What is the use of approved tablets and elec pubs?

Use of approved tablets with electronic publications and
the digital map system (DMS) available in the MV-22 significantly reduces the requirement
for aircrew to carry paper maps during mission execution.

What is the consideration for minimum boots on deck?

Serial sizes

A common serial size should be agreed upon by ACE and GCE
planners to facilitate an efficient load plan and to expedite bump plan execution. Consider
the use of six man serials. This has proven to be an accurate planning factor for the MV-22,
CH-53, and UH-1Y. Another viable option is the use of seven man serials, which is
compatible with both MV-22s equipped with DWS and CH-53s.

All obstructions within ___ feet of the minimum altitude for the width of the route.

100

All obstructions exceeding ___ feet AGL within ___ NM of the route boundary

500, 5

All obstructions within ___ feet of the minimum altitude for the width of the route displayed on Vector Vertical Obstruction Data (VVOD).

100

Marine Medium Tiltrotor Squadron Mission

The mission of a Marine medium tiltrotor
squadron (VMM) is to support the Marine air-ground task force (MAGTF) commander by
providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies and equipment—day and
night—under all-weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.

Assault support missions fall under one of two categories:

preplanned
or immediate.

2 types of pre-planned missions

scheduled and on-call

Preplanned scheduled missions are commonly dictated by the _______ and are executed at a scheduled time to a predetermined location

air tasking order (ATO)

Preplanned on-call missions are executed upon request through the ________ and are executed at a time when aircraft are scheduled to be
available for use.

direct air support center (DASC)

types of immediate missions

QRF, CASEVAC, TRAP, CAS

Mission precedence is assigned by the ______ requesting the support

UNIT COMMANDER

Missions are categorized as

routine, priority, urgent, emergency or mandatory.

A mission precedence of mandatory will be assigned only by the _________

MAGTF commander or a designated representative.

_________ is assigned for the administrative or tactical transport of personnel, materiel, or equipment when time is not a critical factor and delay would not endanger lives or loss of materiel

Routine precedence

________ is assigned for the tactical movement of personnel, materiel, or equipment where excessive delay would jeopardize the success of the mission.

Priority precedence

_________is applicable only to the CASEVAC of critically wounded, injured, or ill personnel whose immediate evacuation is a matter of life or death.

Urgent precedence

________is assigned for missions involving the safety of US or other friendly lives and missions requiring immediate transport of vital supplies or equipment.

Emergency precedence

________is assigned for missions involving possible loss of human life or national prestige to the extent that normally unacceptable risks are taken in their accomplishment.

Mandatory precedence

What is a low threat?

A low threat environment allows operations to proceed without prohibitive interference.

What is a medium threat?

A medium threat environment is one in which the specific aircraft's performance and weapon systems capability allows acceptable exposure time to
enemy air defenses.

What is a high threat?

A high threat environment exists when the enemy has an air defense structure that includes integrated fire control systems and electronic warfare capabilities that would seriously diminish the ability of friendly forces to provide necessary air
support.

A low threat environment may include the following:

Small arms and medium antiaircraft weapons, Limited optical acquisition air defense artillery (ADA) with no integrated fire control systems.

A medium threat environment may
include the following:

Limited radar or EO acquisition capability not supported by fully integrated fire
control systems.
A fully integrated fire control system that is degraded because of terrain, weather, or
other factors.

A high threat environment
may include, but is not limited to:

• Effective C2 network.
• Mobile and/or tactical and strategic surface-to-air missiles (SAM).
• Early warning (EW) radars.
• Electronic warfare (EW).
• Integrated ADA fire control systems.
• Intercept aircraft.

Tiltrotor Aircraft Commander

The TAC is responsible for the safe tactical
employment of the aircraft. The TAC must demonstrate leadership qualities and traits that
enable them to fly an aircraft, as well as utilize and employ the crew and weapons systems to
facilitate mission accomplishment.

Section Leader

A section leader is an experienced TAC responsible for the tactical employment of two aircraft in order to accomplish assigned missions

Division Leader.

A division leader is an experienced aviator fully qualified to employ and lead three or four aircraft.

Flight Lead

A flight lead is an experienced aviator fully qualified to employ five or more aircraft.

