rumsfeld in 2005, and then updated in 2008 by SECDEF Gates However in 2012, SECDEF Panetta released Sustaining US Global Leadership Priorities for 21st Century Defense, sometimes referred to as the ___, and widely understood to be the replacement for the NDS This strategic document was written to identify defense priorities in the face of budget cuts.

- Defense Strategic Guidance

The ___, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces' plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future.

- National Military Strategy

The National Security Council (NSC) is the President's principal forum for considering national security ___ matters.

- Policy

Which of the following is NOT a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

- Commandant of the Coast Guard

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) is the principal military ___ to the President; NSC; and SECDEF.

- Advisor

The U.S. continues to become more dependent on the global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent network of information technology infrastructures, including the Internet, telecommunications networks, computer systems, and embedded processors and controllers. It is imperative that we safeguard this domain known as ___.

- Cyberspace

The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three types of commanders:

- Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander

Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC), Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of ___.

- Functional Component Commanders

Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned is known as ___.

- Tactical control

General, mutual, direct and close are the four defined categories of ___ that a Combatant Commander may direct over assigned or attached forces.

- Support

The U.S. Transportation Command, U.S. Special Operations Command, U.S. Strategic Command and U.S Cyber Command comprise the ___.

Functional combatant commands

Facility Management

True or false, the fire department will provide an annual inspection report detailing hazards and deficiencies to the facility manager.

- True

True or false, facility managers do not have to change light bulbs.

- False

What AFI provides the Real Property requirements to swap or convert areas of your building or space?

- AFI 32-9002

How often must you inspect a facility Intrusion Detection System?

- Monthly

What is the minimum height of a chain link security fence can be?

- 6 feet

How many force protection levels are there?

- 5

True or false, facility managers do not have to maintain a key log.

- False

How often should facility fire evacuation drills be accomplished?

- Annually

What is the minimum enlisted grade eligibility to be appointed as a facility manager?

- E-5

What document provides the checklist for base specific Natural Disaster plans?

- Installation Emergency Management Plan 10-2

True or false, an officer can be appointed as a facility manager.

- True

When should you notify the fire department when your fire protection system is inoperable?

- After 4 hours

What AFI provides a listing of Real Property Equipment?

- AFI 32-9005

What document defines requirements for facility managers?

- Civil Engineering Work Management Playbook, Chapter 1

How often must you inspect outdoor security lighting for serviceability?

- Weekly

For security containers what form should be used to annotate maintenance?

- SF Form 89

What Air Force directive governs the security requirements for facilities?

- AFI 31-101

At what distance must construction signs be clearly identified that can be read?

- 50 feet

What Air Force Form must be approved before a Hazardous Material can be used in your facility?

- AF Form 3952

What is the minimum retainability required to be appointed as a facility manager (not at a remote overseas assignment)?

- 18 months

True or false, as a facility manager, you are expected to try to fix minor problems.

- True

What Air Force directive governs the Emergency Response Procedures for facilities?

- AFI 10-2501

How often should Aircraft Hangar Facility Managers conduct door inspections?

- Monthly

What Air Force directive governs the safety requirements for facilities?

- AFM 91-203

What Air Force directive governs the fire protection requirements for facilities?

- AFI 32-1001

How often should fire extinguishers inspections be accomplished and documented?

- Monthly

How often should pest management conduct Termite inspections on your facility?

- Annually

What Air Force directive defines the requirements for Facility Managers?

- AFI 32-1001

True or false, space heaters are not allowed on Air Force Installations.

- False

Within how many days of assignment as a facility manager should you receive base specific training from Installation Operations Engineering personnel?

- 45 days

SOUTHCOM Human Rights Awareness Education Training

Which of the following are signs of possible trafficking in persons activity?

All answers are correct

Which of the following is true of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

All answers are correct

Describe the responsibilities of DoD personnel in responding to gross violations of human rights in the AOR, according to the Five R's of Human Rights (Standing Orders Card) and SOUTHCOM Regulation 51-1.

All answers are correct

Which of the following is an important U.S. military capability according to Joint Doctrine on Foreign Internal Defense?

Influence the professionalism of the host nation military to reduce or eliminate corruption and human rights abuse

The overall message SOUTHCOM personnel should convey on Leahy Law to our partners is:

It is in the national security interest of the United States to prohibit assistance to units and individuals credibly accused of human rights violations and to encourage our partners to hold individuals accountable for their actions

A partner nation military unit that had previously received DoD funding was found to have committed a gross violation of human rights (GVHR) that was reported to SOUTHCOM. The Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the Secretary of State, has determined that the partner nation government has taken "all necessary corrective steps" to correct the GVHR. Can this unit once again receive DoD funding under the DoD Leahy Law?

Yes, because the DoD Leahy Law authorizes the Secretary of Defense to resume funding to a unit of a foreign military or security force that would normally be prohibited from receiving such funding if, after consulting with the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Defense determines that the government of the country has taken "all necessary corrective steps" to remediate the GVHR

Some of the positive advances on human rights military forces in the AOR have achieved include:

Military forces have established human rights training, policies and offices, and have increased transparency with civil society

Human rights include protections against:

All answers are correct

As a military or DoD official, it is your duty to understand human rights in the AOR and to communicate U.S. Government human rights policies.

True

You are off duty touring a foreign city in an unofficial vehicle with local and U.S. colleagues when you are unexpectedly pulled over by police. Without identifying themselves as police conducting an arrest, two uniformed officers begin to harass and threaten your driver, a host nation national whom you trust, ordering him out of the vehicle and ordering you and the others to remain where you are. Your attempts to identify yourselves as U.S. officials are ignored. The driver is handcuffed and put in the back of the police truck. The officers get in the truck and are about to drive away. What should you do?

Memorize or jot down a description of the officers, their vehicle, and any insignia and/or marking. Report all details to your chain of command.

TIP is a significant problem throughout the SOUTHCOM AOR. The primary form of TIP found in the AOR are:

All answers are correct

For U.S. DOD personnel, standards of respect for Human Rights and Law of War (also known as Law of Armed Conflict, or LOAC, and International Humanitarian Law, or IHL) are codified in:

All answers are correct

The U.S. accepts the position that certain fundamental human rights fall within the category of:

Customary International Law

Why must U.S. government officials and military continuously train on human rights?

All answers are correct

What are human rights?

Freedoms, immunities, and benefits that are deemed universal, inherent, and inalienable possessions of all humankind

In modern military missions, soldiers are often responsible for protecting the human rights of civilians. Military respect for human rights can:

Secure trust and deter aggression

The U.S. is bound under international law by the human rights treaties it has ratified.

True

When does human rights law require a nation to guarantee the fundamental human rights of its citizens?

Fundamental human rights must be respected throughout the peace-war-peace spectrum

The responsibility to conduct human rights training, promote respect for human rights, and/or integrate human rights concerns is embedded in which US military doctrine

All answers are correct

SOUTHCOM Regulation 51-1: (Select all that apply)

Identifies that SDO/DATTs are responsible for reporting requirements

Establishes guidance and procedures for SOUTHCOM personnel to report gross human rights violations committed by partner nation militaries or security forces

*Is intended to ensure information SOUTHCOM personnel may have on the commission of gross violations of human rights by foreign military or security forces is shared with the Department of State

The term "gross violations of internationally recognized human rights" includes:

All answers are correct

The U.S. Government considers TIP to include all acts involved in the sale or receipt of persons through:

Force, coercion, fraud or deception, recruitment, abduction, transport or harboring

SOUTHCOM actively promotes Human Rights with Partner Nations militaries through the Human Rights Initiative with the goal of strengthening regional consensus and respect for Human Rights by military and security forces. Since 2004, partner nations have committed their military or security forces to implement HRI or are developing their own human rights programs. Positive advances include:

All answers are correct

You witness a host-country military officer physically abusing his trainee in a clearly life-threatening manner. What should you do?

