Mission of VMM

Support the MAGTF commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies, and equipment, day or night, under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.

Weapons Commands

1. LOCK AND LOAD,
2. OPEN FIRE,
3. CEASE FIRE,
4. CLEAR YOUR WEAPONS
5. MAKE COMPLETE SAFE

What are the non-verbal fire control signals?

"• OPEN FIRE—Thumb extended upward with only the index finger extended, followed by repetitive upward motions of the hand signal.
• CEASE FIRE—Inverted gesture with thumb pointed downward, followed by repetitive downward motions of the hand signal."

4 Types of Formations

1. parade,
2. cruise,
3. combat,
4. trail

Currency

"Currency is a control measure used to provide an additional margin of
safety based on exposure frequency to a particular skill. It is a measure of time
since the last event demanding that specific skill. Loss of currency does not
affect a loss of proficiency. For example, currency determines minimum altitudes
in rules of conduct based upon the most recent low altitude fly date. Specific
currency requirements for individual type mission profiles can be found in Chapter 3."

Proficiency

A measure of achievement of a specific skill.

Types of Radar APR can detect

1. C/D band from underneath blade antenna, 2. E-K band from spiral antennas. Types of radar detected: Low probability intercept (LPI), pulse doppler, continuous wave.
3. Millimeter Wave threats (K-band) via the smaller peripheral dome of the antenna-detector element"

Golden Frequency

pre-briefed intra-flight frequency upon which all members of a flight can be marshaled in event of communication degradation; typically single channel UHF clear.

Chattermark

begin using briefed radio procedures to counter communications jamming.

COMM1/COMM2 vs C1/C2

""COMM 1"" references the aircraft's physical number 1 radio.
"COMM 2"" references the aircraft's physical number 2 radio.
Charlie 1: radio designated for communications external to the flight
Charlie 2: radio designated for intraflight communications"

Magellan

Unplanned navigational deviation shall be challenged with the proword "MAGELLAN" followed by a steer (azimuth and distance) to the briefed course line or the next checkpoint.

Columbus

Deliberate navigational deviations shall be preceded with the proword "COLUMBUS" and the direction and distance of the deviation from a checkpoint or key terrain feature.

Low Altitude

Below 500' AGL.

Advantages of Low Altitude

1. reduction in RF and IR threat visual acquisition time,
2. ability to operate visually below weather,
3. earth surface IR signature can mask low flying aircraft signature,
4. terrain masking denies visual and RF/EO/IR acquisition.

Disadvantages of Low Altitude

1. operations are conducted within the kinematic envelope of all threat systems,
2. reduced time for threat reaction,
3. TCT may significantly increase aircrew workload reducing look out doctrine,
4. increased fuel consumption and shorter ranges,
5. difficulty maintaining visual in combat spread operations,
6. reduced LOS.

Medium Altitude

500' - 13,000' MSL.

Advantages of Medium Altitude

1. carry passengers up to 13,000' MSL for 3 hours,
2. reduced task loading on aircrew for obstacles detection and avoidance,
3. ASE has a longer time to react to threats than in the low altitude environment.

Disadvantages of Medium Altitude

1. flight profies may place an aircraft in the heart of most threat systems engagement envelope other than small arms,
2. susceptibility to a wide array of threat systems,
3. increased susceptibility to FW air-to-air attack,
4. earlier RF/IR/EO and visual detection,
5. increased potential for adverse weather conditions.

High Altitude

above 13,000' MSL to service ceiling.

Advantages of High Altitude

1. safe passage against limited range threat systems,
2. other threat systems ability to engage degraded,
3. increased maneuver options,
4. increased fuel efficiency and range, 5. enhanced internal visual and electronic detection coverage,
5. enhanced LOS communications,
6. ability to fly above weather which can mask IR/EO acquisition and adversely affect acquisition sensors such as NVDs and FLIRs.

Disadvantages of High Altitude

1. increased vulnerability to FW air-to-air attack,
2. flight controls tend to be less responsive and power available is decreased,
3. increased susceptibility towards RF acquisition up to system limits,
4. may require IMC penetration through weather, and oxygen restrictions for passengers.

Tiltrotor LAT

flight conducted during day or night, VMC, where the briefed intent is to conduct tactical flight where terrain avoidance is a significant factor. LAT is further defined as intent to fly below 500' AGL in order to develop terrain avoidance skills. LAT should only be used because the threat or weather prevents the use of medium- or high-altitude tactics.

Can you do TACFORM in Cruise?

No

Can you do TACFORM with multiple sections/divisions of maneuver elements?

Yes

How to say yes to training mode:

Mode - STBY, PRGM - 1, hold in BIT. After it asks "RESET INVENTORY" and "TURN ON FTI" it asks "TURN ON TRN." Toggle PRGRM to 2 for yes, to BIT for no.

Name the 5 AAR rendezvous procedures

1. Delta - Head on offset
2. Echo - Tanker orbit
3. Foxtrot - Sequenced (Accompanied departure/Buddy climb, Tailchase)
4. Golf - Enroute overtaking
5. Hotel - Random rendezvous"

Two aircraft you can simultaneous refuel with:

FA-18 and AV-8

V-22 METL

"CORE
1. conduct aviation operations from expeditionary sea based sites
2. conduct aviation operations from expeditionary shore based sites
3. conduct combat assault transport
4. conduct air delivery
5. conduct aviation support of TRAP
6. conduct air evacuation
CORE PLUS
7. conduct airborne rapid insertion/extraction
8. provide aviation-delivered ground refueling
9. provide aviation-delivered battlefield illumination
10. provide an airborne command and control platform for command elements"

5 Levels of Mission Precedence

1. Routine
2. Priority
3. Urgent
4. Emergency
5. Mandatory

Routine

assigned for administrative or tactical transport of personnel, material, and equipment when time is not a critical factor and delay would not endanger lives or loss of material.

Priority

assigned for the tactical movement of personnel, material, and equipment where excessive delay would jeopardize the success of the mission. Priority CASEVAC of seriously wounded, injured, or ill personnel who require hospitalization but whose immediate evacuation is not a matter of life or death.

Urgent

applicable only to CASEVAC of critically wounded, injured, or ill personnel whose immediate evacuation is a matter of life or death.

Emergency

assigned to missions involving the safety of US or other friendly lives and missions requiring immediate transport of vital supplies and equipment.

Mandatory

assigned for missions involving possible loss of human life or national prestige the extent that normally unacceptable risks are taken in their accomplishment."

Mission Categories:

1. pre-planned (scheduled and on-call)
2. immediate.

In a high threat environment what types of communications should be used

Only active and secure comms

Define Core Skill:

Fundamental, environmental, or conditional Fundamental, environmental, or conditional capabilities required to perform basic functions. These basic functions serve as tactical enablers that allow crews to progress to the more complex Mission Skills. Primarily 2000 Phase events but may be introduced in the 1000 Phase. FAM/CAL/FORM/LAT/NS HLL/NS LLL/AAR/TG/AD/MAT/GTR/CQ

Define Core Skill Plus:

"Training events that can be theater specific or that have a low likelihood of
occurrence. They may be Fundamental, environmental, or conditional capabilities required to perform basic functions. 4000 Phase events. AD/AC2/DWS/CBRN/RVL/CQ/DCM/HTT"

Max effective range of GAU-17 DWS

1100m

Max effective range of M-240

1200m

Max effective range of GAU-16:

1850m

Name ASE passive and active feature and give an example of each:

passive - ir suppressors;
active - dispensing flares, maneuvering

What is the proword "BRAA".

Tactical control format containing bearing, range, altitude, aspect relative to the specified friendly aircraft

Which types of HFI does the ASE detect, and give example of each:

3 types of HFI:
1 - Tracers,
2 - Ball (No tracers),
3 - Rockets.
V-22 ASE detects types 1 (ex. ADA) and 3 (ex. RPG).

What are the 3 types of FARPS?

1. Cold
2. Static
3. Assault

What are the 2 ways of dispensing fuel

1. Aviation Ground Support (AGS) using tactical fuel systems
2. Aviation delivered ground refueling (ADGR) using aircraft specific refueling systems on board the KC-130, CH-53, and MV-22."

4 Formation principles

"1. Mutually supportive lookout doctrine
2. Ease of control coordination
3. Maneuverability and flexibility
4. Unity of effort for mission accomplishment"

Authorized fastrope length used by V-22?

90 and 120

Name the 2 things required for Enhanced Interupted Alignement (EIA):

1. "Align INS's. When 8 min align complete advisory posts, taxi aircraft to new heading - offset from first heading by at least 90 deg and less than 180 degrees. Verify align timers begin to increment again from 0. Wait for PRECISION NAV READY after 8 minutes elapsed.
2. Enhanced Interrupted Alignment. A GC alignment method which provides a 0.5 nm/hr drift rate by executing a GC alignment for 8 minutes at an initial HDG, followed by an additional 8 minutes of alignment at a HDG offset by 90 to 180 DEG from the initial HDG."

What does a 'U' on the RSI mean?

Unknown

Name the 5 objective area contingencies:

1. Asset attrition
2. TRAP
3. Casevac
4. Immediate Re-embark
5. Emergency extract

Obj area map scale?

1:50,000 tactical map

ASTACSOP Holding in APLN and CONV:

APLN - RHT, 190 kcas, 5 nm legs
CONV - RHT, 120 kcas, 1 minute legs

Emergency Extract:

The extraction of a unit that is in contact with the enemy or whose contact with the enemy is imminent.

Immediate Re-embark:

The expeditious embarkation of troops either to move them to another location or in response to an insert abort, all taking place in a permissive threat environment (i.e., not under enemy pressure).

Low altitude refueling altitudes day and night:

500' AGL day, 1500' AGL night

4 Stages of Flow around tanker:

1. Rendezvous,
2. Join-up,
3. Contact/Fuel transfer,
4. Post Air Refueling.

4 Positions of Flow around tanker:

1. observation,
2. astern,
3. contact,
4. reform.

L-hour:

the time at which the first helicopter of the helicopterborne assault wave touches down in the landing zone.

H-Hour:

the specific hour on D-Day at which a particular operations commences. The operation may be the commencement of hostilities; the hour at which an operation plan is executed or to be executed (as distinguished from the hour the order to execute is issued); the hour that the operations phase is implemented, either by land assault parachute assault, amphibious assault, air or naval bombardment

List the pubs in the ANTTP Series and what does ANTTP stand for?

"Aviation Series Naval Tactics Techniques and Procedures
-ANTTP 3-22.1 RW Tactical Employment (S)
-NTRP 3-22.2 NATIP (S)
-ANTTP 3-22.3 MV-22 Combat Aircraft Fundamentals
-NTRP 3-22.4 NATIP
-ANTTP 3-22.5 MV-22 TPG and USMC ASTAC SOP"

EMCON Level 3

The most restrictive condition and is used when a serious electronic warfare support measure (ESM) threat exists. Electronic emissions are prohibited, to include radios, DME, and IFF / SIF (except required mode 4 / 5 in theater). Radar altimeters are permitted if listed as required equipment under NATOPS or for safety of flight. Takeoffs and landings will use EMCON procedures. Comms with controlling agencies shall be made by ground observers or air boss via landline to report departure times and numbers. During training evolutions radio comms are permitted for safety of flight items only.

EMOCON Level 2

The majority of tactical missions are flown under this condition. A serious ESM threat exists; takeoffs and landings will use mincom procedures. Operate radios at a bare minimum and use brevity codes to reduce transmission time. All other emitters may be used.

EMCON Level 1

ESM threat is negligible, as compared to the fire power threat to survival. Only essential radio transmissions will be made and aircraft emitters will be used as required. "

Which Battlefield Illumination ordnance burns the longest?

"- LUU-2: overt parachute flare; burn time 240 (F-18/AV-8/C-130)
- LUU-19: covert parachute flare (IR); 420-540 second burn time (F-18/AV-8/C-130)

Not V-22
- M-257: overt rocket; burn time 100 seconds (AH-1/UH-1/F-18/AV-8)
- M-278: covert rocket (IR); burn time 180 seconds (AH-1/UH-1/F-18/AV-8)"

List the 2 types of TRAP

Immediate / deliberate

Range of a SA -7 in NM

3nm/4200m per TPG

max effective range of rpg-7

300-500m

Rate of fire for the M-240D and GAU-16 and size of cans associated

M-240: 650-950 rpm 200 rnd can
GAU-16: 750-850 rpm 100 rnd can

List the 3 types of lasers for the GAU-16

1. IZLID 200P
2. IZLID 1000P
3. AN/PEQ-3
***All hand-held"

List the 5 types of lasers for the M-240D

"-AIM-1/MLR
-GCP-2A
-AN/PEQ-3
-IZLID 200P
-IZLID 1000P"

List the 5 axioms of survival

1. lookout doctrine and threat detection
2. threat identification
3. give the attack warning
4. avoid detection
5. air combat maneuvering"

State the difference between pro-word and codeword (brevity codes)

Pro-word: are a single word or phrase used to rapidly convey standardized information. Used to pass procedural info during mission execution and are not meant to keep info from the enemy (eg - buster, bingo)
Codeword: used to keep the meaning of the word classified from the enemy (eg - an execution check list item)"

What is the X and Y axis in the Em diagram

X axis: KCAS
Y axis: Turn Rate"

What is the X and Y axis in the Ps diagram

X axis: press alt
Y axis: kcas

Can you frequency hop while covered?

Yes

What are the 2 types of combat formations?