Assault Flight Lead.

The AFL is a billet assigned to an experienced aviator in command of the assault mission aircraft.

Escort Flight Lead

The EFL is a billet assigned to an experienced aviator in command of the escort aircraft

Air Mission Commander

The ACE commander or the aviation unit commander
appoints the AMC. When different TMS aircraft formations, each lead by its own element
leader, are required for a common mission, or when a formation of four or more aircraft must
perform a multiple-sortie mission, an AMC is designated to lead the mission.

Tactical Air Coordinator (Airborne)

A tactical air coordinator (TAC[A]) is an officer
who coordinates, from an aircraft, the actions of other aircraft engaged in air support of ground
or sea forces.

Assault Support Coordinator (Airborne)

An assault support coordinator (airborne)
(ASC[A]) is an aviator who coordinates, from an aircraft, the movement of aviation assault
assets during assault support operations

Assault Force Commander

The assault force commander (AFC) is a ground officer who has been designated as the commander of the air assault ground force. The AFC
determines the necessary ground assets, and how to apply them to effectively and safely
complete the mission

Fire Support Coordinator

The FSC is the GCE leader responsible for developing a plan for fires that supports the GCE's actions in the OA.

Serial Leader

The serial leader is responsible for manifesting, briefing, and
coordinating with personnel under his/her charge prior to and during an assault support
operation

Marshaling Area Control Officer

The MACO ensures manifesting and accountability
for all personnel embarking upon aircraft departing from a zone

FFFTDA

•Frequencies—appropriate time period, active/secure requirements, crypto selection.
• Fuels—mission/Joker/Bingo fuels, fuel availability, fuel/time for contingency holding.
• Fires—EFSTs, objective area fires integration, assault sectors of fire, ACMs.
• Triggers—mission events, contingencies, event/time driven, correlated to Go/No-Go.
• Deconfliction—time, lateral distance, and altitude deconfliction, routing, chokepoints.
• Accountability—MACO plan, ASSAT/ASLT, reporting requirements.

The minimum number of CPs selected should be no less than ____: the

4;
departure point;
the route initiation point (a point that allows an aircraft to depart from the forward operating base [FOB], airfield, or zone and get established on the route);
an initial point (IP) that is the entrance point into the OA;
and the intended landing point.

Marine Air Command and Control System (MACCS).

Integration of external C2 agencies will enhance SA and provide critical links to appropriate supporting agencies.

Direct Air Support Center (DASC).

The DASC is a subordinate operations
component of a tactical air control system designed for control and direction of close
air support and other tactical air support operations. The DASC is normally collocated
with fire-support coordination elements. The DASC processes immediate direct air
support requests, controls assigned aircraft (through procedural control), and
coordinates aircraft employment with supporting arms.

Tactical Air Operations Center (TAOC).

The TAOC is the MACCS's principal air defense agency that conducts airspace control and management. Through radar inputs from its organic sensors and data link information from other military
radar units (MRU), the TAOC provides real-time surveillance of assigned airspace in addition to air direction, positive aircraft control, and navigational assistance to friendly aircraft.

Joint Operational Graphic (JOG)

1:250,000 Scale.

VFR Sectional

1:500,000 Scale.

Tactical Pilotage Chart (TPC)

1:500,000 Scale

Topographic Line Map (TLM)

1:25,000/1:50,000/1:100,000 Scale.

Go Criteria

Criteria focused on whether to execute a mission will vary, but generally pertain to friendly factors, which must be met to accomplish the mission

No-Go Criteria.

Criteria concerning a no-go generally focus on the enemy factors and their ability to affect a negative mission outcome. For example, an enemy force in zone greater than a platoon size. Similarly, the GCE may establish its own No-Go criteria based upon its
analysis of the enemy and enemy capabilities. Minimum operational weather shall be taken
into account and defined under the No-Go criteria.

Landing Zone Criteria (winter)

The EFL generally makes the determination as to whether the intended zone has met
the prebriefed criteria for landing (proword: "Winter").