Persuade the officer to desist, intervening with moral dissuasion as long as it poses no serious threat to your safety or your mission. Record and report this incident.

It is DoD policy to oppose prostitution, forced labor, and any related activities that may contribute to the phenomenon of Trafficking in Persons (TIP) as they are:

Inherently cruel and demeaning to the dignity of the person

You have just attended a conference in a city known for rising crime rates and intensifying public anger.........What should you do?

Tell the driver to turn around. Intervene with moral dissuasion if necessary to prevent grievous harm; otherwise disengage, snap a photo or take notes, and report the incident.

SOUTHCOM's policy on respect for human rights and shared democratic values can best be characterized as:

SOUTHCOM views commitment to democracy and human rights as integral components of relationships with military partners in the region

Level I Antiterrorism Awareness Training (2 hrs)

1) True or False: IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment.

- False

- True (correct)

2) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous.

- False

- True (correct)

3) True or False: Room invasions are not a significant security issue for hotels located within the United States.

- True

- False (correct)

4) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone.

- False

- True (correct)

5) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers.

- True

- False (correct)

6) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related.

- True

- False (correct)

7) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored.

- True (correct)

- False

8) True or False: Security is a team effort.

- False

- True (correct)

9) Early symptoms of a biological attack may appear the same as common illnesses. True or False?

- True (correct)

- False

10) True or False: Reasons for acquiring hostages include publicity, use as a bargaining chip while executing other crimes, the forcing of political concessions, and ransom.

- True (correct)

- False

11) True or False: From a security perspective, the best rooms are directly next to emergency exits.

- False (correct)

- True

12) Keeping a well-maintained vehicle is considered a "best practice" from both a security and safety perspective. True or False?

- False

- True (correct)

13) True or False: The ticketing area is more secure than the area beyond the security check point.

- False (correct)

- True

14) True or False: State Department Travel Warnings should be consulted prior to taking trips across the US-Mexican border.

- False

- True (correct)

15) What is NOT a physical security measure for your home?

- Changing locks to ensure key control.

- Confirming that a cleaning company is reliable and licensed.

- Hiding a key outside to ensure family members can get in if they lose their keys. (correct)

- Monitoring Internet acquaintances of all family members.

- Having good relations with neighbors and looking out for each other.

16) Which of the following is NOT a recommended response to an active shooter incident?

- Run and escape

- Hide

- Call 9-1-1, when it is safe to do so

- Provide instructions to arriving law enforcement personnel or stop them to ask for help (correct)

- Fight

17) From an antiterrorism perspective, espionage and security negligence are not considered insider threats.

- False (correct)

- True

18) Persons who have been given access to an installation can be counted on to be of no threat. True or False?

- False (correct)

- True

19) Electronic audio and video devices are never used by terrorists for surveillance purposes. True or False?

- True

- False (correct)

20) If you identify a possible surveillance attempt you should try to handle the situation yourself.

- False (correct)

- True

21) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions.

- True (correct)

- False

22) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security.

- True (correct)

- False

23) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means.

- False

- True (correct)

24) What is the most increased Force Protection Level for a base/installation?

- Alpha

- Bravo

- Charlie

- Delta (correct)

25) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. Select all that apply.

- Will local citizens warn Americans about terrorist groups? (correct)

- How active are terrorist groups? (correct)

- Are terrorist groups predictable? (correct)

- How sophisticated are terrorist groups? (correct)

- Are terrorist groups violent? (correct)

- What tactics and weapons are used by terrorist groups? (correct)

- Are terrorist groups in the area? (correct)

- Do terrorist groups attack Americans? (correct)

26) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack.

- Association (correct)

- Location (correct)

- Opportunity (correct)

- Predictability (correct)

27) True or False: Individuals should Fight as last resort and only when your life is in imminent danger.

- True (correct)

- False

28) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident.

- False

- True (correct)

Cyber Awareness 2024 Questions and Answers

When linked to a specific individual, which of the following is NOT an example of Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

Automobile make and model

Which of the following uses of removable media is appropriate?

Encrypting data stored on removable media

Which of the following is NOT a best practice for protecting data on a mobile device?

Disable automatic screen locking after a period of inactivity

Which of the following is an authoritative source for derivative classification?

Security Classification Guide

How can an adversary use information available in public records to target you?

Combine it with information from other data sources to learn how best to bait you with a scam

You receive an email with a link to schedule a time to update software on your government furnished laptop. Your IT department has not scheduled software updates like this in the past and has not announced this software update. The e-mail is not digitally signed. What action should you take?

Report the e-mail to your security POC or help desk.

Which of the following is NOT a best practice for teleworking in an environment where Internet of Things (IoT) devices are present?

Remove any voice-enabled device

Which type of data could resonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?

Top Secret

Which of these is NOT a potential indicator that your device may be under a malicious code attack?

A notification for a system update that has been publicized.

Which best describes an insider threat? Someone who uses_________ access, __________, to harm national security through unauthorized disclosure, data, modification, espionage, terrorism, or kinetic actions.

unauthorized: detected or undetected

Which of the following is an allowed use of government furnished equipment (GFE)?

Checking personal e-mail if your organization allows it

How can you mitigate the potential risk associated with a compressed URL (e.g., TinyURL, goo.gl)?

Use the preview function to see where the link actually leads

How should government owned removable media be stored?

In a GSA-approved container according to the appropriate security classification

Annabeth becomes aware that a conversation with a co-worker that involved Sensitive Compartmented Information SCI) may have been overheard by someone who does not have the required clearance. What actions should Annabeth take?

Contact her security POC with detailed information about the incident.

How can you protect your home computer?

Turn on the password feature

You receive a phone call offering you a $50 gift card if you participate in a survey. Which course of action should you take?

Decline to participate in the survey. This may be a social engineering attempt.

Carl receives an e-mail about a potential health risk caused by a common ingredient in processed food. Which of the following actions should Carl NOT take with the e-mail?

Forward it

Which of the following is a risk associated with removable media?

All of these

Which of the following is an appropriate use of government e-mail?

Using a digital signature when sending attachments

Sylvia commutes to work via public transportation. She often uses this time to get a head start on work by making phone calls or responding to e-mails on her government approved mobile device. Does this pose a security concern?

Yes. Eavesdroppers may be listening to Sylvia's phone calls, and shoulder surfers may be looking at her screen.

Which of the following is true of transmitting or transporting SCI?

Printed SCI must be retrieved promptly from the printer

What conditions are necessary to be granted access to Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)?

Top Secret clearance and indoctrination into the SCI program

Terry sees a post on her social media feed that says there is smoke billowing from the Pentagon. The post includes a video that shows smoke billowing from a building that is not readily identifiable as the Pentagon. Terry is not familiar with the source of the post. Which of the following describes what Terry has likely seen?

This is probably a post designed to attract Terr's attention to click on a link and steal her information

Which of the following statements about PHI is false?

It is created or received by a healthcare provider, health plan, or employer of a business associate of these.

Which of the following is NOT a best practice for protecting your home wireless network for telework?

Use your router's pre-set SSID and password

Beth taps her phone at a payment terminal to pay for a purchase. Does this pose a security risk?

Yes, there is a risk that the signal could be intercepted and altered

How can you prevent viruses and malicious code?

Scan all external files before uploading to your computer

Which of the following is an example of behavior that you should report?

Taking sensitive information home for telework without authorization

You receive a text message from a package shipper notifying you that your package delivery is delayed due to needing updated delivery instructions from you.