1. combat cruise
2. combat spread"

List 4 affects of High Altitude

1. Less power available
2. more power required
3. slower Airspeed because of blade stall
4. decreased maneuverability "

List the naming conventions for LZs, Landing Sites, and Landing Points

LZs: Birds
Landing Sites: Colors
Landing Points: Numbers"

Name 13 LZ considerations

1. soil composition
2. hazards
3. ingress
4. egress
5. itg (near/far)
6. locations of zone
7. size of zone
8. winds
9. slap
10. waveoff
11. freq
12. friendly pos
13. enemy pos"

Maximum Range / Maximum Effective range / TOF / 1/2 TOF for GAU-16

Max Range: 6500m
Max Effective Range: 1850m
TOF: 679m
1/2 TOF: 373m"

Maximum Range / Maximum Effective range for M240D

Max Range: 3725m
Max Effective Range: 1200m"

Missile alert on the APR-39 and what causes it. what does dicriminator do?

Sensitivity is controlled by the discriminator switch and the C and D portions illuminate the MA light.
Discriminator on
-enabling the circuit will significantly reduce the sensitivity and reception/display capability of the system. signal level must meet a min threshold, pw must be less then a max pw, prf must be greater then min pps. must have a min pulse train. "

what pub would you check to move troops with explosive cargo

MCO 4030.19I

Can a TAC change the medical assessment status in a CASEVAC

-yes he can increase it ie( priority to urgent)
but he can not decrease it

What is the micron range of the flir?

aaq 16b- 8-12 micron
aaq-29 - 3-5 micron "

MDF for your aircraft?

4109

What are the three ASE systems

1. AN/ALE-47(V)
2. AN/AAR-47B(V)2
3. AN/APR-39A(V)2

What is the purpose of the AN/ALE-47(V)

Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) is an integrated, reprogrammable, threat-adaptive, computer controlled aircraft defense system designed to provide protection against hostile radar and infrared threats through the use of expendable decoys.

What is the purpose of the AN/AAR-47B(V)2

Missile Warning Set (MWS) is designed to passively detect attacking IR missiles and battlefield lasers (Range Finder, Target Designator, and Beam Rider missiles), while minimizing false alarms.

What is the purpose of the AN/APR-39A(V)2

Radar signal detecting set (RSDS) is a threat detection and warning system designed to monitor, detect, classify, locate, and track external radio frequency (RF) emitter platforms in the aircraft's operating environment."

What is the maximum airspeed and angle of bank for dual point externals?

200 KCAS and 30 deg AOB

What are the four mandatory calls made in the objective area?

"1. "LZ WINTER OR DEVIL" / From EFL, To AMC/AFL
2. "(CALLSIGN) IP INBOUND" / From AFL, To EFL
3. "(CALLSIGN) CONTINUE / HOLD; ESTABLISHED BP ____" (plus amplifying remarks by exception) / From EFL, To AFL
4. "(CALLSIGN) LIFTING / WAVEOFF" / From AFL, To EFL

What frequency are mandatory calls made on

Calls made on TAD unless no terminal area controller or planned otherwise

What are the Dive Recovery Rules?

"• APLN mode.
• Airspeed 200 to 275 KCAS.
• DA at or below 3,000 feet.
• Gross weights at or below 48,000 pounds.
• CG range 395 to 403 inches.

•5° / 300' AGL
•10° / 450' AGL
•15° / 600' AGL
•20° / 800' AGL"

what are the three types of deconfliction in the objective area?

1. time
2. altitude
3. space (lateral distance)"

What are the three types of short takeoffs?

1. 60 deg att capture
2. 60 deg level attitude
3. 75 deg level attitude"

What are the three weapons control conditions

1. Weapons hold
2. Weapons Tight
3. Weapons Free

Weapons Hold

Fire only in self-defense. This is the most restrictive weapons control condition. Clearance to fire shall be in accordance with ROE.

Weapons Tight

Fire only at targets positively identified as hostile.

Weapons Free

Aerial gunners may engage any threat not positively identified as friendly. This is the least restrictive weapons control condition. Clearance to fire will be granted at a predetermined phase of flight based on available intelligence on the position of friendly troops."

What are the four positions for AAR?

1. observation position
2. astern
3. contact
4. reform area"

What are the five major criteria for evaluating a landing zone?

H-S-W-P-D
1. Height of obstacles which determine approach angle.
2. Size and topography of the landing zone.
3. Wind direction and possible loss of wind effect.
4. Power available vs power required.
5. Departure route."

List 21 items included on an objective area diagram.

1.Sun/moon azimuth and elevation during the TOS.
2. Forecast winds.
3. North seeking arrow.
4. Friendly positions and SoM.
5. Enemy positions.
6. Preplanned targets, TRP or GEOREFs.
7. FW final attack headings/cones.
8. Gun target line (GTL) to preplanned targets or indirect fires PDF.
9. Objective area communication nets (MC, TAD, COF, LZ control, GCE TAC) and key player call signs.
10. FSCMs.
11. BPs.
12. LZ, IP, HAs.
13. Assault sectors of fire.
14. Attack aircraft routes with heading and timing to BPs at the planned ingress ground speed.
15. Assault aircraft routes with heading and timing from IP to LZs at the planned ingress ground speed.
16. Waveoff direction.
17. Threat/sensor rings.
18. Conversion points.
19. ACA.
20. Mission coordination areas (MCA).
21. Datum/grid designator."

What type of comms should be used in a high threat environment?

Active and secure

What power margin is recommended for externals?

10%

AN-ALE 47 training mode: To answer YES, on the CDU move the PRGM Switch from Position ___ to Position ___ and then back to Position ___ or on the DCDU rotate the MANUAL switch from ___ to ___ then back to ___.

1 / 2 / 1

Low Threat

operations to proceed without prohibitive interference. Referred to as permissive. A low-threat environment may include the following: Small arms and medium antiaircraft weapons. Limited optical acquisition air defense artillery (ADA) with no integrated fire control systems.

Medium Threat

specific aircrafts performance and weapon systems capability allows acceptable exposure time to enemy air defenses. This air threat environment restricts the flexibility of tactics in the immediate target/objective area (OA). A medium-threat environment may include the following: Limited radar or EO acquisition capability not supported by fully integrated fire control systems. A fully integrated fire control system that is degraded because of terrain, weather, or other factors.

High Threat

the enemy has an air defense structure that includes integrated fire control systems and electronic warfare capabilities that would seriously diminish the ability of friendly forces to provide necessary air support. May include: effective C2 network, mobile and/or tactical and strategic SAMs, EW radar, EW, Integrated ADA fire control systems, intercept aircraft.

Tac Turn Procedure

Tac Turns are maneuvers to change the direction of the element from 45 to 120 degrees (i.e., 90 degrees is assumed)

Corner Speed

Corner speed is the speed at which maximum instantaneous turn rate is achieved.

Intraflight

communications over discreet frequencies (i.e., usually squadron tactical or assault support common) between aircraft of the same flight.

Interflight

communications between multiple flights of aircraft (i.e., between the assault flight and the escort flight).

X insert/extract:

inserting the air assault force to an LZ that is less than or equal to 300 meters from the threat at the objective.

Y insert/extract

inserting the air assault force to an LZ that is greater than 300 meters but less than or equal to 1,000 meters from the threat at the objective.

Offset insert/extract

inserting the air assault force to an LZ that is greater than 1,000 meters from the threat at the objective.

Sparrowhawk:

QRF: reinforced platoon-size GCE element

Bald Eagle

QRF: a reinforced company-size GCE element

Designation

A designation is a status assigned to an individual based on leadership ability. Designations are command specific and remain in effect until removed for cause or the individual is transferred to another command.

Qualification (QUAL)

Qualifications are assigned to personnel based on demonstration of proficiency in a specific skill. All qualifications are assigned one or more T&R qualification events. When all qualification requirements and events are completed, the individual may be granted the respective qualification by the commanding officer or in the case of aviation ground communities, as directed in their respective T&R Manual. Proficiency status of these qualification events are used to determine qualification status; an individual qualification status may be either "Qualified" or "Not Qualified." Specific re-qualification criteria shall be delineated in individual T&R manuals.

Levels of Care

1: Basic emergency lifesaving. No surgical capability. Corpsman, BAS.
2: First surgical care, basic lab work, x-ray, and pharmacy. Surgical companies, Shock trauma platoon.
3: Definitive/Specialty surgery. Restorative health, longer term care. Naval expeditionary med facilities, Field hospitals, USNS Comfort/Mercy.
4: Same as 3, more theraputic cre during delivery. Transition between 3 and 5. Spain and Germany Military medical centers.
5: Definitive convalescent restorative and rehab care. VA hospitals, CONUS hospitals. "

Definition of Raid

Usually a limited-scale operation involving swift penetration of hostile territory to secure information, confuse the enemy, or to destroy installations and personnel, followed by a planned withdrawal. Raids may be conducted as separate operations or in support of other operations.

Bullseye

an effective way to communicate aircraft position in relation to a common reference point. Bullseye reference points may come from theater SPINS, premission planning, or on-call during execution. Bullseye calls are made in the format of "(callsign), BULLSEYE (ref point), (bearing from), (DME), (altitude)."

Magellan standards

1. Lateral deviations: 1:50k routes +/- 500m 1:250k routes +/- 1nm
2. Heading deviations: 15*
3. Timing deviations: +/- 1 min
4. Other deviations: over flight of the checkpoint without appropriate turn or maneuver"

What are the 3 Different MATS Configurations and number of seats available with each

1. (3) Tanks: 2350/2200/1750 (0 seats)
2. (2) Tanks 2350/1900 (6 seats)
3. (1) Tank 1900 (14 seats)

Minimum distance between MV-22s when establishing a FARP/RGR site

100' between fueling points (150 in NATOPS)
300' between arm/de-arm points

Anti-Jam

Defensive measure used to prevent the enemy from gaining unauthorized interception of our communications or jamming our communications. Provides transmission security (TRANSEC) through frequency hopping

Types of frequencies used for HAVEQUICK

UHF/AM/FM

Types of frequencies used for SINCGARS

VHF/FM

GAU-16 Caliber

.50

GAU-16 Chamber Pressure

50,000 psi

GAU-16 Tracer Burnout

1,100m

M-240 Caliber

7.62mm

M-240 Muzzle Velocity

2750 fps

M-240 Tracer Burnout

900m

Rule for weapon jams

5-10-5
-Wait min 5 sec to clear weapon
-You have max of 10 sec to clear weapon
-If you have not cleared weapon you must wait min 5 minutes to clear

Laser approved for MV-22B use

IZLID 200P

What does Maximum Sustained Turn Rate (MSTR) Diagram tell you

where maneuver can b maintained without a loss in airspeed or altitude (Ps=0)

Specific Excess Power

The power you have while performing a maneuver

0 Ps

Maintain Current E state

+Ps

Power to climb or accelerate

-Ps

Lack or of ability to maintain current state. Loss of speed or altitude

E/M Diagrams

Depict E State (climb rate, acceleration rate, airspeed) and maneuverability (turn rate, turn radius, AOB) at specific environmental conditions

Corner Speed

The speed at which the maximum instantaneous turn rate is achieved

Energy Bleed Region of the E-M diagram

Maneuvering where the pilot will have to trade airspeed and/or altitude in order to achieve an angle of bank.

Sustained Turn Performance Chart

The Ps=0 line describes the maximum sustained performance of the aircraft in the specified configuration.

Different Types of AD

Personnel and Cargo

Essential Information to consider when planning an AD mission

1. Number/type/location of load
2. Aircraft load position
3. Number/type of parachute
4. DZ location/markings
5. Drop altitude
6. Threat
7. Wx/SLAP
8. Route
9. SEAD/Escort

Requirements for a DZ

1. Location
2. Terrain Features
3. Size
4. DZ Survey
5. Obstacles
6. Water
7. DZ Markings

Types of radar detected by the APR-39

1. Pulsed
2. Pulsed Doppler
3. Continuous Wave
4. Low Probability Intercept

What Type of Map is used in the objective area

1:50,000 Tactical Map

TAC turns maneuver to change the direction of flight how many degrees? What is assumed

45 to 120 degrees
90 degrees is assumed

Purpose of an EOTDA

Provides performance prediction of a weapon or sensor system

Information required to produce an EOTDA

1. Weather properties
2. Sortie Properties (Operational Data)
3. Target and Location Properties (Intelligence Data)

TAWS

Target Acquisition Weapons Software

2 modes of EOTDAs produced by

1. Planning
2. Execution

2 ways EOTDA can be used during mission planning

1. Mission execution tactics
2. Planning and weapons upload decisions

Define a flight

- Two or more maneuver elements consisting of 5 or more aircraft but normally no more than 12.
- Unified by a common mission
- Generally formed to direct assault support assets in mass to an objective area

Define a flight leader

Is an experienced aviator fully qualified to employ five or more aircraft

Flight Leader Expectations

Plan - FL is in charge of all assigned assets, be the leader in the planning
Brief - Cover what everyone needs to know and do not go into TMS details as the AFL
Execution - Be in charge, success or failure is your responsibility

The critical behavioral skills that form the basis of CRM training are:

Decision making
Assertiveness
Mission Analysis
Communication
Leadership
Adaptability/Flexibility
Situational Awareness

ORM employs a five-step process

(1) Identify hazards.
(2) Assess hazards.
(3) Make risk decisions.
(4) Implement controls.
(5) Supervise.

The ORM process is utilized on three levels based upon time and
assets available.

(1) Time-critical: A quick mental review of the five-step process
when time does not allow for any more (i.e., in-flight mission/situation
changes).
(2) Deliberate: Experience and brain storming are used to identify
hazards and is best done in groups (i.e., aircraft moves, fly on/off).
(3) In-depth: More substantial tools are used to thoroughly study
the hazards and their associated risk in complex operations (i.e., weapons
detachment).