Landing Zone Criteria (devil)

The zone is "Devil" when the
prebriefed criteria have not been met

Abort

The authority to discontinue a mission during execution prior to friendly forces
being inserted may vary depending on certain phases of the mission. In general, the unit
commander with the best SA should have the authority to call a mission abort

Immediate Reembarkation

Immediate reembarkation is the expeditious
embarkation of troops (in a permissive threat environment), in order to move them to
another location or in response to an aborted insert.

Emergency Extract

Emergency extract is the extraction of a unit that is in direct contact with the enemy or whose contact with the enemy is imminent

An LZ can be further divided into
_______, designated using _________, which provide specific areas within the LZ for assault flights or waves to land.

landing sites (LS), colors (e.g., LS Black),

(KILSWITCH)

Kinetic Integration Lightweight Software Individual Tactical Combat Handheld

FALCONS

• F—Formation.
• A—Altitude and airspeed.
• L—Lighting condition.
• C—Communication.
• O—Ordnance (weapons condition/ASE setting).
• N—Navigation (obstacles, MSA, or diverts).
• S—Sensor (i.e., NVG, or FLIR).

Bingo, joker, and tiger fuels

should be planned for identified points throughout the mission which establish triggers for follow on actions.

BINGO NO FPLN

The flight leader may designate an aircraft in the flight to not activate the flight plan and use the BINGO NO FPLN function. This technique allows an
aircrew to have a separate Bingo destination active at all times and allows the mission computers to use real-time winds and other information to constantly update fuel and time required to the Bingo destination.

The TACAN can be set to one of three modes

transmit (T), receive (R),
and transmit/receive (T/R)

Fuel calculations are updated every ____ seconds for the current leg and every ____ seconds for
future legs.

5, 30

Fuel flow can vary from approximately _____ pounds per hour (pph) during max endurance flight profiles to more than _____ pph during max performance
maneuvering.

1600, 4000

Pilots should consider adjusting the CvP ±0.1 NM for every __ KGS from ___ KGS in order to provide sufficient distance to properly
decelerate on the desired profile.

10 KGS from 240 KGS

The six basic types of tactical approaches that will be discussed are

the straight-in, 90-degree offset, 180-degree offset, hasty, the medium-altitude tactical approach (MATA), and approach mode (APPR).

Tactical approaches as described from a 3-NM CvP average between ____ and ____ minutes to wheels on deck.

1+45 and 2+15

Lower speeds can be used for autobeeping if needed. Every 10 KCAS decrease in autobeep speed results in approximately _ to _ seconds less time
at 100 percent Nr. Resulting in less time exposed to threats and a reduction in aural signature time of exposure. The delay of autobeeping calls for a more
aggressive nose-up attitude (up to 14 degrees in the most aggressive profiles) and should not be delayed beyond ___ KCAS.

6 to 7, 140

The standard formation for multi-aircraft tactical
approaches is _________

combat cruise.

Ideally, Combat Cruise is achieved at or just prior to the _________ such that lead's nacelle and pitch adjustments can be visually monitored.

conversion point

The three basic ways to deconflict separate maneuver elements within a shared objective area are

time, lateral distance, and altitude

Flight interval, or the timing between maneuver elements in a shared objective
area, should support the ground tactical plan and allow for reactive tactics between elements
what is minimum time?

(i.e., minimum 2 minutes).

Lateral Distance

For routing to be effective, separation should be enough that briefed threat systems
cannot engage both elements and allow for a threat reaction by one element not to affect the
other.

Altitude

The absolute minimum safe vertical separation between separate elementsis 200 feet AGL, with ingressing aircraft normally assuming lower altitudes. This technique is more suited for maneuvers in relatively flat terrain.

Select an image type and image scale desired for a hover page underlay. Recommended setup is ___
NM chart __ zoomed for a final scale of ___ NM. If utilizing the FLIR underlay the minimum final
scale is ___ NM.

0.5, 2x, 0.25, 0.33

The straight-in tactical approach is used when the ingress heading is within ___ degrees of the landing heading for a preplanned LZ.

+45

______________ approach results in the
least time being spent in the most vulnerable phase of execution—the conversion to landing—and minimizes individual aircrew and/or flight workload.

straight in approach

Assuming a no-wind day and perfect 90-degree offset geometry, a standard-rate turn (SRT) can be maintained to roll out wings level on a ___ NM final.