Delete the message

Which of the following is an appropriate use of a DoD PKI token?

Do not use a token approved for NIPR on SIPR

Which of the following is a best practice when browsing the internet?

Only accept cookies from reputable, trusted websites

Where are you permitted to use classified data?

Only in areas with security appropriate to the classification level

Which of following is permitted within a Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (SCIF)?

An authorized Government-owned Portable Electronic Device (PED)

Which of the following contributes to your online identity?

All of these

How can you protect your home computer?

Regularly back up your files

Turn on the password feature

Which of the following statements is true of DoD Unclassified data?

It may require access and distribution controls

Which of the following is NOT a way that malicious code can spread?

Running a virus scan

Which of the following is a best practice to protect your identity?

Order a credit report annually

What is the goal of an Insider Threat Program?

Deter, detect, and mitigate

Which of the following uses of removable media is allowed?

Government owned removable media that is approved as operationally necessary

Which of the following is permitted when using an unclassified laptop within a collateral classified space?

A government-issued WIRED headset with microphone

When is the safest time to post on social media about your vacation plans?

After the trip

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of your Common Access Card (CAC)?

Using it as photo identification with a commercial entity

On your home computer, how can you best establish passwords when creating separate user accounts?

Have each user create their own, strong password

Tom is working on a report that contains employees’ names, home addresses, and salary. Which of the following is Tom prohibited from doing with the report

Using his home computer to print the report while teleworking

Which of the following is a best practice for using government e-mail?

Do not send mass e-mails

Which of the following is a best practice for physical security?

Use your own security badge or key code for facility access

Information Environment Awareness Training

What must an Airmen do to protect vital information and influence to increase or preserve combat power effectiveness?

Ask peers on social media such as Facebook, or Instagram.

Feedback

Correct, Airmen must take defensive and offensive actions to protect vital information and influence to increase or preserve combat power effectiveness and determine what is real.

What action should you take if you detect or suspect disinformation?

Generate counter-information

Feedback

Correct, instead of furthering the spread of disinformation with an online post, consider whether your public online response is truly needed. Many disinformation messages are best left ignored. If you do feel a need to alert others to disinformation, consider doing so in a private email or offline conversation.

Are fake twitter bots an organized influence operation controlled by Artificial Intelligence (AI)?

Yes, fake twitter bots are real and used in influence operations

Feedback

Correct, internet bots can perform tasks, that are simple and repetitive, much faster than a person could ever do. More than half of all web traffic is generated by bots.

Within the media information timeline, what information period depicts the least accurate account of the event?

Six months to a year after the event

Feedback

Correct, for the day of the event, publishing is the priority, usually, there is no in-depth fact-checking, or review process. Both Twitter and Facebook have also shown inconsistencies or political biases in the material they block or distribute. This generates a situation in which the use of social media for news is little more than a groupthink echo chamber.

False stories of unjustified strikes against an adversary could create doubt about the reliability of sensors and weapons and cause hesitation.

True

Feedback

Correct, using false stories of unjustified strikes against an adversary, misinterpreting sensor indications as hostile enemy action, or attacking a misidentified ship or aircraft, a foreign actor could create doubt about the reliability of sensors and weapons and cause an operator to delay their response while reassessing the situation and resolving uncertainty.

What is one example of a Diplomatic Informational Military and Economic (DIME) being used as a national power for creating and exploiting the information advantage?

Infiltrating decision-making control centers.

Feedback

Correct, the acronym Diplomatic Informational Military and Economic (DIME), has been used for many years to describe the instruments of national power. Using information to shape and control state activities is one method to create and exploit the information advantage supporting the National Security Strategy.

Question 7

Why are social-media-generated facts increasingly the information weapons of choice?

All of these

Feedback

Correct, centuries before the Internet, people understood that falsehoods spread through the social sphere faster than the truth. It is human nature. We also realize that social media facts can be made real by a statement, replication, and wide and rapid distribution despite the lack of any data or facts supporting them.

Question 8

What instrument of national power may be used to advance America’s strategic interests on the international stage?

Persuade mass communications to subdue, subvert, and submit to targeted narratives.

Feedback

Correct, information used as a national power is an instrument of national power which the federal government can exercise a significant degree of control that, when combined with other instruments of national power, represents a significant opportunity to advance America’s strategic interests on the international stage.

Question 9

Social media algorithms are designed to prioritize content the audience will engage with shares, reactions, and links, because that’s how they earn advertising revenue.

True

Feedback

Correct, social media algorithms are designed to prioritize content the audience will engage with shares, reactions, and links because that’s how they earn advertising revenue. Emotion-ridden posts tend to result in more engagement, which means they get prioritized by the algorithm and more people see them, and then they engage, and the cycle accelerates.

Question 10

When using the SMART model and analyzing information based on the Authority phase, which of the following is an example of credible credentials?

unkown

Question 11

What does cognitive warfare attempt to accomplish?

unknown

Question 12

When using the SMART model and analyzing information based on the Motives phase, which of the following is the most critical set of indicators of establishing negative motives for disinformation?

To influence your allegiance to your country

Feedback

Correct, disinformation from US adversaries often seeks to persuade and deceive as part of their overall National Security Strategy. Other disinformation may be provided by others with the intent to sell or advocate for a particular political, religious, or personal agenda.

Level I Antiterrorism Awareness Training

1) True or False: IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment.

True (correct)

2) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous.

True (correct)

3) True or False: Room invasions are not a significant security issue for hotels located within the United States.

False (correct)

4) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone.

True (correct)

5) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers.

False (correct)

6) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related.

False (correct)

7) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored.

True (correct)

8) True or False: Security is a team effort.

True (correct)

9) Which one of these is a possible indicator of a suspicious letter or package?

Excessive tape and/or postage (correct)

10) True or False: Reasons for acquiring hostages include publicity, use as a bargaining chip while executing other crimes, the forcing of political concessions, and ransom.

True (correct)

11) True or False: From a security perspective, the best rooms are directly next to emergency exits.

False (correct)

12) Which of the following is NOT a useful vehicle feature from a security perspective?

Wi-Fi capable (correct)

13) True or False: The ticketing area is more secure than the area beyond the security check point.

False (correct)

14) True or False: State Department Travel Warnings should be consulted prior to taking trips across the US-Mexican border.

True (correct)

15) Home security can be improved with self-help measures like changing locks, securing windows, and improving outdoor lighting. True or False?

True (correct)

16) Which of the following is NOT a recommended response to an active shooter incident?

Provide instructions to arriving law enforcement personnel or stop them to ask for help (correct)

17) From an antiterrorism perspective, espionage and security negligence are not considered insider threats.

False (correct)

18) Persons who have been given access to an installation can be counted on to be of no threat. True or False?

False (correct)

19) What is NOT a terrorist method of surveillance?

Breaking and entering to steal valuables (correct)

20) If you identify a possible surveillance attempt you should try to handle the situation yourself.

False (correct)

21) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions.

True (correct)

22) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security.

True (correct)

23) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means.

True (correct)

24) What is the most increased Force Protection Level for a base/installation?

Delta (correct)

25) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. Select all that apply.

What tactics and weapons are used by terrorist groups? (correct)

How active are terrorist groups? (correct)

Do terrorist groups attack Americans? (correct)

Are terrorist groups predictable? (correct)

Will local citizens warn Americans about terrorist groups? (correct)

Are terrorist groups in the area? (correct)

How sophisticated are terrorist groups? (correct)

Are terrorist groups violent? (correct)

26) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack.