The ORM process is guided by the four principles:

(1) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
(2) Accept no unnecessary risk.
(3) Anticipate and manage risk by planning.
(4) Make risk decisions at the right level.

FCFs should be conducted during

daylight hours within the local flying area in VMC.

DD-175-1 briefs are only valid for ____ hours past briefing/FWB delivery time or ETD plus
________

3.0
one-half hour.

Flight plans shall be filed based on all the following:

a. The actual weather at the point of departure at the time of clearance.
b. The existing and forecast weather for the entire route of flight.
c. Destination and alternate forecasts for a period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.

If an alternate airfield is required, it must
have a published approach compatible with
installed operable aircraft navigation
equipment that can be flown without the use of
two-way radio communication whenever either one
of the following conditions is met:

a. The destination lacks the above described approach.
b. The forecasted weather at the alternate is below 3,000-foot ceiling and 3-statute-mile visibility during the period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.

Pilots shall not file into or through areas for which the SPC has issued a WW unless one of the following
exceptions apply:

a. Storm development has not progressed as forecast
(1) VFR filing is permitted if existing and forecast weather for the planned route permits such flights.
(2) IFR flight may be permitted if aircraft radar is installed and operative, thus permitting detection and avoidance of isolated thunderstorms.
(3) IFR flight is permissible in controlled airspace if VMC can be maintained, thus enabling aircraft to detect and avoid isolated thunderstorms.
b. Performance characteristics of the aircraft permit an en route flight altitude above existing or developing severe storms.

If alternate is not required,

fuel to fly from takeoff to destination airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.

If alternate is required,

fuel to fly from takeoff to the approach fix serving destination and thence to an alternate airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.

In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after final landing at destination or alternate airfield, if one is required, be less than that needed for ________ of flight, computed as follows:

20 minutes
Turbine-powered fixed-wing/tiltrotor aircraft. Compute fuel consumption based on maximum endurance operation at 10,000 feet.

AR
Aircraft shall carry sufficient usable fuel to fly from

takeoff point to air refueling control point(s) (ARCP), thence to a suitable recovery field in the event of an unsuccessful refueling attempt.

AR
In no case shall the fuel reserve at

rendezvous point be less than 10 percent.

Standard position lights shall be displayed during the period

30 minutes before official sunset until 30 minutes after official sunrise or at any time when the prevailing visibility as seen from the cockpit is less than 3
statute miles. During these conditions, they shall be displayed:
a. Immediately before engine start and anytime the engine(s) is running.
b. When the aircraft is being towed unless the aircraft is otherwise illuminated.
c. When an aircraft is parked and likely to cause a hazard unless the aircraft is otherwise illuminated or marked with obstruction lights.

Anti-collision lights shall be used

immediately before engine start and at all times when the aircraft engine(s) is in operation, except when the use of such lights adversely affects ground operations

Aircraft Speed

To reduce midair collision hazards associated with high aircraft speeds at low altitudes, reference (d), subpart 91.117, imposes a maximum airspeed
limitation of 250 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) on all aircraft operating below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) in airspace where reference (d), applies and a maximum of 200 KIAS for aircraft operating: (1) at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace area, or (2) in the airspace underlying a class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a class B airspace area.

In accordance with FAA authorization, flight operations below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed in excess of 250 knots are authorized under the
following conditions:

a. Within restricted areas.
b. Within military operations areas.
c. When operating on DoD/FAA mutually developed and published routes.
d. When operating on DoD-developed and DoD-published VR routes
e. When operating within large-scale exercises or on short-term special missions approved by commanders
f. If the airspeed required or recommended in the aircraft NATOPS manual
to maintain safe maneuverability is greater than the maximum speed described in reference (d),

MTRs that include one or more segments above _____feet above ground level (AGL) are identified by a _____-digit identifier;

1,500
three

MTRs with no segment above _____feet AGL are identified by _____digits.

1,500
four

Two-plane formation for subsequent flight into instrument conditions is authorized provided

the weather (ceiling and visibility) is at or above the published circling minimums for the runway in use. In the event a circling approach is not authorized, ceiling and visibility must be at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles.

Instrument approaches with or without intent to land in IMC by formations of more than two aircraft :

are not authorized. Penetration of IMC to obtain VMC by formations of more than two aircraft is authorized.

Formation flights shall not commence an instrument approach when the reported weather is less

than circling minimums for the particular instrument approach in use. In the event a circling approach is not authorized, the ceiling and visibility must be at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles.

special VFR weather minimums,

are permitted except at those airports where special VFR is not authorized in fixed-wing aircraft. For special VFR within controlled airspace, the pilot must obtain authorization from air traffic control; ceiling must be a minimum of 500 feet; visibility must be a minimum of 1
statute mile; aircraft must remain clear of clouds, and (except for CNATRA helicopter operations) the pilot and aircraft must be certified for instrument flight.

CLASS B

3 STATUTE MILES
CLEAR OF CLOUDS

CLASS C

3 STATUTE MILES
500 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL

CLASS D

3 STATUTE MILES
500 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL

CLASS E
LESS THAN 10,000 FEET MSL

3 STATUTE MILES
500 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL

CLASS E
AT OR ABOVE 10,000
MSL

5 STATUTE MILES
1,000 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
1 STATUTE MILE HORIZONTAL

CLASS G
1,200 FEET OR LESS ABOVE
THE SURFACE (REGARDLESS OF MSL ALTITUDE)
DAY, EXCEPT AS
PROVIDED IN .91.155(b)

1 STATUTE MILES
CLEAR OF CLOUDS

CLASS G
1,200 FEET OR LESS ABOVE
THE SURFACE (REGARDLESS OF MSL ALTITUDE)
NIGHT, EXCEPT AS
PROVIDED IN .91.155(b)

3 STATUTE MILES
500 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL

CLASS G
MORE THAN 1,200 FEET ABOVE THE SURFACE BUT LESS THAN 10,000 FEET MSL
DAY

1 STATUTE MILES
500 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL

CLASS G
MORE THAN 1,200 FEET ABOVE THE SURFACE BUT LESS THAN 10,000 FEET MSL
NIGHT

3 STATUTE MILES
500 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL

CLASS G
MORE THAN 1,200 FEET ABOVE THE SURFACE AND AT
OR ABOVE 10,000 FEET MSL

5 STATUTE MILES
1,000 FEET BELOW
1,000 FEET ABOVE
1 STATUTE MILE HORIZONTAL

The aircraft shall be equipped with the following instruments in proper operating condition:

(1) Airspeed indicator.
(2) Altimeter.
(3) Turn-and-slip indicator.
(4) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweepsecond
pointer or digital readout.
(5) Attitude indicator.
(6) Magnetic compass with current calibration card.
(7) Heading indicator or gyrostabilized magnetic compass.
(8) Vertical speed indicator.
c. Aircraft shall be equipped with deicing or icing control equipment for sustained or continuous flight in known or forecast icing conditions.
d. Navigation lights must operate satisfactorily

TAKEOFF MINS

Standard instrument rating — Published minimums for the available NPA, but not less than 300-foot ceiling and 1-statute mile visibility. When a precision approach compatible with installed and operable aircraft equipment is available, with published minimums less than 300/1, takeoff is authorized provided the weather is at least equal to the precision approach minimums for the landing runway in use, but in no case when the weather is less than 200-foot ceiling and 1/2-statute-mile visibility/2,400-foot runway visual range (RVR).

Approach Criteria for Multipiloted Aircraft

When reported weather is at or below published landing minimums for the approach to be conducted, an approach shall not be commenced in multipiloted
aircraft unless the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach.

Noise Sensitive and Wilderness Areas

a. These areas shall be avoided when at altitudes of less than 3,000 feet AGL

Whenever practicable, fuel shall not be jettisoned (dumped) below an altitude of _____ above the terrain.

6,000 feet

Minimum fuel

is an advisory term indicating that in the judgment of the pilot the fuel state is such that no undue delay can be accepted en route to the
destination.

Pilots declaring minimum fuel

should not expect special handling from FAA controllers.

A wheels down report shall be

given as the aircraft turns onto the base leg or after lowering the landing gear on straight-in approach.

Cellular telephones

shall not be operated in naval aircraft while airborne.

Who may engage rotors/engines of a tiltrotor AC

Pilots only

In the event of power failure or whenever an engine is stopped as a precaution on an aircraft that has two engines, the PIC shall

land at the nearest suitable airport, in terms of time, provided weather conditions, terrain, and facilities available indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished.

Tobacco Products in Aircraft

a. The use of tobacco products in naval aircraft is prohibited.
b. Lighter Prohibition. Lighters with plastic liquid reservoirs and/or containers for refilling any lighter are prohibited in naval aircraft. Lighters with butane, propane, or methyl alcohol as a fuel are also
prohibited.

Final determination with regard to actual
wearing of anti-exposure suits shall

be made by the commanding officer or officer in charge of the aviation unit concerned.

When oxygen is not available to other occupants, flight between

10,000 and 13,000 feet shall not exceed 3 hours duration, and flight above 13,000 feet is prohibited.

In aircraft where oxygen systems are not available (such
as helicopters),

it must be determined that it is mission essential for flight altitude to exceed 10,000 feet. Time above 10,000 feet shall not exceed 1 hour and altitude shall not exceed 12,000 feet.

Within the 6 months preceding the date of the instrument evaluation flight obtain:

(1) Six hours as pilot under actual or simulated instrument conditions.
(2) Twelve final approaches under actual or simulated instrument conditions, six of which shall be precision approaches and six of which shall be nonprecision.

Within the 12 months preceding the date of the instrument evaluation flight obtain:

(1) Twelve hours as pilot under actual or simulated instrument conditions.
(2) A total of 18 final approaches under actual or simulated instrument conditions, 12 of which shall be precision and six of which shall be nonprecision.

Where are instrument ratings valid? ie different models of AC

Instrument ratings shall be valid in all aircraft in which the naval aviator/NFO is NATOPS qualified regardless of the model in which the check was flown.

Tiltrotor overwater flights at night are authorized. The
following restrictions apply when carrying passengers:

(1) Ship launches and recoveries shall be made during daylight hours.
(2) Ship launches shall be conducted not less than 60 minutes prior to sunset. This time constraint may be waived to 30 minutes by the Battle Group Commander/Amphibious Squadron commander/Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF) Commander.
(3) Night overwater tilt-rotor passenger flights ship to ship or ship to shore are prohibited except in cases of operational necessity and in accordance with paragraphs 1 and 2 above. This does not preclude troop movement in support of amphibious exercises (operations) or special operations missions.

_______, ________, ______ commander, if embarked on a mission involving aircraft of their command, retains full authority and responsibility regarding command, including the mission in which participating.

Wing, group, or squadron

A cross-country flight is

any flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

Aircraft Commander Requirement

a. Operational/tactical missions.
b. Administrative missions in helicopters/tiltrotors.
c. Training flights, except those that are within the capabilities of pilots of lower classification and which, in the opinion of the commanding officer, are best suited to teach such pilots self-reliance and command
responsibility.
d. Flights in which the transport of passengers is involved

AUTHORIZED AIRFIELDS

Naval aircraft are authorized to operate at and land at all U.S. military and joint civil-military airfields.

PPRs need not be obtained for

planned alternate fields or emergency divert airfields.

Naval aircraft are permitted to operate at civilian airfields listed in the DoD Enroute Supplement when:

1) such operations contribute to mission accomplishment
2) add value to training,
3) are otherwise in the interests of the government and taxpayer.

Tiltrotor AC are authorized to land at
other than airfield locations (such as fields, highways, and parks), provided:

a. A military requirement exists for such landing.
b. Adequate safeguards are taken to permit safe landing and takeoff operations without hazard to people or property.
c. There are no legal objections to landing at such nonairfield sites.
Commanding officers are authorized to waive the
provisions in subparagraphs a through c above
when dispatched helicopters, tiltrotor, or
V/STOL/STOL aircraft is engaged in SAR
operations.

All naval aircraft are prohibited from taking off or landing at closed airfields except

in the case of an emergency.

In all emergencies, the overriding considerations must be to:

1) Maintain aircraft control, 2) Analyze the situation, and 3) Take proper action.

"Execute" is used when:

it refers to another procedure in this chapter.

"Conduct"

refers to checklists used for normal operations.

"Land immediately"

is defined as executing a landing WITHOUT DELAY. Continued operation of the aircraft is
extremely hazardous. If over water, conduct a controlled ditching without delay. The primary consideration is to assure the survival of occupants.

"Land as soon as possible"

is defined as executing a landing at the nearest available site which a safe landing can be made.

"Land as soon as practical"

means extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight is at the discretion of the pilot‐in‐command.

Above 200 KCAS, certain ____ AND ____ faults may inhibit PFCS RESET. If a PFCS RESET cannot be reset, reduce airspeed below 200 KCAS. PFCS RESET above 200 KCAS will not produce undesirable transients.

swashplate and elevator actuator

Do not attempt a PFCS reset while _______ is changing.

rotor RPM

Rapid PFCS resets may disrupt FCS fault annunciations. Maintain at least ____ seconds between successive PFCS resets.

5

The ____ will automatically shutdown for a fire in the midwing area.

APU

There will be a grayish white, acrid smelling smoke
(the extinguishing agent) that enters the cabin and cockpit when the ________ discharge.

gas generators

Worst case, Nr droop occurs at ____ nacelle.

60°

Unacceptable descent rates will quickly develop if autorotation is entered at slow speeds ______KTS

(30-40 kts).

