JKO Ethics

Of the following, what is the most important ethical duty of healthcare organizations and their leaders?

Upholding the rights of patients

What are the ethical guidelines that are established by professional societies usually called?

Codes of Ethics

What makes Mayo Clinic's value statement particularly effective?

The definition of each organizational value

When developing and communicating clear standards of conduct, the code should:

Provide illustrations and guidelines, particularly in "gray" areas

How should the joint commission (TJC) standards on organizational ethics be viewed?

As a minimum set of ethical responsibilities

True or false: standards and procedures to guide behavior is a structural component of an ethics program.

True

What statement sets an ethical tone and best represents the "soul" of the organization?

Values statement

True or false: "act with an entrepreneurial mindset" is one of the four basic principles of organizational ethics.

False

What defines the organizations basic philosophy, principles, and ideals?

Values or guiding principles statement

True or false: random evaluations of program effectiveness is a recommended structural component for an ethics program

False

What is the most important cultural/leadership component in an ethics program?

Refine management systems to support the ethics program

True or false: the stakeholder that would benefit from implementation of the principle "provide care with compassion" is the employee.

False

Of the following, what is the most important ethical duty of healthcare organizations and their leaders?

Upholding the rights of patients

What are the ethical guidelines that are established by professional societies usually called?

Codes of Ethics

What makes Mayo Clinic's value statement particularly effective?

The definition of each organizational value

When developing and communicating clear standards of conduct, the code should:

Provide illustrations and guidelines, particularly in "gray" areas

How should the joint commission (TJC) standards on organizational ethics be viewed?

As a minimum set of ethical responsibilities

True or false: standards and procedures to guide behavior is a structural component of an ethics program.

True

What statement sets an ethical tone and best represents the "soul" of the organization?

Values statement

True or false: "act with an entrepreneurial mindset" is one of the four basic principles of organizational ethics.

False

What defines the organizations basic philosophy, principles, and ideals?

Values or guiding principles statement

True or false: random evaluations of program effectiveness is a recommended structural component for an ethics program

False

What is the most important cultural/leadership component in an ethics program?

Refine management systems to support the ethics program

True or false: the stakeholder that would benefit from implementation of the principle "provide care with compassion" is the employee.

False

You are asked to sell tickets to subordinates in the workplace for a fundraising event sponsored by a nonprofit organization that helps military spouses. May you sell the tickets?

No, this fundraising event has not been authorized, and it is not a fundraiser among the members of your organization for the benefit of the members of your organization.

Based your current official position, you were invited by a non-profit organization to an event that will be attended by 1,000. Of the 1,000 attendees, approximately 20 percent will be from the Department of Defense; 30 percent will be from the Legislative Branch; 40 percent will be representatives from academia; and 10 percent will be members of industry. The event will allow you to exchange ideas and views among the invited guests. The event is also scheduled to occur in the evening so you will attend the event on your own time. The value of this gift of free attendance is approximately $75 per person. Are you allowed to accept the gift of free attendance?

Yes, this event is a widely attended gathering, and before I attended the event, I coordinated with my ethics counselor and received written authorization to accept this gift.

You work officially with a contractor whom you otherwise do not know. The contractor invites your supervisor and you to dinner at a hotel on Pennsylvania Avenue, a block from the White House. The contractor does not invite anyone else. The cost of each meal is valued at $21.00. May the supervisor and you accept the offer?

No, an employee may not accept a gift from a prohibited source that exceeds $20.00. Also, the gift was offered because of your and your supervisor's official positions.

May a retired E-6 accept a salary from a company owned and controlled by the Government of France?

Yes, provided the retired military member obtains the approval from his/her Service Secretary and the Secretary of state before accepting the salary.

While employed by the Federal government, you were involved in approving a contract for audio/visual equipment. When you left the Federal government, you started working for that contractor and on the same contract. At the completion of work, the Government had paid approximately $6 million for $841,000 worth of equipment. Is your employment with the contractor acceptable?

No, this is a violation of a post-government employment restriction that is also a criminal statute (18 U.S.C. Section 207) because you participated personally and substantially in this contract while you were a government employee.

As a gesture of thanks, a retailer gave you a briefcase after you, using your Government credit card, had purchased office supplies from the retailer. Can you accept the briefcase?

No, because acceptance violates the general ban of accepting gifts from persons who do business or seek to do business with the employee's agency.

You have decided that it is time to retire from the Federal Service and are talking with two contracting companies that currently have contracts within your Directorate about possible job opportunities. Is there anything special you should do?

Yes, you should disqualify yourself from any official participation concerning these contracts and any particular matter that has a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of entities with whom you are discussing future employment.

JKO Bystander Intervention

Bystander

A person who stands near, but does not participate; mere onlooker

Bystander Intervention

Assessing a situation to determine what kind of intervention, if any, might be appropriate.

Micro-Affirmation

Apparently small acts, which are often ephemeral and hard to see events that are public and private.

Bystander Effect is also known as?

Bystander Apathy.

Bystander Effect

A psychological phenomenon where persons are less likely to intervene in a situation when others are present than when they are alone.

Diffusion of Responsibility

A social phenomenon that tends to occur in groups of people above a certain critical size when responsibility is not explicitly assigned.

Passive Bystander

An individual or group who should be doing something, but is not.

Active Bystander

Willingness to safely take action and help someone in time of need.

Why bystanders don't act.

1. If no one else is acting, it's hard to go against the crowd
2. Risk of embarrassment
3. Think there's someone else who is more qualified
4. Situation does not call for help since no one else is doing anything.