Location (correct)

Association (correct)

Opportunity (correct)

Predictability (correct)

27) True or False: Individuals should Fight as last resort and only when your life is in imminent danger.

True (correct)

28) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident.

True (correct)

Social and Behavioral Research (SBR) for Biomedical Researchers

Question

A researcher is conducting a written survey about people's attitudes toward walking as an exercise option at the local shopping mall that supports a walking program. The survey is anonymous (without codes, names, or other information) and subjects may complete the survey and place it in a box at the shopping mall exits. Which of the following is the most important issue that the researcher addressed in planning the research?

Answer Confidentiality of the individual subject's

Comment

The most important issue that the researcher addressed in planning the research is the confidentiality of the individual subject's responses. By making the survey anonymous, no one, even the researcher, has knowledge of the individual's identity. While recruitment strategies, minimizing emotional distress, and having a large sample size are important issues to address, the confidentiality of the individual subject responses is the most important in this example.

Question

A researcher wants to invite therapists to participate in small focus groups to discuss their perceptions regarding "troubled" adolescent girls and the relationships they have with their parents. Specific clients of the therapists will not be discussed. Which of the following will be the most important issue for the researcher to consider when planning the research?

Answer Breach of confidentiality from the focus group subjects (therapists)

Comment

Most risks of harm from SBR research results from invasion of privacy and breaches of confidentiality. Researchers should design strategies to minimize the possibility of breaches of confidentiality and inform all subjects about the potential for these breaches especially in a focus group situation. While emotional distress, compensation and recruiting strategies are all important issues for the researcher to consider in this situation, the potential for breach of confidentiality is the most important.

Question

Which of the following most accurately describes the risks associated with SBR?

Answer Less predictable, more variable, and less treatable than physical harms

Comment

It is more difficult to predict how individuals will react to questions and situations in which their behavior is observed or manipulated than to physical data collection methods such as blood draws. The reactions may be of considerable duration. Once those reactions happen, they may be difficult to assess, serious enough to require treatment and may even be untreatable compared to treating physical harms.

Question

Which of the following is considered a SBR data collection method?

Answer Interviews

Comment

Hearing screenings, blood draws, and other physical exams are usually designed to collect physiological data, not information about attitudes and beliefs. Interviews are designed to collect information about attitudes, beliefs, and behavior and are data collection methods typically used by SBR researchers.

SERE 100.2 Level A SERE Education and Training in Support of the Code of Conduct

Pre Test

Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.

The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.

Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.'N' represents links not visited and 'Y' represents visited links.

Contains 40 Questions

1) Which evasion aids can assist you with making contact with the local population? (Select all that apply)

Signaling devices

Pointee-Talkee (correct)

Camouflage

Blood Chit (correct)

2) Should your captors provide an opportunity to communicate using written, oral, or video means, you should:

Not provide information regarding physical condition

Organize to meet captives needs

Provide proof of life (correct)

Be nice to the captors to improve your treatment

3) Continuously learning about your captivity environment and the captor is known as ___________________.

situational awareness (correct)

personal protection

coping skills

captivity resolution

4) What are some methods to purify water? (Select all that apply)

Filtering water with tightly woven material

Boiling vigorously for at least one minute (correct)

Chemically treating water with chlorine or iodine (correct)

Purifying with a commercial micro filter (correct)

5) The two types of reporting isolating events are observer-reported and media reporting.

True

False (correct)

6) Upon your release, a DoD Public Affairs Officer (PAO) will be available to help you. Their goal is to_______________________________________. (Select all that apply)

protect any classified information

help you regain control over your life (correct)

get the true story out to the world

coordinate your interactions with the media (correct)

7) The Evasion Plan of Action (EPA) provides recovery forces the following information should you become isolated. (Select all that apply)

It helps them to anticipate your actions and intentions (correct)

Details the methods and procedures you intend to use to communicate with recovery forces (correct)

Your evasion intentions and key recovery information (correct)

The disposition of hostile forces

8) The three basic food sources during isolation are packed rations, animals and insects, and plants.

True (correct)

False

9) Limiting the amount of personal information available to others includes reducing your ______________ footprint, and personal information items not required for your operational mission such as credit cards and other identifiable items in your wallet or purse.

social media (correct)

carbon

mailing list

organizational membership

10) During operations outside declared hostilities, you may delay contact with local authorities.

False

True (correct)

11) In the event of isolation during operations other than war, the reasons to delay contact with legitimate authorities include. (Select all that apply)

Contact friendly forces (correct)

Gain situational awareness (correct)

Lack of control

Prevent recognition

12) The Principles of Behavior outline your moral obligations and behavioral expectations from isolation to captivity resolution.

False

True (correct)

13) What should you do during USG negotiations for your release? (Select all that apply)

Have faith in the USG (correct)

Maintain your honor and communicate your innocence (correct)

Sign a parole agreement for release

Remain professional and avoid exploitation (correct)

14) Which of the following are used to control bleeding? (Select all that apply)

Elevate and immobilize (correct)

Apply direct pressure (correct)

Clean with water

Use a tourniquet (correct)

15) Resistance to exploitation is a BATTLE OF WITS with your captor.

True

False (correct)

16) Which of the following are criteria for selecting a shelter site? (Select all that apply)

The area is large enough for you and your equipment (correct)

Provides natural protection from environment, hazards, and threats (correct)

The area is large enough to stand in

Sufficient materials are available for constructing a shelter (correct)

17) Leaving evidence of your presence supports U.S. Government effort to locate, identify and recover you.

True (correct)

False

18) One way to gain acceptance from the local population after making contact is to discuss the similarities between your religions. This helps to show you are peaceful and mean no harm.

True

False (correct)

19) Which Principle of Behavior expects you to resist adversary exploitation despite the pervasive physical and environmental control retained by the captor?

Principle I

Principle II

Principle III

Principle IV (correct)

20) Actions to take when capture is imminent include. (Select all that apply) [Remediation Accessed :N]

Try to retain your personal cell phone (correct)

Sanitize personal or sensitive materials (correct)

Communicate your situation (correct)

Leave evidence of presence at capture point (correct)

21) The Principles of Behavior describe the ____________ for DoD civilian personnel when held against their will by entities hostile to the U.S. [Remediation Accessed :N]

civilian directive

moral obligations (correct)

moral guide

direct order

22) You should limit your communication with the captor to which of the following? (Select all that apply) [Remediation Accessed :N]

Identify yourself (correct)

State the innocent circumstances leading to capture (correct)

Ask to be returned to U.S. control (correct)

Address health and welfare concerns (correct)

23) What pre-deployment document requires you to provide, four personal authentication statements, full front and right side photographs, and fingerprints?

DD Form 1833 Isolated Personnel Report (ISOPREP) (correct)

Defense Legal Next of Kin Notification Form

Defense Enrolment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)

DD Form 2 Military ID card

24) Identify steps in building a fire. (Select all that apply)

Once the tinder is burning, add large amounts of fuel

Use a platform (correct)

Carefully place small, dry kindling over the burning tinder (correct)

Prepare adequate amounts of tinder, kindling, and fuel (correct)

25) Tactical hand-held radio transceivers, cell phones, satellite phones, and personal locator beacons (PLBs) are devices you could use for electronic communication.

False

True (correct)

26) What are some de-escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence? (Select all that apply)

Surprise the captors

Maintain a low profile (correct)

Speak quickly

Be conscious of your body language (correct)

27) The weakened state of the captives' ____________reduces their capacity to collectively resist adversary exploitation efforts. Acceptance of special favors also provides an opening for an adversary's future exploitation efforts against you.

military bearing

health

support

organization (correct)

28) Identify some posture and resistance constants of an effective resistance posture. (Select all that apply)

Bounce back (correct)

Respond quickly

Stall (correct)

Control emotions (correct)

29) During a hole-up what is your primary concern?