_____, _____, ______ are all critical for entering autorotation.

TCL, nacelle position, and airspeed

During a dual engine failure, the flight control system automatically reconfigures __________ off and enables _______

conversion corridor protection
TCL overtravel.

Aircraft operating in a single engine condition
can also fly the ELP to mitigate the risk of the
remaining engine failing. FLAPS are set to
____ and _____

40°
TCL full aft.

DUAL ENG FAILURE
Expect ____ TO ____ fpm increase in rate
of descent with landing gear extended.

200 to 600

_______ can be used on short final to
slightly extend the flare.

Flaps FULL

During a single engine failure, the _____ will attempt an automatic relight.

FADEC

If the reliability of the remaining engine is in doubt, conversion above ____ nacelles (_______KCAS) is not
advisable until the field is made. If done without delay, transition to APLN from ____ nacelle or lower following a
second engine failure is possible without significant Nr decay.

30°
~140 KCAS
30°

By OPNAV 3710, a dual engine aircraft with a single engine failure shall not proceed past a __________.
If possible, execute a normal _____.

suitable airport
ROL

SINGLE ENG
During shipboard operations without a suitable divert, a ___________________________ with wind down the bow shall be executed.

no‐hover or slow ROL to the back of the ship

ELEV
Immediately rolling the aircraft toward a high AOB
accomplishes two critical items.
1.
2.

The aircraft
will quickly slow down allowing the nacelles to
be converted as well as making the rudder
and flaperons effective in keeping the nose
near the horizon.

The ICDS Failure warning will post
in the event of a _________

triple Nr sensor failure on one side.

RPM LOW
The FCCs detect that Nr has dropped below
____ in APLN or less than ____ in VTOL/
CONV. Large rapid TCL inputs may momentarily
post RPM Low. Initiating conversion
from airplane before Nr is ____, may momentarily
post RPM LOW.

80.9%
94.2%
94.2%

AVIONIC BAY HOT

Bay temp exceeds 130 °F.

_______________are inoperative with a failed DSIU.

All chip detectors (engines and gearboxes) and the ELS

Loss of ELS function with a subsequent
________________ dictates an immediate landing.

PRGB PRESS LOST

ENG OIL LEVEL LOW

ENG oil level is at 1.4 quarts remaining.

With dual ENVIR BUS FAIL, and MATs empty or not installed: Available fuel in feed tanks will supply engines for no more than _________ leading to engine fuel starvation and subsequent dual engine flameout.

15 minutes

With a dual FADEC failure the engine will
operate in a ______ mode and _______ will default ON.

"failed fixed"
engine anti-ice

Engine anti-ice ON will reduce engine power available by _____

≈ 7%.

For an engine "failed fixed" at a high-power setting, consider _________.

securing the malfunctioning engine. Once the
engine is secured, it cannot be restarted.

FEED TANK LOW is set by the Low Level Optical Sensor at _____ (± 20 lbs) or when the gauged quantity
reads ______lbs.

550 lbs
520

FEED TANK OVERFILL

L/R feed tank is overfilled at 675 lb.

HYD X HOT

HYD X fluid temperature is > 121 C.

If extended flight is required, the MWGB is designed to run without oil, at minimum loads, for up to ________

30 minutes.

NAC BLOWER FAIL
CONV/VTOL operations not to exceed
___ minutes starting from the time that the
nacelles first come off the down stop.

3

Failure of the SDC will cause a loss of
_________, _________, and __________.
There is no means to mechanically disengage
the SDC.

OBIGGS/OBOGS, ECS, wing deice, and
avionics particle separator scavenge air.

Feathering is the highest during _____ operations.
APLN at ________________________ is recommended.

CONV
low AOA or VTOL at low airspeed (<40 KCAS)

Flapping is the highest during operations
between ____ and ____ nacelle. Nacelle less
than ____ will clear this advisory. Flapping is
most critical during operations at approximately
____ nacelle, high GW, forward CG, and
high DA.

35° and 75°
35°
60°

PMG 1 is primary power source for _____,
with backup power from ______ and a dedicated
________. PMG 2 is primary power source for _____ with backup power from _____ and the _________. PMG 1 is part of generator 3, PMG 2 is part of generator 4, but PMG is electrically independent of generator.

FCC1
dc bus 1
1.5 A‐h battery
FCC2
dc bus 1
essential/battery bus

The FADEC will sense a _____ or _____ start and discontinue the start sequence. If fuel is exiting ________________.

hot or hung
the IR suppressor, pilot intervention is required.

Do not retract landing gear in the event of brake overheating/fire or failure due to ______.

close proximity to fuel lines.

Damage to starter, starter shaft, and/or engine accessory drive gearbox may occur if a start attempt is made with Ng _____.

> 29%.

In icing conditions EAPS will be on. Due to the high demand on HYD 3 setting Nr ______ will assist the start.

to 100%

Advancing ECL to FLY at 84% Nr with TCL above ______ may cause proprotor overtorque.

3 inches

Torque splits greater than ______ may result in less than 100% Qm.

10%

There are no cockpit indications associated with a MLG bay fire and activation of the MLG bay FSS.

Potential indications or effects of MLG bay fire may be noticed in-flight or during landing, which may or may not include:

LAND GEAR ABORT and/or LAND GEAR FAULT, inability to extend landing gear, failed tires or tire failure upon touchdown, loss of wheel brake function on affected side, UTIL SYSTEMS INOP, LDG GEAR/UTIL INOP and/or HYD 3 FAIL.

The cockpit side window vents may assist in clearing smoke and fumes, but low pressure makes
the vents difficult to open in APLN above ______.

170 KCAS

Plan approach and landing at least ___ KCAS above the airspeed where controllability issues were noted.

10

DITCHING
For low to moderate sea states, adjust approach to land _______ to swells and into wind, timing touchdown to occur at swell peak.

perpendicular

DITCHING
For high sea states, land _____ to swells. Roll and yaw angles should be minimized to avoid nacelle/wing damage. Touch down speed and sink rate should not exceed ____ kts and ___ fpm.

parallel
30
360

Ditching survivability is reduced at touchdown speeds greater than ___ KCAS.

30

Consider allowing passengers and crewchief to exit from a ______ prior to landing, if possible.

low hover

Actuation of a window with any portion of the shaped explosive charge submerged will create a shock wave that may result in injury or death.

Expect proprotors to strike the ground on touchdowns at nacelle angles less than ____

35°.

Most favorable condition for minimizing fuel vapor concentration in the cabin may be achieved by gradually applying full left rudder at ____ KCAS
level fight while maintaining ground track with ____ Nr.

180
100%

PWR STEER is NOT available below ___ nacelle

60

Tail strike will occur above ___ pitch attitude on landing. A minimum flare on landing holding a positive pitch angle less than ___ should avoid a tail strike.

13
10°

Assault support

Assault transport
air delivery
air to air refueling
BI
TRAP
AIR EVACUATION
air logistical support

Assault transport

Raid
air assault
R&S team insert
QRF
in-extremis hostage rescue

Sparrowhawk

Reinforced Platoon-size GCE QRF

Bald eagle

Reinforced Company -size GCE QRF

Routine mission precedence

administrative or tactical transport of personnel, materiel, or equipment when time is not a critical factor and delay would not endanger lives or loss of materiel.
-A routine CASEVAC would be assigned for the tiltrotor evacuation of deceased personnel, a patient with a minor illness, or a patient requiring routine transfer from one medical facility to another for further treatment

Priority mission precedence

tactical movement of personnel, materiel, or equipment where excessive delay would jeopardize the success of the mission.
- includes logistic operations where delay would result in excessive materiel loss either through spoilage or seizure by the enemy.
- A priority CASEVAC would be assigned for the tiltrotor evacuation of seriously wounded, injured, or ill personnel who require hospitalization but whose immediate evacuation is not a matter of life or death.

Urgent mission precedence

Urgent precedence is applicable only to the CASEVAC of critically wounded, injured, or ill personnel whose immediate evacuation is a matter of life or death.

Emergency mission precedence

Emergency precedence is assigned for missions involving the safety of US or other friendly lives and missions requiring immediate transport of vital supplies or equipment.

Mandatory mission precedence

Mandatory precedence is assigned for missions involving possible loss of human life or national prestige to the extent that normally unacceptable risks are taken in their accomplishment.

Low threat environment

A low threat environment allows operations to proceed without prohibitive interference.
-also referred to as permissive.
-at a minimum, always assume a low threat environment, not a no threat environment.
A low threat environment may include the following:
-Small arms and medium antiaircraft weapons.
-Limited optical acquisition air defense artillery (ADA) with no integrated fire control systems.

Medium threat environment

A medium threat environment is one in which the specific aircraft's performance and weapon systems capability allows acceptable exposure time to enemy air defenses.
-restricts the flexibility of tactics in the immediate target/objective area (OA).
-enemy may have limited radar and/or electro-optical (EO) acquisition capability at medium range, but a fully integrated fire control system does not support the air defense system.
-normally allow medium altitude missions/attack deliveries with low probability of engagement by enemy air defenses.
A medium threat environment may include the following:
• Limited radar or EO acquisition capability not supported by fully integrated fire control systems.
• A fully integrated fire control system that is degraded because of terrain, weather, or other factors.

VDD

160-180; 170 kcas

Max 10k PA

HSD speeds

185-210; 200 kcas

Fade

Threat system encroached within established parameters based on threat system capabilities

Bugout

initiate the immediate response to a threat within weapons system parameters. Refueling will normally cease.

EMCON 1

Any and all emitters are authorized

EMCON 2

Routine EMCON: A. Emission Option 2 is the desired standard for day to day TAAR.

General:
B. Radio silent formation except for RV and TAAR which is conducted with limited radio exchange.
C. All other emitters are authorized.
D. Essential radio transmissions for flight safety may be made.
E. At initial contact, receivers and tankers will exchange call signs, FL/altitude/height, Mode 3 and any changes in tanker timing that would affect RV (in minutes early or late).
F. Altimeter setting and hot armament check will also be coordinated, if applicable.
G. If not at the planned RV FL/altitude/height, an additional call is required when reaching that FL/altitude/height.

Restrictions under EMCON 2:
H. More restrictive procedures under emission Option 2 will be fully coordinated between tanker and receiver units. In an emergency/abnormal condition (KC-1) the tanker may transmit over an TAAR frequency.

EMCON 3

Radio silent operations including formation, RV and TAAR. the use of other emitters is authorized unless specifically prohibited

EMCON 4

No emitters will be used unless specifically authorized by the plan that TAAR is supporting (ATO, SPINS, rules of engagement [ROE], operations plan, safe passage procedures, or other mission directive).

MIJI

meaconing, intrusion, jamming, and interception

Amphibious assault

1 Conduct amphibious raid
2. Conduct maritime amphibious interception operations (MIO)
3. Conduct advance force operations

Expeditionary Support to Other Operations/Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations

1. Conduct noncombatant evacuation operations (NEO)
2. Conduct humanitarian assistance (HA)
3. Conduct stability operations
4. Conduct tactical recovery of aircraft and personnel
5. Conduct joint and combined operations
6. Conduct aviation operations from expeditionary shore-based sites
7. Conduct/support theater security cooperation (TSC)
8. Conduct airfield/port seizure

MEU(SOC) Special Operations

1. Conduct direct action operations (DA)
2. Conduct special reconnaissance (SR)
3. Conduct foreign internal defense (FID)

VMM Mission essential task list

Aviation operations from expeditionary sea-based sites
Aviation Ops from expeditionary shore-based sites
Rapid insertion/extraction
Battlefield illumination
Air evacuation
TRAP
Combat assault transport
ADGR
Airborne C3 platform
Air delivery

MEU Mission essential tasks

1 Amphibious assault
2 Expeditionary Support to Other Operations/Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations
3 special ops

Tiger fuel

triggers to commit to mission related actions and should be briefed by the flight lead

Hold down fuel

Bingo + 1000lbs

Amphibious raid

operation involving a swift incursion into, or temporary occupation of, an objective followed by a planned withdrawal.

Direct action operations

DA operations are short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions to seize, destroy, capture, recover, or inflict damage on designated personnel or material

Meaconing

system of receiving radio beacon signals and rebroadcasting them on the same frequency to confuse navigation. Meaconing stations cause inaccurate bearings to be obtained by aircraft or ground stations.

RVL waveoff criteria

Ground speeds at or less than 15 KGS at 50 feet.
Ground speeds at or less than 5 KGS at 20 feet.
Lateral drift at or less than 3 KGS at touchdown.
Rate of descent at or less than 400 fpm.
Climbing above profile in a hover or entering a HOGE condition.

Popeye

A pilot term used to indicate that his aircraft has entered IMC.

High threat environment

- enemy has an air defense structure that includes integrated fire control systems and electronic warfare capabilities that would seriously diminish the ability of friendly forces to provide necessary air support.
- includes low and medium threats plus a threat dispersion pattern that denies avoidance and requires penetration through an area with a high probability of detection and subsequent attrition if suitable defensive countermeasures and/or tactics are not immediately available.
A high threat environment may include, but is not limited to:
• Effective C2 network.
• Mobile and/or tactical and strategic surface-to-air missiles (SAM). • Early warning (EW) radars.
• Electronic warfare (EW).
• Integrated ADA fire control systems.
• Intercept aircraft.

TAC[A]

A tactical air coordinator (TAC[A]) is an officer who coordinates, from an aircraft, the actions of other aircraft engaged in air support of ground or sea forces. Within the MACCS, the TAC(A) is a naval aviator or naval flight officer who is the senior air coordinator in control of all aircraft operating within the assigned area. The primary mission of the TAC(A) is to act as an airborne extension of the (DASC), tactical air command center (TACC) or fire support coordination center (FSCC), and to coordinate fire deconfliction among the tactical air control parties (TACP), forward air controllers (FAC)/forward air controllers (airborne) (FAC[A]), artillery, and naval gunfire.