0.5nm

The low-altitude environment is defined as altitudes below ______ that are selected in a manner that utilizes terrain, vegetation, and/or man-made obstacles to enhance survivability by degrading the enemy's ability to detect the aircraft.

500 feet AGL

Operations between ______ and _____feet MSL are considered to be at medium-altitude.

500 and 13,000

High-altitude flight is defined as flight above _______up to the service ceiling of the aircraft.

13,000 feet MSL

______ and ______selection should always be based upon METT-TSL.

Airspeed and altitude

Airspeeds

Max Range: 200 kcas
Cruise: 220 kcas
Tactical: 240 kcas

Low-Altitude Tactics Defined

Low-altitude tactics (LAT) is flight conducted during
day or night VMC where the briefed intent is to conduct tactical flight where terrain
avoidance is a significant factor. LAT is further defined as intent to fly below 500 feet AGL in
order to develop terrain-avoidance skills.

LAT should only be used because the _____ or _____ prevents the use of medium or high altitude tactics.

threat or
weather

Wingman will not fly step-down when lead is _____

300 feet AGL or below

Low-Altitude Tactics Standard Equipment

RADALT
DIGMAP with 10 NM and 20 NM map coverage and DTED for the route or area
GPS
Flight Path Vector
Day HUD
JMPS data
• Route (when conducting LAT on MTR or other approved route)
• Corridors
• MCHUM and VVOD

In addition, the following equipment is required when flying LAT at night

• NVG
• NVG HUD
• FLIR

Optical flow

is the angular rate and direction of movement of all visual objects produced as a result of the aircraft's velocity vector measured relative to the pilot.

Speed-Rush Baseline

Speed-rush baseline is defined as the relative optical flow reference from which subsequent perceptive evaluations of altitude and airspeed are made.

TCTs

are mental or physical tasks that establish, maintain, or predict ground or obstacle clearance.

MTs

are all tasks other than TCT required for mission accomplishment.
These tasks can be further divided into critical tasks (CT) and noncritical tasks (NCT).

Crit Task

Tasks demanding immediate attention for mission success

NCT

Tasks to be accomplished in a flexible time window and do not immediately affect mission accomplishment.

For low altitudes, the minimum speed where maximum G can be attained is approximately ____. At speeds less than that, the aircraft will experience ______ before maximum G is attained

250 KCAS.
wing stall

A vertical maneuver is defined by
a _______

FPV of ±5 degrees.

5-Degree Rule

the maximum FPV down will be 5 degrees less than the maximum FPV up during the climb

50 Percent Rule

This ROT provides a maximum FPV (50 percent of the maneuver initiation altitude in AGL hundreds of feet) to initiate a descent from high altitude to LAT.

Dive Recovery Rules

5- 300
10- 450
15- 600
20- 800

Small-Descent Rule

This ROT states that the FPV should not exceed 1 degree per 100 feet of altitude deviation. The small-descent rule works well up to the 5-degree dive
angle, at which point the dive recovery rule takes over if intending to level off at 200 feet
AGL.

Corner Speed.

Corner speed is the speed at which maximum instantaneous turn rate is achieved

A level quick stop in moderate winds can be
conducted from 220 KCAS to a hover in

54 seconds and 1.7 NM

APPR MODE: The standard will be for wing to add ____ feet to the ingress altitude and ___ seconds to SYSTOT for all section coupled
approaches.

100, 20

Contingency Planning

Asset Attrition
CASEVAC
TRAP
Immediate Re-embarkation
Emergency Extract

Two of the most important concepts to understand when developing the objective area are:

1) routes shall be deconflicted and 2) fires shall be integrated.

The _____ is the most flexible of the maneuver elements.

section

A division is comprised of _____________ that, at some point during an operation, operate as a maneuver element.

three or four aircraft

A flight comprises two or more maneuver elements with ____________.

five or more aircraft.

The __________ is responsible for determining the appropriate formation for a given mission.

assault flight leader (AFL)

Contingency missions

Asset attrition, casevac, emergency extract, immediate reimbarkation, trap

A proper position is defined by three separate parameters:

bearing, range, and vertical separation.