Security (correct)

Rest

Fire

Food and water

30) What evasion aid is tailored to cover an individual operational area, combining standard navigation charts and maps with evasion and survival information?

Handheld GPS

Evasion chart (correct)

Pointee-Talkee

Blood chit

31) When questioned, should you become a prisoner of war, the Geneva Conventions, requires, but does not prohibit, you from identifying yourself to your captors. Which Principle of Behavior does the statement above refer?

Principle I

Principle II

Principle III

Principle IV (correct)

32) As part of your resistance posture you should portray ______ at all times.

arrogance

innocence (correct)

confidence

knowledge

33) When providing proof of life what information should you include? (Select all that apply)

Your health and welfare (correct)

You and your fellow captives' identities (correct)

A verifiable date (correct)

Your religious beliefs

34) Which Principle of Behavior articulates: If held in captivity you should communicate and organize with the community of fellow United States Government and allied captives and avoid actions that may harm them?

Principle I

Principle II (correct)

Principle III

Principle IV

35) An effective memory tool that can assist you with using situational awareness during an isolating event is the acronym PAID-E, which stands for perceive, ______________, interpret, decide, and execute.

anticipate

alternate

analyze (correct)

acquire

36) Selecting a signaling site and putting your signal in a suitable location is critical. A signaling site is defined as any site, based on your situation that enhances signaling efforts and the likelihood for the signal to be detected by friendly forces. What is a signaling site criterion? (Select all that apply)

Recovery possible from/near site (correct)

Sufficient materials for signal construction (correct)

Site near major transportation route for access of recovery vehicle

Site hidden from potential enemy observation and ground fire (correct)

37) You should attempt to provide proof of life during any audio or video recording or written documents?

True (correct)

False

38) What are the goals of using a disguise? (Select all that apply)

Prevent recognition (correct)

Pass as a Red Cross member

Keep warm

Pass initial scrutiny (correct)

39) When are personnel ALWAYS authorized to escape?

When the food provided isn't to U.S. standards

After one month of captivity in Peacetime Governmental Detention (PGD)

When facing harsh interrogations

When in physical or mortal danger (correct)

40) During a direct action recovery, you should pick up a weapon and assist the recovery team.

False (correct)

True

Naval Space - NAVEDTRA 14168A [Answers]

NAVAL SPACE

Course: 14168A

Assignment: 1 (3.7)

quest1: 2

quest2: 2

quest3: 3

quest4: 4

quest5: 2

quest6: 2

quest7: 4

quest8: 3

quest9: 4

quest10: 1

quest11: 1

quest12: 3

quest13: 1

quest14: 1

quest15: 2

quest16: 1

quest17: 4

quest18: 3

quest19: 2

quest20: 1

quest21: 3

quest22: 2

quest23: 1

quest24: 1

quest25: 3

quest26: 4

quest27: 1

quest28: 1

quest29: 1

quest30: 4

quest31: 4

quest32: 1

quest33: 4

quest34: 4

quest35: 1

quest36: 1

quest37: 2

quest38: 1

quest39: 2

quest40: 3

quest41: 4

quest42: 3

quest43: 4

quest44: 4

quest45: 3

quest46: 1

quest47: 1

quest48: 4

quest49: 3

quest50: 3

quest51: 3

Assignment: 2 (3.9)

quest1: 2

quest2: 3

quest3: 3

quest4: 1

quest5: 1

quest6: 4

quest7: 3

quest8: 2

quest9: 4

quest10: 1

quest11: 2

quest12: 1

quest13: 4

quest14: 4

quest15: 4

quest16: 2

quest17: 3

quest18: 3

quest19: 3

quest20: 4

quest21: 3

quest22: 4

quest23: 1

quest24: 3

quest25: 1

quest26: 2

quest27: 3

quest28: 2

quest29: 3

quest30: 4

quest31: 2

quest32: 1

quest33: 1

quest34: 1

quest35: 2

quest36: 2

quest37: 1

quest38: 4

quest39: 2

quest40: 4

quest41: 3

quest42: 3

quest43: 2

quest44: 1

quest45: 4

quest46: 4

quest47: 3

quest48: 4

quest49: 2

quest50: 3

quest51: 1

quest52: 4

quest53: 3

quest54: 4

quest55: 2

quest56: 2

quest57: 2

quest58: 3

quest59: 4

quest60: 3

quest61: 1

quest62: 2

quest63: 3

quest64: 3

quest65: 3

quest66: 4

quest67: 3

quest68: 4

quest69: 3

Assignment: 3 (3.9)

quest1: 3

quest2: 3

quest3: 4

quest4: 2

quest5: 2

quest6: 1

quest7: 2

quest8: 2

quest9: 3

quest10: 4

quest11: 1

quest12: 1

quest13: 3

quest14: 1

quest15: 2

quest16: 3

quest17: 4

quest18: 2

quest19: 1

quest20: 2

quest21: 1

quest22: 2

quest23: 2

quest24: 2

quest25: 2

quest26: 2

quest27: 3

quest28: 4

quest29: 3

quest30: 1

quest31: 2

quest32: 1

quest33: 4

quest34: 4

quest35: 1

quest36: 2

quest37: 4

quest38: 3

quest39: 1

quest40: 2

quest41: 3

quest42: 4

quest43: 3

quest44: 2

quest45: 4

quest46: 3

quest47: 3

quest48: 2

quest49: 1

quest50: 2

quest51: 3

quest52: 1

quest53: 4

quest54: 2

quest55: 3

quest56: 1

quest57: 4

quest58: 3

quest59: 1

quest60: 3

quest61: 2

quest62: 2

quest63: 1

quest64: 2

quest65: 4

quest66: 1

quest67: 4

quest68: 3

When using the SMART model and analyzing information based on the Authority phase, which of the following is an example of credible credentials?

A Medical Doctor (M.D.) that is funded by special interest groups, or funding adversaries

A self-credentialed billionaire proclaiming to be a philanthropist advocating for human depopulation as sustainable

A former military analyst providing situational awareness information

A Medical Doctor (M.D.) providing political advice

A Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.) providing medical advice

Answer: A former military analyst providing situational awareness information

How To Conduct a Command Climate Survey

Which of the following are purposes for conducting a CCA? Select all that apply.

• To identify areas for improvement and take appropriate actions to address challenges within the organization

• To direct resources to the units, organizations, or locations that are most in need of support

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Which of the following are TRUE regarding BOTH Annual CCAs and Change of Command (CoC) CCAs? Select all that apply.

• Interpretation of CCA results must be briefed to leaders

• CCA results must be recorded in the unit or installation’s Comprehensive Integration Prevention Plan

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What is the CCA requirement when a Change of Command occurs during the Annual CCA?

- Leaders should conduct a single CCA that fulfills both Change of Command CCA and Annual CCA requirements

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****Before leaders can brief the rest of the unit on CCA results, which of the following steps must be completed? Select all that apply.

• DEOCS administration or review

• DEOCS interpretation

• CCA interpretation

• Additional data compilation or collection

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Which of the following groups must have the opportunity to participate in a CCA? Select all that apply.

• All Service members and civilian employees in the command or organization

• Civilian or military foreign nationals when attached or assigned

• Individuals on detail or otherwise temporarily assigned

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Whose responsibility is it to advise commanders or leaders on collecting additional data beyond the DEOCS and DOCP?

- The Integrated Primary Prevention Workforce (IPPW)

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Which of the following is the most accurate definition of an organization’s climate?