ASC[A]

An assault support coordinator (airborne) (ASC[A]) is an aviator who coordinates, from an aircraft, the movement of aviation assault assets during assault support operations. The ASC(A) is an experienced aviator with an extensive knowledge of the MACCS who serves as an airborne extension of the DASC. The ASC(A) assists in providing situational awareness (SA) to the assault force, relays requests to the DASC, exercises launch authority for immediate and on-call missions, coordinates with the TAC(A), and provides routing recommendations to the AMC.

Tactical planning considerations

• Frequencies—appropriate time period, active/secure requirements, crypto selection.
• Fuels—mission/Joker/Bingo fuels, fuel availability, fuel/time for contingency holding.
• Fires—EFSTs, objective area fires integration, assault sectors of fire, ACMs.
• Triggers—mission events, contingencies, event/time driven, correlated to Go/No-Go.
• Deconfliction—time, lateral distance, and altitude deconfliction, routing, chokepoints.
• Accountability—MACO plan, ASSAT/ASLT, reporting requirements.

Medium/High Altitude Airspeed

lower calibrated airspeeds. However, the reduced calibrated airspeed (CAS) translates to a greater true airspeed (TAS) that, depending on winds, equals a faster ground speed

DASC

Direct Air Support Center: The DASC is a subordinate operations component of a tactical air control system designed for control and direction of close air support and other tactical air support operations. The DASC is normally collocated with fire-support coordination elements. The DASC processes immediate direct air support requests, controls assigned aircraft (through procedural control), and coordinates aircraft employment with supporting arms.

TAOC

Tactical Air Operations Center (TAOC) is the MACCS's principal air defense agency that conducts airspace control and management. Through radar inputs from its organic sensors and data link information from other military radar units (MRU), the TAOC provides real-time surveillance of assigned airspace in addition to air direction, positive aircraft control, and navigational assistance to friendly aircraft.

Brevity code/proword

code which provides no security but which has as its sole purpose the shortening of messages rather than the concealment of their content

Code word

code word method of communication significantly reduces radio transmission time, thus denying an enemy threat the ability to home on the transmission. Code words serve to keep the meaning of the word concealed from the enemy. Unlike brevity codes/prowords, whose definitions do not change, code words should change their meaning from mission to mission to prevent compromise. Code words are often used in the mission execution checklist or theater ATO special instructions (SPINS); for example, the word "COWBOYS" could mean the GCE is requesting extract.

Deconfliction methods

Route
Altitude
Time

Objective area diagram

• Sun/moon azimuth and elevation during the TOS.
• Forecast winds.
• North seeking arrow.
• Friendly positions and SoM.
• Enemy positions.
• Preplanned targets, TRP or GEOREFs.
• FW final attack headings/cones.
• Gun target line (GTL) to preplanned targets or indirect fires PDF.
• Objective area communication nets (MC, TAD, COF, LZ control, GCE TAC) and key player call signs.
• FSCMs.
• BPs.
• LZ, IP, HAs.
• Assault sectors of fire.
• Attack aircraft routes with heading and timing to BPs at the planned ingress ground speed.
• Assault aircraft routes with heading and timing from IP to LZs at the planned ingress ground speed.
• Waveoff direction.
• Threat/sensor rings.
• Conversion points.
• ACA.
• Mission coordination areas (MCA).
• Datum/grid designator.

LZ diagram

• LZ location (i.e., MGRS grid or latitude and longitude)
• Topography
• Soil composition
• LZ size in meters
• Elevation in feet
• Orientation (N-S and E-W)
• Obstacles
• Winds
• Ingress/egress heading
• ITG
• Landing formation
• Landing sites and points
• Sun/moon position
• Fields of fire
• Waveoff direction
• TRPs and GEOREFs
• Friendly and enemy positions
• North "seeking" arrow
• Frequencies

Scan lists

Scan lists can either be plain text or cipher text, but not both. If scanning both plain and cipher text, the scan list will have to be all cipher text. This will allow plain text reception, but will not allow transmission of plain text while in scan.

Preset channel 31 and 32 are always present with no frequency displayed. The comment field for Channel 31 is labeled SCAN1, and the comment field for Channel 32 is labeled SCAN2.

TOT calculation methods

1 enter the TOT time minus 1 minute to allow time for the conversion and approach into the zone

2 set the TOT to the IP flying a constant ground speed to that point, then flying a standard slowdown profile over a known distance that can be accounted for during mission planning (e.g., IP located 5 NM from LZ; planned slowdown time is 3 minutes; TOT is set at IP 3 minutes before "L-hour")

L hour

The time at which the first helicopter of the helicopterborne assault wave touches down in the landing zone.

H hour

The specific hour on D-day at which a particular operation commences

CAS

close air support: fires in close proximity to friendlies, requires integration with GCE on ground

DAS

Deep air support: unrestricted forces beyond the FLOT, no detailed integration required

FAC(A)

Forward air controller. A naval aviator or naval flight officer specifically trained, qualified, and designated to perform the dual tasks of conducting aerial reconnaissance/surveillance and exercising control from the air, of aircraft engaged in CAS of ground forces. Normally the FAC(A) functions as an airborne extension of the TACP or ground commander. The FAC(A) can provide terminal control for CAS aircraft alone, or he can assist the ground FAC.

Tactical approach timing

Tactical approaches as described from a 3-NM CvP average between 1+45 and 2+15 minutes to wheels on deck

Conversion point selection

3 miles. adjust the CvP ±0.1 NM for every 10 KGS from 240 KGS

absolute minimum safe vertical separation between separate elements

200 ft AGL

considerations for positioning an MV-22 in a traditional mixed flight of rotary-wing assets

• Ability to close on a flight (favors placement toward the rear or outside of the flight).
• Ability to displace (favors placement toward the rear or outside of the flight).
• Precision navigation capability (favors placement near the front of the flight).
• Fields of fire for defensive weapons (favors placement toward the rear of the flight).
• Rotor-wash and brownout/whiteout effects (favors increased separation between aircraft on landing).
• CONV mode acceleration/decelerations comparable with helicopter assets.

Straight in tactical approach

used when the ingress heading is within + 45 degrees of the landing heading for a preplanned LZ. Most desirable

90-degree offset tactical approach

used when the ingress heading is 90 degrees ±45 degrees from the landing heading requiring an approximate 90-degree turn to final

180-degree offset tactical approach

used when the ingress heading is 180 degrees ±45 degrees of the landing heading, requiring an approximate 180-degree left/right turn to final.

Types of descents

Standard
Tactical
Max

Standard descent

Enroute airspeed, 2000 fpm

Tactical descent

20% Qm
240 kcas
4000 fpm

Max descent

20% Qm
260 kcas
6500 fpm

RVL scale

1 Light dust—Limited horizon/vertical visibility impact
2 Moderate dust—Ground reference maintained, significant horizon/vertical visibility degraded from some aircrew positions
3 Visibility degraded for all aircrew; ground reference temporarily lost by at least 1 pilot
4 Heavily degraded visibility for all aircrew; ground reference temporarily lost by at least one pilot and one CC/AGO
5 Ground reference lost by all aircrew until on deck

Battle position

maneuvering area that contains firing points laterally and in-depth for attack helicopters.

2x2 boxes for a section
3-5 mi from BP to LZ

MCA

Mission coordination area
Soda

ACA

Airspace coordination area
3D
Aircraft in ACA are safe from friendly surface fires
Cameras

Embassy evacuation phases

stand fast
leave via commercial means
evacuation
close post

Evacuation Control Center

-consist of search, processing, screening, and medical sections.
- A standard ECC package is designed for short-range operations that require screening of not more than 100 evacuees per hour.
-Normally, 25 to 50 personnel are required to operate the ECC
1 Headquarters (HQ) Section.
2 Processing Unit.
3 Medical Unit.
4 Screening Unit.
5 Transportation Unit.
6 Security Unit.

Evacuee category I

• US citizens
• Ambassador's staff of allied or assisted nation's delegation and their families
• Designated VIPs

Evacuee category II

• Alien members of American families
• Allied or assisted nations legation personnel and families

Evacuee category III

Foreign service nationals and third-country national employees of the US government

Evacuee category IV

Eligible non-Americans who are seriously ill, injured, or whose lives are in imminent peril (but who do not qualify for a higher priority)

Evacuee category V

Others eligible (as directed by ambassador or joint force commander)

Evacuee subcategories

A Pregnant women
B Unaccompanied children under 18
C Aged and infirm
D Adults with children
E Adults 18 years of age or older

Equipment required for BI

• Flare storage boxes (as required).
• Two pair of welders gloves.
• Set of cable cutters.
• Pressurized water fire extinguishers (as required).
• One shovel.
• Oxygen masks (with visor) for all aircrew and passengers on the aircraft and sufficient oxygen ports in the cabin.

LUU-2B/B BI

Normal light
240 secs, 1.9 million candlepower
2000m diameter circle of illumination
2500ft ignition altitude

LUU 19

IR. Can only be seen on NVGs

420 to 540 seconds of illumination at 450 to 650 watts/steradian after a minimum ignition altitude of 6,000 feet AGL.

Therefore at approximately 4000m slant range a single LUU-19 flare will provide 0.0022 lux.

three basic BI targets

Point target
Linear target
Area target

Point target

Used to illuminate a small area of interest, such as a Landing Zone or extraction point. Either a single flare or group of flares is released nearly simultaneously over a point.

Linear target

Used to illuminate a linear target such as a road or river. A string of flares is released parallel to the road or river providing desired illumination.

Area target

Used to illuminate an area target such as a drop zone or a large objective area. A single or a string of flares is released to provide the desired illumination

BI drop patterns

Racetrack
Continuous orbit
Dogbone
Continuous illumination

Racetrack BI drop pattern

effective for constant illumination of a point target or area target.

Continuous orbit BI drop pattern

effective for constant illumination of a point target.

Dogbone

effective for constant illumination of a linear target. After a string of flares is dropped, a course reversal at each end of the pattern quickly returns the aircraft to the reciprocal run-in course over the same drop line.

Continuous illumination

MV-22 to release the first string of flares at a preplanned time. Once the initial flares are released, the aircraft will enter a pattern that allows the subsequent strings of flares to be released and ignited prior to the burnout of the preceding flares in order to provide constant illumination of an area for a set period of time or as directed by the mission commander.

BI drop altitude

can start at 3,000 AGL but should be the highest altitude commensurate with threat and mission accomplishment considerations.

BI timer settings

Available timer settings are 250, 500, 1,000, 1,500 (N/A on LUU-2 A/B), and 2,000 through 11,000 in 1,000-foot intervals.

Although the LUU-2B/B and the LUU-19 have a 250 setting, 500 is the minimum timer setting for MV-22 operations.

Recommended min ignition altitudes

LUU-2 A/B and LUU-2B/B should be ignited at 2,500 feet AGL for ground illumination to ensure burnout prior to ground contact.

LUU-19 should be ignited at a minimum of 6,000 AGL.

HST

Helicopter Support Team

signalman, static wand person, hookup person, and team superviso

Fe

External load drag. Calculated by HAT team. Can be entered into JMPS

AUTO JETT occurs when

external cargo hooks sense 300 pounds or less

"FIGHTS ON"

Call made when commencing a maneuvering line number

"Hats off"

No longer role playing

Fox

Simulated/actual launch of air-to-air weapons.

FARME

Aircraft status report:
1) F: Fuel in hours and minute remaining.
2) A: Gun ammunition remaining.
3) R: Rockets remaining.
4) M: Missiles remaining.
5) E: Expendables remaining.

DIRT

RWR indication of surface threat in search mode.

buddy spike (position/bearing/altitude)

Friendly system radar lock-on indication on RWR.

BRAA

Tactical control format providing target bearing, range, altitude and aspect, relative to a friendly aircraft

Weapons conditions

Free - fire at targets not PID as friendly IAW ROE
Tight - fire only at targets PID as hostile IAW ROE
Hold - fire only in self defense

Golden freq

Pre-briefed intraflight freq upon which all members of a flight can be marshaled ICO comm degradation (usually single channel UHF clear)

Cruise

0.0 and 0.2 DME with 25 feet of either step-up or step-down based upon the mode of flight

Combat cruise

0.3- to 1.0-NM in both CONV and APLN modes
free to maneuver aft between the 100-degree bearing on either side of the flight leader

Combat spread

0.5 NM to 2.0 NM
±10 degrees of the lead aircraft's abeam

LAT vertical maneuver

vertical maneuver is defined by an FPV of ±5 degrees

Coupled deceleration profile

200 fpm rate of descent and decelerate at 1 KGS per second

Spike

RWR indication of an AI threat in track or launch.

Nails

(1) RWR indication of AI radar in search.
(2) RWR indication of surface threat in track mode. See DIRT and SINGER

Singer

RWR indication of SAM launch.

Naked

No RWR indications. Opposite of SPIKE/MUD/DIRT/SINGER.

Mud

(1) RWR ground threat displayed with no launch indication.
2) RWR indication of surface threat in track mode. See DIRT and SINGER.

Dirt

RWR indication of surface threat in search mode.

Variables of Terrain Clearance Tasking

aerodynamic control,
vector control,
altitude control, and
time control.

minimum speed where maximum G can be attained.

approximately 250 KCAS.
At speeds less than that, the aircraft will experience wing stall before maximum G is attained

Min speed for LAT

200 kts

Coordinating altitude

An airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users as the transition between different airspace coordinating entities.