- The perception and attitudes of Service members and civilians as they interact within the culture with their peers, subordinates, and leaders

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A unit commander is interested in understanding members’ knowledge of primary prevention. Which of the following is an example of a quantitative data method that could be used for gathering this information?

- Surveys

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After the unit commander collected and analyzed data on unit cohesion levels, they were interested in understanding more about why unit members responded in the ways they did. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative data method that could be used for gathering this information?

- Focus groups

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A unit commander conducting their own survey and fielding their own focus groups is considered primary data collection. Which of the following is a strength of primary data collection?

- Data collected are tailored and unique to each assessment

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Which of the following data collection methods will give researchers and the command team a more robust, complete snapshot of command climate?

- Combining qualitative data with quantitative data AND combining primary and secondary data

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Who is responsible for managing the DEOCS?

- The Office of People Analytics (OPA)

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Which of the following is TRUE about the DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• It is a unit-level climate survey

• It is required as part of an Annual CCA

• Additional data sources reviewed should focus on gaining a better understanding of the issues identified in the DEOCS

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When is the latest a DEOCS can begin being administered during the annual CCA?

- 31 October

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Which of the following are TRUE about the role the IPPW staff play in the DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• They assist with interpretation of DEOCS results

• They work with commanders and leaders to identify potential actions to address DEOCS findings

• They work closely with other relevant program specialists and prevention personnel to interpret DEOCS findings and design strategies to address identified issues

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Which of the following are TRUE about participation in the DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• If fewer than 16 individuals from a unit or organization participate in the survey, the DEOCS results will not be released

• All Service members, Military Service Academy cadets and midshipmen, and DoD civilian employees must have the opportunity to participate in their unit or organization’s DEOCS

• Individuals who are on detail or otherwise temporarily assigned should only participate in one DEOCS

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Why were the nine risk factors and ten protective factors chosen to be measured by the DEOCS?

- These factors are shared across the six DEOCS strategic target outcomes (STOs) that have been identified as being strategically important to the DoD

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For which of the following reasons does OPA recommend NOT making major personnel or strategic planning decisions solely based on DEOCS data? Select all that apply.

• Command is held for a relatively brief window

• If participants believe poor DEOCS results would trigger punishment, it may skew how participants respond

• The DEOCS is not intended to be used as a “report card” for the commander or leader

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What model or framework can help you understand the risk and protective factors that influence behaviors and how those factors interact across multiple levels?

- The Social-Ecological Model (SEM)

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An organization is implementing a policy to improve equitable access to safe and affordable housing for Service members. This would be an example of addressing what kind of protective factor?

- Organizational level

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Which of the following are TRUE about risk factors? Select all that apply.

• They increase the likelihood that harmful behaviors will occur

• Organizations should strive to have lower unfavorable ratings for these factors

• They are associated with negative outcomes for a unit or organization

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***Which of the following are TRUE about protective factors? Select all that apply.

• They increase the ability to avoid risks and promote healthy behaviors to thrive in all aspects of life

• They decrease the likelihood that harmful behaviors will occur

• They are associated with positive outcomes for a unit or organization

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The DEOCS measures risk factors at the unit level. In general, organizations should strive to have higher favorable ratings for protective factors and lower unfavorable ratings for risk factors. Why is this? Select all that apply.

• This would indicate better performance or readiness

• This would indicate a lower likelihood of negative outcomes

• This would indicate less attrition from the military

• This would indicate lower likelihood of sexual assault, suicide, sexual harassment

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Which type of scale do all DEOCS items use?

- Which type of scale do all DEOCS items use?

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___________________ is an individual’s perception that organizational policies, practices, and procedures, both formal and informal, regarding information sharing, recognition, job opportunities, and promotions are based on merit, inclusion, equality, and respect.

- Fairness

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___________________ is an individual’s perception that their leader builds trust, encourages goal attainment and professional development, promotes effective communication, and supports teamwork.

- Leadership support

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Which of the following survey items on the DEOCS measure connectedness? Select all that apply.

• These days, I feel like I belong

• These days, I feel that there are people I can turn to in times of need

• These days, I think I make things worse for the people in my life

• My future seems dark to me

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Research has shown a link between organizational fairness and which strategic target outcomes (STOs)? Select all that apply.

• Improved readiness

• Higher retention

• Lower levels of racial and ethnic harassment and discrimination

• Lower levels of sexual assault

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Which of the following protective factors are measured on the DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• Connectedness

• Engagement and commitment

• Inclusion

• Transformational leadership

• Morale

• Work-life balance

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___________________ is the perception that the demands of an individual’s work life and personal life are compatible.

- Work-life balance

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Which of the following survey items on the DEOCS measure transformational leadership? Select all that apply.

• My [unit’s leader or organization’s leader or senior NCO or SEL] communicates a clear and motivating vision of the future

• My [unit’s leader or organization’s leader or senior NCO or SEL] supports my career development

• My [unit’s leader or organization’s leader or senior NCO or SEL] supports and encourages the development of [others or people in my unit]

• I have trust and confidence in my [unit’s leader or organization’s leader or senior NCO or SEL]

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Research has shown a link between the safe storage of lethal means and which strategic target outcome (STO)?

- Lower likelihood of suicide

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___________________ is/are characterized by an individual’s perception that behaviors within their workplace include unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and offensive comments or gestures of a sexual nature.

- Sexually harassing behaviors

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Which of the following survey items on the DEOCS measure alcohol impairing memory and binge drinking? Select all that apply.

- During the past 12 months, how often have you been unable to remember what happened the night before because you had been drinking?

- How often do you have four or more drinks (if you are a woman) or five or more drinks (if you are a man) on one occasion?

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Research suggests that which of the following strategic target outcomes (STOs) is/are linked to racially harassing behaviors? Select all that apply.

- Racial or ethnic harassment and discrimination

- Sexual harassment

- Suicide

- Readiness

- Retention

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Which of the following risk factors are measured on the DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• Binge drinking

• Passive leadership

• Racially harassing behaviors

• Sexist behaviors

• Stress

• Workplace hostility

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___________________ is an individual’s perception that their leader has a disregard for subordinate input, defiance of logic or predictability, and self-promoting tendencies.

- Toxic leadership

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Which of the following survey items on the DEOCS measure stress? Select all that apply.

• In the past month, how often have you felt nervous or stressed?

• In the past month, how often have you felt that you were unable to control the important things in your life?

• In the past month, how often have you been angered because of things that were outside of your control?

• In the past month, how often have you found that you could not cope with all of the things you had to do?

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Research suggests that which of the following strategic target outcomes (STOs) are related to workplace hostility? Select all that apply.

• Racial or ethnic harassment and discrimination

• Sexual harassment

• Sexual assault

• Readiness

• Retention

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Which of the following best defines strategic target outcomes (STOs)?

- They are personnel issues of importance to Department senior leadership, Congress, and the American public

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Which of the following best describes the relationship between the risk and protective factors on the DEOCS and the strategic target outcomes (STOs)?

- The risk and protective factors on the DEOCS measure climate factors that increase or decrease the likelihood of the STOs

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The risk and protective factors on the DEOCS measure climate factors that increase or decrease the likelihood of the STOs

• Racial or ethnic harassment and discrimination

• Sexual harassment

• Sexual assault

• Suicide

• Readiness

• Retention

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The protective factor “morale” is aligned with the STOs of retention, readiness, and sexual harassment. What does this mean for a unit that reports lower “morale” according to the DEOCS?

-

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If commanders, organization leaders, and prevention personnel need to tailor the DEOCS to their specific unit and context, how can they accomplish this?

- They can select questions from the custom bank beyond the core questions within the online DEOCS Portal

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Where can you go view the current bank of approved additional questions?