Coordinating level

A procedural method to separate fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which fixed-wing aircraft normally will not fly.

four types of ballistics

interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal

Interior ballistics

the factors within the barrel affecting the motion of the projectile before it leaves the barrel. These factors affect the accuracy of all aerial-fired weapons regardless of T/M/S and cannot be compensated for by aircrew actions. The total effect of all interior ballistic factors determines the velocity with which the projectile leaves the muzzle. This is defined as muzzle velocity and is expressed in feet per second (fps).

Exterior ballistics

the factors that affect projectile motion along the trajectory. The trajectory is the path described by the projectile's center of gravity (CG) as it passes from the muzzle, to the point of impact

exterior ballistic factors affecting all weapon systems are air resistance (drag), yaw, gravity, wind drift, and projectile drift (horizontal plane gyroscopic effects).

gyroscopic precession.

This force causes the projectile to precess or move to the right because US projectiles spin clockwise. To compensate for this effect, it is necessary to aim to the left of the target.

aerial ballistics

vary and depend on the projectile. Projectiles fired off of the MV-22 are spin-stabilized. Factors common to tiltrotor aircraft are turning error, rotor wash error, trajectory shift, projectile jump (vertical plane gyroscopic effect), and port-starboard effect.

Turning error

Engagement of a target in a turn results in rounds that impact short and inside the turn. To compensate for this ballistic factor, elevate the boreline axis of the weapon above the target.
--> For example, the gunner must aim high and opposite the direction of the turn.

Rotor wash

the force from the proprotor's downwash acting on a projectile. This force has an appreciable effect only if the aircraft has not reached translational lift (because rotor wash hits the round twice in ground effect and once out of ground effect)

Trajectory shift

When the boreline axis of the weapon differs from the flightpath of the MV-22, the forward velocity of the aircraft causes a change in the direction and velocity of the projectile.
Firing from the rear or ramp will cause the projectile to lose muzzle velocity; therefore, the round will fall short. Trajectory shift is corrected by leading the target with the RMWS. (Fire should be placed on the near side of the target as the MV-22 passes it.)

Projectile jump

firing to the right produces a downward jump, and firing to the left produces an upward jump. Since compensation devices do not correct for this effect, the gunner must aim slightly below the target when firing to the left and slightly above when firing to the right. No compensation is required when firing from a hover.

Port-starboard effect

Trajectory shift, projectile drift, and projectile jump result in the port-starboard effect. When firing from the left, the effects of trajectory shift and projectile drift compound each other and cause the round to move to the right. Projectile jump will also cause a round fired from the left to climb. To compensate for these three characteristics, the gunner must aim left and below (low) the target. From the right side, trajectory shift and projectile drift tend to cancel each other out.

Terminal ballistics

characteristics and effects of projectiles at the point of impact. Normally, terminal ballistics deal with different types of fuzes and warheads; however, the RMWS is concerned with only one aspect of terminal ballistics—the surface conditions at the point of impact.

Sighting techniques

• Rule One—When firing to the right, the gunner should aim high and to the right side of the target.
• Rule Two—When firing to the left, the gunner should aim low and to the left side of the target.
• Rule Three (General Rule of Thumb)—Lead by half the size of the target and aim at 7 or 2 o'clock, depending on the direction of the weapon is employed (left: left-low or right: right-high).

Tactical landing environment

3.0 NM radius from the landing zone that encompasses altitudes from the surface up to 300 feet AGL

Air support Request formats

joint tactical air strike request (JTAR) is used when requesting aircraft to support offensive air support (OAS) missions.

The assault support request (ASR) is used to request assault support

minimal requirements used to assess the threat level

Type, quantity, and quality of enemy individual weapons and weapon systems.
Control and communications systems used to integrate threat enemy systems.
Centralized or decentralized control of enemy assets.
Proficiency/training level of enemy forces.

When an AMC is assigned

When different TMS aircraft formations, each lead by its own element leader, are required for a common mission
OR when a formation of four or more aircraft must perform a multiple-sortie mission

Implied tasks

not specified but required for mission accomplishment

Essential tasks

what must be accomplished for mission success

Constraints

Things that may limit a commander's freedom of action (i.e., what the commander must do).

Restraints

Things a command prohibits its subordinates from doing (i.e., what the commander cannot do).

LASER

light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Medium altitude

outside of the engagement envelope of small arms, rocket-propelled grenades (RPG), and light ADA;
however, SAMs can still be a threat

Planning the OA

1) routes shall be deconflicted
2) fires shall be integrated.

ASLT

provide a summary of the flow and composition of assault support assets

ASSAT

detailed composition of each serial for aircraft commanders and serial leaders to aid in weight planning and accountability

SYS TOT methods

• Set SYS TOT to L-hour minus X min and plan to fly CMD GS.
• Set SYS TOT for L-hour and plan to fly X min ahead.
• Set SYSTOT to the IP rather than LZ. IP to LZ timing can then be used to hit TOT to the LZ

MCHUM must include

• All obstructions within 100 feet of the minimum altitude for the width of the route.
• All obstructions exceeding 500 feet AGL within 5 NM of the route boundary.
• Any obstruction that determines an minimum safe altitude or emergency safe altitude.
• All obstructions within 100 feet of the minimum altitude for the width of the route displayed on Vector Vertical Obstruction Data (VVOD).

Fuel planning BINGO NO FLPN setting

calculates direct routing to the point set in the CMS and via the parameters set in the CMS

FLPN BINGO fuel planning

Fuel reserve calculates the current leg based on the current aircraft and environmental parameters and then uses the parameters set in FPLN for the remaining legs

Fuel summary page in CMS

MSN > FUEL PLANNING

Displays:
planned (PLN) and actual (ACT) fuel usage
fuel remaining at the end of each leg
predicted fuel reserves at the destination.

Fuel planning updates

every 5 seconds for the current leg
every 30 seconds for future legs

Fuel flow

approximately 1,600 pounds per hour (pph) during max endurance flight profiles to more than 4,000 pph during max performance maneuvering. This translates to an operational flight window ranging from just over 2 hours to more than 4 hours

Line of sight

At bottom of the DIGMAP
Tells: if the LOS is clear or obstructed, along with an elevation (MSL), bearing, and distance to that geographical point.
A green line will show up from the aircraft to that geographic location

HAT techniques

setting this function to aircraft (A/C), will show all terrain obstacles that are co-altitude to the aircraft in yellow on the DIGMAP. All obstacles that are higher in altitude will appear in red.
An alternate technique that is useful when descending from altitude into terrain is to set the MSL alert altitude to the intended level off altitude. This will highlight any terrain features that are potential hazards during the descent

Terrain shading

24 bands of gray that are centered around the middle height of the displayed terrain. Darkest gray = highest terrain

Sun shading

15 shades of gray with the light source's azimuth and elevation adjustable. This function provides a real-time view of the terrain

Command bars deselected

No lower than 200 AGL

range and line of sight limitations of an unamplified man pack radio

MANPADS threat with a range of 3 NM in the LZ

Fuel planning BINGO NO FLPN setting

calculates direct routing to the point set in the CMS and via the parameters set in the CMS

FLPN BINGO fuel planning

Fuel reserve calculates the current leg based on the current aircraft and environmental parameters and then uses the parameters set in FPLN for the remaining legs

Fuel summary page in CMS

MSN > FUEL PLANNING

Displays:
planned (PLN) and actual (ACT) fuel usage
fuel remaining at the end of each leg
predicted fuel reserves at the destination.

Fuel planning updates

every 5 seconds for the current leg
every 30 seconds for future legs

Fuel flow

approximately 1,600 pounds per hour (pph) during max endurance flight profiles to more than 4,000 pph during max performance maneuvering. This translates to an operational flight window ranging from just over 2 hours to more than 4 hours

Line of sight

At bottom of the DIGMAP
Tells: if the LOS is clear or obstructed, along with an elevation (MSL), bearing, and distance to that geographical point.
A green line will show up from the aircraft to that geographic location

HAT techniques

setting this function to aircraft (A/C), will show all terrain obstacles that are co-altitude to the aircraft in yellow on the DIGMAP. All obstacles that are higher in altitude will appear in red.
An alternate technique that is useful when descending from altitude into terrain is to set the MSL alert altitude to the intended level off altitude. This will highlight any terrain features that are potential hazards during the descent

Terrain shading

24 bands of gray that are centered around the middle height of the displayed terrain. Darkest gray = highest terrain

Sun shading

15 shades of gray with the light source's azimuth and elevation adjustable. This function provides a real-time view of the terrain

3 types AD

• Personnel.
Container delivery system (CDS).
Door bundle.

VMM mission

support the Marine air-ground task force (MAGTF) commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies and equipment—day and night—under all-weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.

RESCAP

RESCAP is an aircraft patrol provided over a TRAP objective area for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft. Its primary purpose is to protect the CSAR task force (CSARTF) during recovery operations. RESCAP aircraft will perform the following tasks:
• Patrol over and protect the survivor until the CSARTF arrives.
• Assist the TRAP aircraft in locating and authenticating the survivor.
• Assist rescue escort (RESCORT) in suppressing ground threats.
• Protect against and ensure suppression of airborne threats.
• Function as OSC until other elements of the CSARTF arrive.

RESCORT

fixed-wing or rotary-wing aircraft designed to protect the recovery aircraft from possible hostile action while en route to and from the CSAR objective area and during the recovery phase. These aircraft should be capable of operating roughly within the same altitude, speed, and endurance regimes of the recovery aircraft;

Goal of TRAP

to effect the expeditious return of personnel and/or aircraft without further loss of friendly forces.

Types of TRAP

immediate or deliberate.

Precautionary TRAP options

lifeguard, airborne orbit, strip alert, and delayed TRAP.

2 methods of TRAP

single unit and TRAP task force (TTF).

Min LZ size

20 feet of obstacle clearance during the day,
50 feet of obstacle clearance at night, and
100 feet of obstacle clearance in reduced visibility.

When to deploy ramp?

It's recommended when transiting to the objective area the ramp be leveled and weapon deployed prior to a tactical descent to the IP

SOP: -should be level by the IP but no sooner than when departing HA
-TG FCLP CAL training
-when gear is down in landing phase

ALTRV

Altitude reservation
block of exclusive use airspace that is normally used for the mass movement of aircraft or other special requirements such as aerial refueling, which cannot otherwise be accomplished within the normal air traffic control framework. There are two types of ALTRVs: moving and static

Optimal hover height for water hoist recoveries

150 AGL

Optimal hover height for land hoist recoveries

100 feet AGL.

Goodrich hoist system limit

600 lbs

Avoid excessive proprotor downwash effects

Stay above 150 AWL for water Ops, 50 AGL land Ops

Types of climbs

Max rate
Max angle
Max range
Enroute airspeed

Max rate

Minimize time spent in a climb IOT transit threat envelopes expeditiously

Max angle

Minimize distance traveled while climbing (IOT get to altitude while still over friendly territory)

Max range

Fuel conservation

LZ size requirements
Day

Single 100 x 120
Section 250 x 270 FEET

LZ size requirements
Night

Single 160 x 180
Section 310 x 330 FEET

LZ size requirements
RVL

Single 200 x 200
Section 600 x 600

50 percent ruke

provides a maximum FPV (50 percent of the maneuver initiation altitude in AGL hundreds of feet) to initiate a descent from high altitude to LAT. For example, the maximum FPV for a descent from 4,000 feet AGL would be 20 degrees

5 degree rule

provides maneuver guidance following a vertical climb in response to a threat system. In order to rapidly descend back down to the LAT environment, the maximum FPV down will be 5 degrees less than the maximum FPV up during the climb

What is powered by the MWGB?

HYD 3, #1 CFG, #4 VFG, Shaft Driven Compressor (SDC) as well MWGB oil pump (the APU is not powered by the MWGB, it powers the MWGB, MWGB oil cooler, RPU and Rotor brake also reside here)

Why does the V-22 have a fuel suction pump design?

ref SECRET NATIP

When does the Fuel Boost Pump turn on

Feed Boost Pump kicks on automatically at 565 lb level in Feed Tank

What occurs when you try to aerial refuel without selecting boost pump off?

Boost pumps are pressurizing the fuel lines while activated. This can cause pressure spikes in the fuel lines potentially causing fuel system damage and/or leakage. (NATOPS)

What do you do if faced with a "must plug" situation and your boost pumps have been commanded ON by the FMU prior to selecting FMU/AERIAL REFUEL?

FMU has commanded the boost pumps ON and cannot be overridden if FMU/AERIAL REFUEL was not selected prior to refueling. Using the PCL, ref. AERIAL REFUELING WITH A FAILED FMU. The only way to override the boost pumps is to disconnect them from the system by following step 9 to pull CB.
Once pulled, the option to select TPUMP BOOST-OFF will be available. Clean up will be done by following POST AERIAL REFUELING WITH A FAILURE checklist.

• What occurs when you try and aerial refuel without selecting FCS AERIAL REFUEL?

This will result in single or multiple ADS failures. These failures are not resettable in flight. Failure to deselect FCS AERIAL REFUEL after refuel complete will degrade ADS failure detection resulting in degraded handling characteristics and inadequate structural load limiting protection.

What is the configuration and limits to fuel dump?

800ppm,
Configuration prior to fuel dump cargo ramp and door closed, landing gear up, main cabin door closed.
Parameters: >80kts, >6k AGL, ≤1000fpm ROD, NAC 0-75°

(Fume and spray avoidance from exhaust to mitigate fire)

How low will fuel dump drain the fuel system before it automatically secures?

Stopped manually or by FMU 60±10 sec after the total on-board transfer and quantity is less than 500lbs.
(does not dump Feed Tanks, but all other fuel could be dumped)

What option do you have if you needed more fuel to fly?