- The Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute Assessment to Solutions website

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Which of the following are reasons why commanders and leaders would want to customize their DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• To add questions to gather data for a community needs assessment

• To provide additional context or data on topics salient to the particular unit

• To assess risk and protective factors targeted by local prevention activities

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Which of the following question types can be found on the DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• Closed-ended questions

• Open-ended questions

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Which of the following are strengths of closed-ended questions? Select all that apply.

• They reduce survey fatigue

• They generate quantifiable data that is relatively easy to code

• Responses can be compared across subgroups

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Which of the following are strengths of open-ended questions? Select all that apply.

• Responses may include unanticipated problems or solutions

• Participants are provided the opportunity to express strong, specific opinions

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Which of the following expectations/responsibilities fall under the CCA administrator’s role? Select all that apply.

• Create and register a new DEOCS

• Monitor response rates

• Extend the survey close date as needed

• Promote the survey to all participants

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Which of the following expectations/responsibilities fall under the role for Integrated Primary Prevention Workforce personnel? Select all that apply.

- Interpret survey results and identify next steps

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Which of the following expectations/responsibilities fall under the unit or organization commander or leader’s role? Select all that apply.

• Interpret survey results and identify next steps

• Review and approve or deny a new DEOCS request

• Promote the survey to all participants

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Which DoD policy outlines the Integrated Primary Prevention Workforce’s (IPPW) responsibilities related to the DEOCS?

- DoDI 6400.11, DoD Integrated Primary Prevention Policy for Prevention Workforce and Leaders

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How will survey participants access the DEOCS?

- How will survey participants access the DEOCS?

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Which of the following can be done by an Equal Opportunity Advisor (EOA) or Command Climate Specialist (CCS)? Select all that apply.

• View the registrations for current DEOCS

• Monitor survey response

• Download results in the Interactive Dashboard

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Which of the following information should CCA administrators have ready in order to request a DEOCS? Select all that apply.

• Roster

• Service component

• Unit Type

• Deployment status

• Survey start and end dates

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Which of the following are TRUE about the process for obtaining approval for the DEOCS request? Select all that apply.

• The commander or leader will need to approve the DEOCS request before the survey can start

• Survey registration is done via the Command Climate Portal

• If the request is approved, the CCA administrator will receive an e-mail with instructions on how participants can access the survey

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Which of the following steps are taken to ensure survey security, accuracy, and confidentiality? Select all that apply.

• There is a secure login method for participants

• Secure technology protects all personally identifiable information

• Results for subgroups or demographic categories with fewer than five participants are not reported

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During the survey window, which table should CCA administrators be monitoring closely?

- Response rates

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What does it mean for a unit to have a 40% response rate?

- 40% of unit members completed at least 50% of the base questions

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***Which of the following are ways that are likely to increase DEOCS participation? Select all that apply.

• Leaders communicating the purpose of the DEOCS

• A kick-off event

• Keeping unit members informed on progress related to plans for address the issues identified on the previous DEOCS

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Under which conditions would the survey window automatically be extended? Select all that apply.

• If the response rate is less than 30%

• If there are fewer than 16 respondents in the system

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Where is the DEOCS Interactive Dashboard housed?

- Under the “My Applications” tab in the Command Climate Portal

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What can you use to only show the results for the participants within a particular subgroup?

- The search/filter dropdown bar at the top of the page

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If a unit or organization wants to put their individual risk or protective factor ratings into context and understand whether actions should be taken to address specific ratings, which of the following strategies should they employ? Select all that apply.

• Review the information in the alert icon to see if your risk or protective factor’s ratings are called out

• Examine the bar graph showing the overall ratings for each risk or protective factor and the ratings by various demographic categories

• Review your rating trends over time

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Which of the following statements is an accurate interpretation of this organization’s inclusion ratings? Select the figure to zoom in.

- 47% of responses from enlisted participants indicated the organization is inclusive, while 66% of responses from officers indicated the organization is inclusive

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Which of the following statements is an accurate interpretation of this organization’s passive leadership ratings? Select the figure to zoom in.

- 7% of responses from men indicated the unit leader is a passive leader, while 23% of responses from women indicated the unit leader is a passive leader

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What information is included about each factor in the Interpretation Guide? Select all that apply.

• Definition of the factor

• Summary of research on how the factor relates to key outcomes

• How to read your factor ratings

• How to put your ratings into more context

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Which of the following are considered best practices for interpreting DEOCS results? Select all that apply.

• Review factor ratings separately for each level of leadership

• Revisit your rationale for selecting questions in your Customizable Survey Block

• Ensure you have outlined how you will address any factors that do not meet the scoring benchmarks in your comprehensive integrated prevention plan

Level 1 Anti Terrorism JKO 2023

1) True or False: IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment.

True (correct)

False

2) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous.

True (correct)

False

3) True or False: Room invasions are not a significant security issue for hotels located within the United States.

False (correct)

True

4) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone.

False

True (correct)

5) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers.

True

False (correct)

6) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related.

True

False (correct)

7) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored.

True (correct)

False

8) True or False: Security is a team effort.

False

True (correct)

9) Which one of these is a possible indicator of a suspicious letter or package?

A return address that matches the postmark

Evenly distributed and well balanced parcel

Excessive tape and/or postage (correct)

Mailing address providing a complete and correct name

10) True or False: Reasons for acquiring hostages include publicity, use as a bargaining chip while executing other crimes, the forcing of political concessions, and ransom.

False

True (correct)

11) Which one of these is NOT a physical security feature you should check when inspecting your hotel room?

Lockbox or safe (correct)

Functioning locks on doors and windows

Whether or not the door is solid

Operational telephone

Proximity of room to emergency exits

12) Which of the following is NOT a useful vehicle feature from a security perspective?

Power locks

Wi-Fi capable (correct)

Power windows

Internal hood release lever

Lock on gas cap

13) True or False: The ticketing area is more secure than the area beyond the security check point.

False (correct)

True

14) True or False: State Department Travel Warnings should be consulted prior to taking trips across the US-Mexican border.

True (correct)

False

15) Home security can be improved with self-help measures like changing locks, securing windows, and improving outdoor lighting. True or False?

True (correct)

False

16) Active resistance should be the immediate response to an active shooter incident.

True

False (correct)

17) Which one of the following is NOT an early indicator of a potential insider threat?

Aggression or threats toward co-workers

Presence of unauthorized weapons

Abnormal mood swings, depression, and suicidal remarks

A reasonable disagreement over US Government policy (correct)

Anti-American statements asserting that US policy and authority is illegitimate

18) Which one of these does NOT pose a risk to security at a government facility?

Inattentive guard personnel

A visitor showing an unusual interest in details of security procedures

A person found in an inappropriate location of the facility

An "escort required" visitor found without an escort

A person expressing boredom with the US mission (correct)

19) Electronic audio and video devices are never used by terrorists for surveillance purposes. True or False?

True

False (correct)

20) If you identify a possible surveillance attempt you should try to handle the situation yourself.

True

False (correct)

21) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions.

False

True (correct)

22) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security.

False

True (correct)

23) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means.

True (correct)

False

24) What is the most increased Force Protection Level for a base/installation?

Alpha

Bravo

Charlie

Delta (correct)

25) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. Select all that apply.

How active are terrorist groups? (correct)

Will local citizens warn Americans about terrorist groups? (correct)

Are terrorist groups predictable? (correct)

What tactics and weapons are used by terrorist groups? (correct)

Are terrorist groups in the area? (correct)

Are terrorist groups violent? (correct)

Do terrorist groups attack Americans? (correct)

How sophisticated are terrorist groups? (correct)

26) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack.

Location (correct)

Opportunity (correct)

Predictability (correct)

Association (correct)

27) True or False: Individuals should Fight as last resort and only when your life is in imminent danger.

True (correct)

False

28) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident.

True (correct)

False

Active Threat Response

What is an Active Threat Module

An insider threat can be characterized by one of the statements shown.

Person aggressively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

Any situation that creates an immediate threat or presents an imminent danger by its deliberate nature.

Potential for an attack by persons who hold a position of trust with DOD service members. [Correct]

An active shooter can be characterized by one of the statements shown.

Person aggressively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area. [Correct]

Any situation that creates an immediate threat or presents an imminent danger by its deliberate nature.

Potential for an attack by persons who hold a position of trust with DOD service members.

An active threat can be characterized by one of the statements shown.

Person aggressively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

Any situation that creates an immediate threat or presents an imminent danger by its deliberate nature. [Correct]

Potential for an attack by persons who hold a position of trust with DOD service members.

Recognizing Potential Threat Actions and Indicators Module

Who is most likely to recognize potential threats?

Spouse or significant other

Senior leadership

Those closest to the individual [Correct]

Medical professionals

Identifying overt indicators is integral to recognizing potential threat actions. (Select all overt indicators from the choices provided, then Submit.)

Probing security responses

Indications of discontent for US Forces

Perceived cultural disrespect on the part of US Forces

Expressing sympathy for organizations supporting violence

Overt

Collecting unclassified material

Ominous or vague threats

Unusual interest in classified material

Suspicious questioning

Covert

Reporting Concerns or Incidents Module

If an individual demonstrates potential threat indicators, you should report your concerns. (Select all answers that apply, then Submit.)

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) [Correct]

Public Affairs

Commander [Correct]

Immediate Supervisor [Correct]

Developing a Warrior Mindset Module

Fostering a warrior mindset is essential for Airmen to survive an active threat.

True [Correct]

False

Which of the following definitions describe components of the warrior mindset? (Select all answers that apply, then Submit.)

Respond immediately with an appropriate level of force to stop the attack and escape or press forward with the mission. [Correct]

The uninhibited mental resolution to aggressively react to illegal violence with a fierce and violent defense. [Correct]

Stay focused on your goal of survival and mission accomplishment. [Correct]

Assess the situation and decide to escape, barricade, or fight.

Always having a personal security plan that has been exercised.

Preventative Action Planning Module

Select all answers that describe the essentials of successful preventative action planning, then Submit.

Have a personal security plan. [Correct]

Sit facing entrances, when possible. [Correct]

Dividers should not be used in an office workspace so everyone can see the threat coming.

Crowding personnel together should be avoided. [Correct]

Workplace layout should prevent all personnel from being visible upon entering a room. [Correct]

It is desirable to be in a large group for safety.

Escape, Barricade, or Fight Module

What initial responses should you choose from when in the vicinity of an active threat? (Select all answers that apply, then Submit.)

Fight [Correct]

Call 911

Stand your ground

Pull the fire alarm

Barricade [Correct]

Escape [Correct]

You should escape if you are directly confronted with the active threat or aggressor. True or False.

True

False [Correct]

Complete this sentence by choosing a phrase. Barricading is the best choice when _______.

It is probable your exit route is blocked or under the observation of the active threat [Correct]

It is a last resort

You are close enough to hear gunshots

You are directly confronted by the attacker

During an active threat situation, fighting should be considered your last option. True or False.

True

False [Correct]

*It may be your only (and first) option depending on the scenario

Cans assessment

Rate mother Suzanne in the Caregiver domain.

Laura is an 11-year-old girl who lives with her mother, Suzanne, and her 8-year-old little brother, Jerry. Until six months ago, Laura’s father lived with the family, but now he is incarcerated for domestic violence against Suzanne. Laura and Jerry witnessed his attack on their mother. Suzanne’s injuries included a broken pelvis from being shoved down the stairs, requiring her to be hospitalized for 3 weeks with a subsequent and ongoing convalescence at home. Suzanne’s mother came from California to care for Laura and Jerry for almost 4 months during Suzanne’s convalescence before returning home 2 months ago.

Both children are on the autism spectrum. Jerry’s condition is profoundly evident, but Laura’s symptoms are relatively mild, and often not noticed by people who are not familiar with spectrum disorders. She has a friendly personality and smiles easily. But she has difficulty maintaining eye contact and often fixates on specific topics. Her teachers report that she has no conflicts with other children, but that her literal thinking, mild perseveration, and difficulty understanding humor is a barrier to close friendships, and her standoffishness frequently results in other children excluding her.

Laura’s current educational needs (as indicated by her IEP) are primarily related to anxiety and sensitivity to loud noises or inability to tolerate large crowds. Until recently the school’s accommodations have been sufficient to help her maintain acceptable grades. School officials report, however, that in the two months since her grandmother returned to California, Laura’s anxiety has become much worse. She is seldom able to get through a whole day without her teachers allowing her to leave the classroom to self-isolate in a small time-out room adjacent to the social worker’s office. Additionally, within the last few weeks Laura has begun regularly missing a day or two of school each week due to complaints of feeling unwell although there doesn’t seem to be a medical cause. As a result, her grades have fallen.

The school social worker usually visits at least briefly with Laura during her self-isolation periods and has a good rapport with her. While talking with Laura, she noticed that anxiety episodes no longer seem connected to external surroundings or stressful environments. More often, her anxiety is focused on her brother who Laura says is not receiving the support and attention he needs either at home or at the school he attends for children with autism. The social worker reports that Laura has said many times that “Jerry needs me. Nobody can take care of him like I can.”

The social worker contacted Suzanne to talk about Laura’s behaviors and her more frequent absences at school. Suzanne welcomed the phone call, saying Laura is also obsessed with mothering Jerry at home, and Jerry has come to depend on Laura’s constant attention. Suzanne said that, while she tries to show her love for and commitment to them, the two children have developed a “co-dependent” relationship that she fears is not healthy for either of them, and she doesn’t know what to do about it. If she tries to separate them, even to make them sleep in separate rooms, Jerry will become upset and sometimes bite, slap himself or bang his head. Laura becomes hysterical at these times and begins screaming and has started pulling her own hair; she tends to pull at her own hair when her anxiety overwhelms her, and this is a release for her. It is difficult to calm her down, so Suzanne almost always relents and lets them be together in the same room, at which point they quickly calm down and the household can go back to normal.

Suzanne said that before this terrible incident with her husband, she always managed her children’s behavior well, but now she feels frozen. She believes Jerry likely needs a medication adjustment, but she has avoided making an appointment because of ongoing mobility issues that make it very painful to drive. She said she also feels depressed and sometimes overwhelmed by her own and her children’s needs and doesn’t know how to put this experience behind her and start making her life better. She does get some help from a neighbor, but she has no nearby family, and her husband’s family refuses to talk to her since he was arrested. The social worker asked Suzanne if she would like her to refer Laura to a care management program, and Suzanne responded that she would like that very much.

The social worker made the referral, and recently a care manager visited with Suzanne and Laura. The care manager noted that the house was clean but cluttered, with stacks of mail in various places in the living and dining areas. During the initial interview, Suzanne said she has a great deal of difficulty keeping up with bills, because she doesn’t have money to pay them, and it depresses her to even think about them and what things they may have to temporarily go without.

The case manager visited with Laura, while Jerry watched YouTube on a tablet in the same room. The CM noted that Laura’s affect was cheerful, but she provided only very shallow and rote answers to questions, often consisting of just “yes” or “no” or “I don’t know.” She would only make brief eye contact. The only voluntary comment she made was to ask if the social worker had sent her

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