FMU will make the inop eng feed tank fuel avail once all other fuel has been exhausted.

Define VTOL configuration?

96-85° NAC

Max pitch in CONV mode?

20° nose up

What is the MAX AOB in conversion mode
<60° NAC? and >60° NAC?

60° AOB for less than 60°NAC and
30° AOB for greater than 60° NAC

What is NATOPS max altitude and configuration to conduct tactical maneuvering (LAT)?

(RuF M MPL - RSM) and T/R

DJs
Tissss

- Auto flaps only
- Max wt: 48,000 lbs
- Lateral CG: ±3 in
- STA CG: 395-403in
- Pedals centered, max ¼ ball out

- APLN
• Min Airspeed: 160 kts
• Max alt: 10,000 PA

- CONV - Balanced flight turning away and continuous transition to apln. Sustained CONV flt not authorized.

- VTOL - Hover pedal to change heading only, sustained VTOL flt not authorized.

• Scenario - Once designated as a TAC, you have been tasked to fly LAT. One of your co-pilots is not proficient and the other has not flown in over 30 days. Can you do this mission? List the requirements and restrictions.

- Yes you can go out and fly but no, you cannot complete mission as assigned
- Only a LATI can fly with a pilot that has lost proficiency in LAT, so your first co-pilot will have to just fly CALS or something.
- Per T&R, if not flown LAT in 30 days, the first 50 nm shall be flown at 500' to attain currency prior to descending to 200', so you can go LAT with your second co-pilot but have to stay at 500' for a while.

• Scenario: Mid Jan LAT VR1266 T/O@1400 BKN 020 OVC 060 280/10 TEMP/DEW 13/12 on file M11A/B. EL Centro F020 280/10
1) Can you depart out of airspace and cross the mountains?
2) The freezing layer is now at 6-14k, tops are at 14k What options to fly do you have when you have weather?
3) What configuration do you fly for icing environment apln/conv?

1) Request a Dash 1 wx brief when flying into IMC regardless of wx at departure location or destination to get more information on what options you have.

2) Fly below, above, around or through. V-22 can go high.

3) APLN: flaps auto, 200 kts, 60% stall, 10% Qm margin. CONV: flaps auto, 60° NAC, 110kts. Avoid extended conv/vtol

• Scenario - There is a WX Watch that was issued earlier on.
1) The forecast shows it is not progressing as originally forecasted. Can you still fly your route if it was posted along your route of flight?

2) Where does ice formation occur first on the fuselage (not where you'd see it)?

1) Yes. Storm development has not progressed as forecast. IFR is permitted if aircraft have wx radar installed and operative; OR if in controlled airspace and VMC can be maintained to allow aircraft to detect and avoid storms.

2) The empennage, Vertical stabs (no reference for this, just "common knowledge)

What are you allowed to FCF as a TAC?

Only a Ground Turn as a TAC and not FCP
NATOPS: min crew req for GT is a TAC and a plane captain. GT for leak checks shall be conducted during the daylight period only.

• In an ADB,
1) What is the breakdown of the ADB? Which side are open MAFs, closed MAFs and NPPC displayed on?
2) What is and IP and how is it filed?
3) When a D&T is done, what order is the daily and turnaround paperwork filed?
4) How long is a daily and turnaround good for?
5) What does a Z code mean?

1) Open on the Right and Closed on Left by shop, for last 10 flights it is reversed. NPPC's on the right
2) In progress, and it's filed as non-downing.
3) Turnaround then daily.
4) Daily - 72 hrs, turnaround - 24 hrs
5) (Z) - It's a downer - not able to safely fly Day flt VMC with 2-way comm and necessary a/c and safety provisions.

• When is the fuel sample taken & How long is a fuel sample good for?

Prior to the activation of the apu at the start of the day. It's good for 24 hrs.

• How many chip detectors are there?

13 - (3 prgb, 2 tagb,) x 2 each side, 1 mwgb, 1 per eng
only engine cannot do fuzz burn.

• What is the definition of Land as soon as practical/possible, immediately, PEL.

o Land as soon as practical - extended flight not recommended. Landing and duration is at the discretion of the pilot in command.
o Land as soon as possible - means land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made, and no further than your refuel point (tactical scenario)
o Land immediately - self explanatory.

Give weapons brief (in country based on ROE) to new crew chiefs as the TAC; what are weapons commands?

"Lock and Load"
"Open Fire"
"Cease Fire"
"Clear you weapon"
- The right to self-defense is never denied. The enemy is wearing this. In the zone, all males with a weapon are declared hostile. We will be weapons hold/tight/free. With a hostile act, hostile intent, PID, POO and know what's behind your target you have pre-briefed clearance to fire. Try and get the break call out before you fire.

1) How long do you conduct an engine rinse?
2) For both engines or individually?
3) What component do you activate after engine rinse has been completed?
4) What is the temperature drop for an engine rinse?

1) 1 min

2) each engine (can do individually, but we do both at same time through midwing)

3) The engine bleed valve for one minute

4) MGT decrease by 25 to 35°

When does the hi/lo altitude landing gear alert arm and trigger itself?

Low alt armed - armed when gear is up, NAC >70°, >500 fpm ROC (rate of climb)
Low alt trigger - if ROC <200 fpm for 3 secs below 240' AGL
Hi alt armed - above 240' or NAC <70°
Hi alt triggered - below 200', NAC >70° and gear not down and locked

What happens with an Eng Cont Fault?

What kind of landing criteria is generally associated with Eng Cont Fault?

This is when loss of redundancy on sensors, actuators or FADECs can occur for both the controlling and standby FADECs. The loss of redundancy is on PDS output, eng sensors and actuators (Wf or CVG FPMU), or FADECs .

There is no stated landing criteria for this advisory, however, if FADEC faults or engine control is degraded/suspected this will become a land as soon as practical.

When does INT Power activate and turn on/off?

Off: >60kts OR <70° NAC. On: <55 kts AND >70° NAC

• When does the COANDA activate for exhaust deflecter?

o Eng trq - <28%
o Ng - >67%
o NAC - > 52°
o MGT - <565°C
o NIU receives a weight on wheels indication

• Scenario - ECS CONTROLLER FAIL has occurred.
1) What does that mean?
2) What is the impact of securing the system?

1) Lost ability to control the fan output on the CDU resulting in the cockpit having the fan on full power.
2) The loss of ECS would impact OBOGGS and OBIGGS along with the avionics cooling by removing the SDC compressed air from entering the ECU.

WTI/T&R
• What is the mission of the VMM?
"3 threes"

The mission of a Marine medium tiltrotor squadron is to support the Marine air-ground task force commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies and equipment - day and night- under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint or combined operations.

• What are the 6 METs for a VMM squadron? (3000 level)

Sea, Shore, CAT (Combat Assault Transport), AD (Aerial Delivery), AE (Aerial Evacuation), TRAP

• Define currency and proficiency?

Proficiency - refers to when an individual has demonstrated an event in relation to the refly factor.
Currency - based on exposure frequency to a particular skill, by measuring the time since the last event within the refly factor.

• What is the requirement for transportation of pax over water at night? (2 x Proficiency, 3 x Currency)

- Pilot and copilot shall be designated NSQ (HLL and LLL), - Pilots shall be night carrier qualified
- Pilots shall have conducted a min of two night aided shipboard landings each, flown 1 hr of NVD time, within the previous 30 days.
- And TAC must have flown in past 15 days

• Per the T&R what are the requirements to conduct LAT with troops embarked? (T&R Program Manual)

1) All aircrew are qualified, proficient, and current per the T&R
2) Aircrew shall utilize FW LAT/Tiltrotor LAT areas or routes as specified in respective MAW and MAG operations SOPs.
3) The aircraft has the requisite power margin as specified in respective MAW, MAG and squadron operations SOPs.
4) Authorization for the specific FW LAT/Tiltrotor LAT training event has been approved by the MAGTF commander.
5) Waiver authority for any of the above restrictions is vested in the MEF CG.

• What is the max number of aircraft in a standard formation flight outside special use airspace?
• What is the max distance between lead and dash last at night before anti collision lights were required by both aircraft?
• How much vertical Separation
(NATOPS)

4

<1.0 DME

<500 Feet

Non-standard form would be outside the 1.0DME & 500Feet parameter

How many litters and stanchions can we carry? How many seats do you have left?

12 Litters, 5 cabin seats remain

• If issued a plane with an INOP overt spotlight, could you still take that plane on a night flight?

Yes as long as the other spotlight is still operational. The complies with T&R and OPNAV. You can also use probe light and landing gear light

• What codes could a TAC log that was not identified on the flight schedule per SOP. (9 of them)

1) FAM 2030,
2) INST 2131,
3) RVL 2133, 4) HLL CAL 2331, 5)LLL CAL 2381, 6) DAY FCLP 2931, 7) NT FCLP 2934, 8) RVL 4730, 9) EP 6033/6036

1) What is the Max flight time and crew day with an operable FDP/Coupled ability on a FERRY Flight?
2) What is the max flight time and crew day for inop FDP on a FERRY FLIGHT?
(Group SOP)

1) Flight - 9 hrs / crew day - 14 hrs (W/MAG CO extension)

2) Flt - 6.5 hrs / crew day - 12 hrs

• Describe the cabin layout if 24 troops are loaded in.

2 pilots, 25 seats in the cabin with 13 on the right and 12 on the left to accommodate 1 cc main cabin door. 12 troops per side. Jumpseat is not allowed for use on takeoff and landing (per NATOPS 2-236).

• How many litters can a V-22 could accommodate and how many seats were still available

12 litters, 4 seats for corpsmen, 1 CC at main door.

• What is the nomenclature of the MJUs and RRs regarding expendables and ASE, along with differences of each?

CHAFF - RR129, RR144 training chaff, MJU-57 fwd firing overt, MJU-32 overt, MJU-49 covert flare.

• What does the bypass switch do on the CMDS for the ALE-47?

In the event a CMDS NOGO fail appears, this will bypass the programmer and command a preprogrammed dispense directly from the sequencer.

• What are the airspeeds and altitude associated when expendables would come off?

57 - >150kts/>60 AGL,
32 - <150kts/ >60 AGL,
49 - no fwd only aft buckets <150/<60 AGL

• What are the 6 lighting conditions?

1 (Day) - pos brt, ac on top/bottom
2 (Night Unaided)- form 10, pos brt, proprtr norm 10, ac norm
3 (NVD outside restriced area) - form 10, pos dim, tail off, proprtr NVG 10, ac off, ldg gear auto-off. Last a/c tail on, ac norm (top only)
4 (NVD inside restriced area)- form 10, pos off, proprtr NVG 10, ac off, ldg gear aut-off. Last a/c pos on, ac norm (top only)
5 (NVD all covert)- form 10, pos off, proprtr NVG 10, ac off, ldg gear auto-off. Last a/c ac NVG
6 - All Lights off

In the B vs C model, what do you control on the CMDS and what does the CC control?

Bravo the CC controls the tip lights via the overhead panel, while the C model, the pilots control the tip lights on the CDU.

What are the different RVL approaches?

1) No hover (Hand Flown)
2) Assited no hover
3) Hover coupled
4) Assited hover coupled
5) Fully Coupled Approach to hover

• How do you lock in a descent rate when conducting coupled HVR approaches? (New NATOPS change)

The slew switch is a momentary 5 position switch. When HVR coupled is active in vs mode, depression and release updates the vertical speed.

• What are the different positions for Aerial Refueling?

Observation, Astern, Contact, Reform

• What are the different types of flight formations and distances related to each?

o Parade - generally welded wing
o Cruise - 0-0.2nm
o Trail - no more than 1 nm
o Combat - cruise conv: 0.1-0.2, apln: 0.3-1.5, spread - 0.5-2.0

• Why do you create a Bingo No Flt plan if you already have a flight plan with bingo calculations going?

When utilizing INAV DIR, bingo flt plan calculations are not being calculated. Bingo no flt plan will calculate with current conditions.

• What does the numeric value mean on the APR-39 RSI mean?
When the number continues to move toward the center of the RSI, what information is that providing and what are the different levels?

It is displaying the lethality rings, in the picture on ANTTP, but enemy weapons can also be displayed with numeric value (i.e. SA-4 with a "4" or SA-8 with "8")

These show which radar sequence is in use by how close to the center it is.
1- Radar Searching
2- Aquisition
3- Target Tracking
4- Fire Control / Missile Guidance Radar
5- C&D Band with missle guidance signals (i.e. IR)

It doesn't show proximity of radar, but where you are in the weapon's kill chain.

• What are the commands and manuever you would give upon detection of a Tic mark on the ASI?

C/S, Lean Right/Left, Dirt (clock dir). Since this is searching radar, the Lean maneuver will suffice and maneuver the aircraft to put the threat in the radar notch area.

• What is Lost comm Orange/Yellow in the local area?

Yellow - FW lost comm. Maintain ≤5000 MSL until NKX R64/16 Fly final of tacan 24R
Orange - INT 15 course rules at 2500' MSL recover spot 3. Or 10 mile arc at 4,000 MSL to R064/10 fly final of tacan 24R

SENIOR MEMBER
• On pre-flight, what TFOA watchlist item is located on the rudder?

??? asking Q/A for TFOA watchlist

• Would you take a plane that has a PLCU fail on a night flight?

No. cockpit lighting required for night flight.

How many Fuel pumps on aircraft?

6 total, 2 suction, 2 boost in wing, 2 boost in sponsons.

• Scenario: VMC short final NKX, LAND GEAR ABORT posts with nose gear not show down and locked.
1) Talk through steps. Include crew, instructions to fly, where you are going for trouble shooting and altitude. Fuel concerns?
2) What options to verify gear do you have?
3) How would you land? What control laws dictate the landing profile?

?

What are the 12 subsystems of the Utility Hyd system?
(Exterior-NAC & Nose - 3)
(Top - midwing - 3)
(Inside - 3)
(Bottom -3)

Engine Start
EAPS
Aereal Refuel Probe *

Rotor Brake
RPU (positioning unit)
Wing Stow

Cargo Winch
Ramp & Door
Rescue Hoist

Wheelbrakes *
Nose Wheel Stearing
Landing Gear actuators *

* - means they have back-ups

What are the 9 things NAC IPS does?

1) Prop Rotors
2) Spinners
3) Dampers
4) Inlets
5) Pitot Heat
6) AOA sensor
7) FLIR
8) Windshield
9) Detect sensor

What are the 6 things ENV bus controls

1) Avi cooling
2) OBOGS
3) OBIGS
4) A/C and Heat
5) Fuel Boost (#1 suction, #2 boost)
6) Wing Anti-ice boots

What are CFG's rated

80lb 3 phase / 200VAC, 400hz/40KVA

What are VFG's rated

60 lb 50-80 KVA, self-cooled

How many electrical busses are there, what are they?

9 total: 2 AC, 2 Env, 3 DC, 2 Batt

NAC modulation limits for shipboard ops?

when NAC angle <85 deg NAC strike on ship deck possible.
When no heat-shield modulation from 70 to 96, 2 minutes, five minutes - verify

When is it your responsibility to give the command open fire?

When you know its is safe and legal to do so. And you have attained the necessary requirements for engagement.

Can they ever fire without your approval?
How does ROE play into it?

Yes: Pre-briefed clearance to fire
Training- No pre-briefed clearance to fire
ROE determine the legality of the kill. It defines hostile act. Ex: they have to be actively shooting in your direction. Or, any person shooting is a hostile. Who is hostile? What buildings can we fire on? What line on a map determines sovereign land?

You're flying -2 for LAT, lead crashes into the mountainside near Warner Springs, what do you do? Who do you call? What does your radio call sound like?

-Attempt to assess the crash site
-Any near by landing sites
-Can I pick up any survivors?
-Attempt radio contact
-Get a grid/location
-Plot it in reference to JLI
-Call LA center: "Mayday, Mayday this is Greyhawk 22, I am currently 25mi SE of JLI. Squawking 7700. My lead aircraft Greyhawk 21 has gone down. 5 souls on board. Request discrete frequency."
-Attempt Base or Miramar Tower

PEL situation at 29 palms; you have a mx issue with a landing criteria. QA is on board, checks it out, and says it's good. However, you can't reach home with comms to get CO's permission... what now?

You cannot take off. You need one-shot permission. You can call Bearmat or KNXP TWR, for a radio relay back home. They can make phone calls for you.

You lose your ICS 29 Palms en route to dropping grunts off at a FOB..what do you do? Complete the frag? Go home?

Is the FOB secure? Are TIC? What type of assets is there? Fuel? Am I closer to FOB or home? Most likely continue. Troubleshoot on deck. The cockpit is quiet. If radios still work, we can transmit over a squadron freq to each other.

Hyd leak FOB in Afg; you're -last of an insert, and are carrying the last stick that would make up 'go' criteria for the GCE. Without that extra stick, they'll have to scrub the mission. Your hyd 2 is now at 150" 4 hours into the flight. You started with it at a normal level (200" or so). What do you do?

They won't be a GO if I crash enroute either. And if I insert a stick and am unable to extract, that will be a problem as well. I should not go in to a landing zone where I can potentially take battle damage with a leaking HYD system. I need to begin accessing possible landing sites. Can I make it back home? Can I make it to a safe FOB?

You're on deck at a FOB after dropping off pax/ stuff for a GS run, and a LtCol runs to the bird saying he has troops in contact and needs you to do a casevac right now. What do you do?

Get a hasty 9-Line out of him. Who, what, where, how many, frequency, call sign? Access aircraft status—Fuel? Expendables? Ammo? Is CASEVAC a pre-briefed mission of the day? I need to contact DASC/Battle Captain/Base/MEU CMD 1 for permission and routing to the zone. With a TIC, I can expect a CAS stack and a JTAC/FAC controlling the airspace.

Oxygen requirements:

10,000'-13,000':
-Pilot and active crew: Oxygen required
-Co-pilot: 30 min, quick don immediately available
-Crew (no physical activity): 60 min, Oxygen readily available
-Passengers: 3 hr limit

Difference between currency/proficiency:

Proficiency is a time elapse in reference to the T&R
Currency is a time elapsed in reference to SOP
"You can be Proficient but not Current"

Requirements to fly pax at night to the boat:

2 NS landings in the last 15 days

You're flying to the boat at night, and boss gives you spot 2... what are your considerations? [They read BRC, winds, pitch/roll and then hand you the shipboard PCL and you have to see if you can land there] Difference between Alternate A and B shipboard approaches.

You can't land left seat spot 2 at night
Approach A is a straight in on BRC with a slide right
Approach B is approach to 45 off BRC with a tail slide right

You're on final for the PAR into Miramar (wx is CAVU) with a new 2P, and your nose gear doesn't go down. Talk through the scenario and how you'd handle it.

Request 1600' left pattern for troubleshooting
Request 800' LHD pattern for troubleshooting
Contact base have them prep the mattresses
Check fuel state
Alt and Airspeed in the FDP: Hold
Break out PCL
Blow down steps
Request another osprey to join
Request tower fly by for light confirmation
Use FLIR to confirm lock pin
Make approach to Spot 4 when able
Lock pins before taxi

What are the checks and balances that go into making a legal flight schedule?

-Currency to sign
-Proficiency in T&R event
-OPNAV crew rest/Day
-OPNAV Daily/Weekly/Monthly flight hours
-OPNAV consecutive fly days—6
-ORM
-All Department Signatures

Mission statement of the VMM:

SUPPORT THE MAGTF COMMANDER BY PROVIDING ASSAULT SUPPORT TRANSPORTATION OF TROOP, SUPPLIES AND EQUIPMENT—DAY OR NIGHT—UNDER ALL WEATHER CONDITIONS DURING EXPEDITIONARY, COMBINED, OR JOINT OPERATIONS

Our METs:

SEA, SHORE, CAT, AD, TRAP, AE, RIE, ADGR, BI, C&C

Go through the ADB:

A-Sheet: Signed off, Date, EPP
Oil Consumptions
Daily/Turnaround: Check Date
020: Maintenance Control
030: Maintenance Admin
040: QA
120: Airframes
130: Flight Equipment
220: Avionics
230: Ordy
310: Flightline
Last 10 Flights

How long are daily/ turnarounds good for?

DAILY = 72 HRS FROM SIGNATURE TIME
TURNAROUND = 24 HOURS

Talk about the EPP and what it means. What's the EPP limit? Is the bird down if it goes below that percentage?

Engine Performance Percentage
Found on the A-Sheet
95% = don't take it

When you do a middle finger pull, what comes off the aircraft?

MIDDLE FINGER = REACTIVE
RING FINGER = PROACTIVE
PULL = FLARE
PUSH = CHAFF

Ring Ringer Pull = (Short: 5 & 10) / (Long: 8 &16)
Ring Finger Push = Predetermined Chaff
Middle Finger Pull = 5 or 10
Middle Finger Push = Crow Response

SETTINGS:
1- SHORT W/ TACTICAL REPEAT
2- LONG W/ TACTICAL REPEAT
3- SHORT
4- LONG

>150' & >60kts = 57s
>150' & <60kts = Flare of FWD bucket
<150' & <60kts = No FWD bucket

Nomenclature and types of expendables

MJU-32: OVERT FLARE
MJU-49: IR FLARE
MJU-57: FWD FIRING
RR-129: CHAFF
RR-144: TRAINING CHAFF

What does "O1", "O2", "CH", and "FL" mean on the CDU/DCDU?

O1: "OTHER 1" INHIBITS FWD FIRING FLARES
O2: "OTHER 2" INHIBITS COVERT FLARES
CH: "CHAFF" INHIBITS CHAFF
FL: "FLARE" INHIBITS OVERT FLARES

Talk through leak logic:

20% Loss = Res Low
30+ cubic inches = Leak
40+ cubic inches = Leak in NAC
50+ cubic inches = Hyd Fail

Goal is to provide fluid to the swash plate actuators. Isolate any leaks and preserve fluid.

When does the gear warning go off? What altitude/ nacelle angle?

Armed: T/O, NAC >70°, >500 FPM rate of climb
Low Alt: <200FPM rate of climb for 3 sec below 240' AGL

Armed: >240'AGL or NAC<70°
High Alt: <200' AGL and NAC >70°

LAT

20° / 800' APLN
15° / 600' A/S = 200-275
10° / 450' DA below 3000'
5° / 300' GW below 48,000 lb
CG = 395-403

Flapping Critical

1. Maneuver severity—Reduce
2. Land—As Soon as Possible (ROL)
If landing must be delayed:
3. APLN—Transition
4. VTOL/CONV--Minimize

100% Nr Over-Torque

84% Nr Over-torque

Qm Greater than 132% for 5 sec OR Qm = 150%

Qm Greater than 110% for 5 Sec OR Qm = 126%

Elevator Failure

*1. Roll 60° AOB
*2. VTOL—Convert
3. PFCS—Reset
4. Land—As soon as Practical

F(C)=
F(P)=
F(T)=

Failed Comm WRA (Weapons replaceable Assembly)
Failed Present Status
Failed test status

MESM

Mission Essential Subsystem Matrix- What determines PMC or FMC
-Can I fly without it?

EOC

-Equipment Operational Capability
-EOC codes are documented when a specific system or subsystem is degraded and impacts the mission capability of that equipment or aircraft.

K-Coded MAF

-This code is used when an item must be adjusted to meet calibration standards. If the item needs repair in addition to calibration and adjustment, use another code indicating the proper maintenance action.

Night Currency With troops

-One hour of HLL or LLL in the last 30 days

Ability to sign at night

-Flight with in last 15 days

How many seats are there?

28
2 - pilot
2 - crew
24 - troops (23 stroking)

What is the capacity of the life raft?

-30

EOTDA

-Electro Optical Tactical Decision Aid
-Determine the effects of environmental conditions on the performance of NVDs, FLIR, and LASER

what are the 5 Mission Precedence

-Routine
-Priority
-Urgent
-Emergency
-Mandatory

Types of Formation

1. Parade
2. Cruise
3. Trail
-Standard: 1nm & 100' alt separation
-Non-standard: Not defined; must be approved by ATC
4. Combat
-Cruise: 0.3nm - 1.5nm
-Spread: 0.5mn - 2.0nm

Scan Plan

22-25 = BTN 31
26-29 = BTN 32

Define TAC:

The TAC is responsible for the safe tactical employment of the aircraft. The TAC must demonstrate leadership qualities and traits that enable them to fly an aircraft, as well as utilize and employ the crew and weapons systems to facilitate mission accomplishment.

What are the 4 Positions at the Tanker?

Observation
Astern
Contact
Reform

Who can you tank with?

KC-130
KC-10

What is the Tanker Transfer rate?

1000lb/min

RAID Types:

X = LZ less than 300m from Obj
Y = LZ 300-1000m from Obj
Offset = LZ more than 1000m from Obj

Mandatory Calls in OBJ AREA

"Winter/Devil"
"IP Inbound"
"Continue/Hold"
"Lifting/Waveoff"

MIJI

-Meaconing: A system of receiving radio beacon signals and rebroadcasting them on the same frequency to confuse navigation

-Interference: Any electromagnetic disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, or otherwise degrades or limits the effective performance of electronics or electrical equipment.

Jamming: he deliberate radiation, re-radiation, or reflection of electromagnetic energy with the objective of impairing the use of electronic devices, equipment, or systems being used by an enemy.

Intrusion: he intentional insertion of electromagnetic energy into transmission paths in any
manner with the objective of deceiving operators or causing confusion.

What are the 3 TRAP COAs

1. Location known / ambulatory
2. Location known / not ambulatory
3. Unknown location

How much time is remaining when your NVD battery low light comes on?

5-10 hours

Magellan Parameters

Lateral 1:50k = 500m / 1:250k = 1mn
Heading 15°
Timing 1 min
Other Over CP without turn

APR-39 codes: Centered F, Centered P, Quadrant F, Quadrant L, Quadrant M

Centered F: Critical AAR-47 Failure or other reportable failure of APR-39
Centered P: APR-39 Processor Failure
Quadrant F: Laser and Missile warning failure on that IOSC
Quadrant L: Laser warning failure
Quadrant M: Missile warning failure

Main components of Image intensifier tubes

Objective Lens
Photocathode: Photons into electrons
MCP: Multiplies electrons
Phosphor screen: Electrons into photons
Fiber optic inverter: Flips image
Diopter Lens: Focus image on retina

OPF

1134

MDF

4109

MATA

13,000' MSL, 240KGS, 15NM
6,000' MSL, 260-270 KGS, 9NM
300' AGL, 270KGS, 5NM

Gearbox Temp

Dual Engine Single Engine
132° High Warning 121°
110-132° High Caution 110-121°
20-110° Normal 20-110°
20° Low Caution 20°

X Insert/extract

LZ<300m from threat or objective. Capitalizing on Speed and Surprise.

Y Insert/extract

LZ>300M<1000M from objective. balance of speed surprise w/ threat exposure.

Offset Insert/extract

>1000m outside of audible range lowest risk of exposure.