Bystanders often hesitate at act.

1. Fear loss of relationship
2. Fear retaliation
3. Fear embarrassment
4. Lack of competence
5. Believe someone else will take action

After the Act Strategies

1. Privately support an upset person
2. Talk privately with the inappropriate person
3. Report the incident with or without names

Diffusion of responsibility

Feeling less responsible as an individual to help in a large crowd because someone else could do it

Noticing the event

In large crowds, people tend to keep to themselves so they aren't likely to notice an event.

pluralistic ignorance

interpreting a situation according to others reactions

cost of helping

if the situation could harm you, you are less likely to help

competence

If we feel we are able to help positively

mood

people are more likely to help in a good mood

Similarity

more likely to help if the person is similar to us

ELO-A Define key terms associated with bystander intervention.

1. Bystander Effect

2.Diffusion of Responsibility

ELO-B Recall behaviors associated with passive and active bystanders.

1. Passive Bystander-not active- refers to an individual or group who should be doing something, but is not

2. Active Bystander- take action and help someone in time of need-aware of what is going on around you-c. Take the initiative in a situation that is uncomfortable

ELO-C Identify bystander intervention strategies

1.Direct

2. Safety first

3. Don't second Guess

4. situational awareness

5. Privately support upset person

What term is defined as "anyone who sees or otherwise becomes aware of behavior that appears worthy of comment or action?"

Bystander

Bystander effect, also known as bystander apathy, is best described as:

psychological phenomenon where persons are less likely to intervene in a situation when others are present than when they are alone

What term is used to describe someone who willingly and safely takes action, is aware of their surroundings, and takes the initiative in situations that are uncomfortable?

Active Bystander

What are some of the reasons that bystanders do not act?

1. one else is acting

2. risking embarrassment

3.does not call for help since no one else is doing anything.

What should be a person's first consideration when deciding to intervene?

Safety

What are examples of the direct actions associated with bystander intervention strategies?

a. Talk to a friend to ensure he or she is doing okay.


b. Make up an excuse to help the friend get away from someone.

c. Call the police.

d. Recommend to a bartender or party host that someone has had too much to drink.

e. Point out someone's disrespectful behavior in a safe and respectful manner that tends to de-escalate the situation.

f. Remove a friend from a risky situation quickly.

What is an intervention after the fact strategy in which you listen supportively and provide information about resources available to the aggrieved person?

After the Act Strategies

How did Darley and Latane become interested in research on bystander intervention?

Lady was attacked on the street & nobody intervened, then later she was restabbed & killed - if someone would have intervened she would have been saved - Kitty Gnovese

Decision tree model of bystander intervention (5 steps)

1) Notice the victim/emergency 2) Interpret the situation is an emergency 3) Assume responsibility to help 4) Know HOW to help 5) Decide to intervene

Ambiguous situations effect on bystander intervention

If the situation is ambiguous less people are likely to help than if the situation is dramatic or vivid

Pluralistic Ignorance effect on bystander

It occurs when people are uncertain about what is happening and assume that nothing is wrong because no one else is responding or appears concerned.

What determines whether bystanders feel personally responsible to help?

Similarity of victim to yourself (the more similar the more likely to help) & if victim calls you out you feel more likely to help

How does the number of other bystanders affect helping/intervention

The larger the group - the less likely for people to intervene or help

Cost of helping others

Decision to intervene can be blocked by fear or inconvenience
"Cost" of helping is weighed

If a woman is assaulted, what does research suggest she should she shout if bystanders are present? Why?

Yelling "help rape" is most effective - be specific, explain/yell you do not know the person

If you are experiencing a medical or other emergency, how can you increase the likelihood that bystanders will help you?

Call people out "you call 911!" be specific, and give specific orders

Field experiment

Researchers are going into the real world and staging a fake scenario/emergency then observing reactions

Smoke filled room study

Participant was doing a survey and smoke was coming out of vents - if you are ALONE you are most likely to report smoke (75%), in a group of 3 less likely to report the smoke (only 38%) - showed size of a group effects bystander intervention (larger the group, less likely to intervene) & pluralistic ignorance

Lady in Distress study

Participants in room filling out a survey - next door a crash and moan happened in the next room - if you are ALONE (70%) helped - if 2 people in the room only (20%) helped - post interview showed pluralistic ignorance

Stranger assault vs lovers quarrel

Man "attacked" women, actions were always the same just different language used (used names = "lovers quarrel" "I don't even know you!" = stranger assault)
Lovers quarrel: 19% helped
Stranger assault: 65% helped

Study examing effect of "Help, rape" vs. "Fire!" vs. rape whistle on bystanders

Most effective = "Help rape"
Least effective: Rape whistle

From Jerusalem to Jericho study

?

Diffusion of responsibility

Telling yourself someone else will do it, Ex: Bystanders assumed someone else already called the police

Pluralistic Ignorance

majority of group members privately reject a norm, but incorrectly assume that most others accept it, and therefore go along with it.

Study on subway of effects of bleeding

Ex of cost of helping people on subway - guy collapses and is either bleeding or not - when he was bleeding people were LESS likely to help (65%) when not bleeding more likely (90%)

Beach Study

Someone asked a stranger to watch their radio - theft was staged, more likely to help when specially asked to watch radio because you feel personally responsible

JKO Sexual Assault Prevention and Response

1. Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?

EOA

2. What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?

Chain of Command

3. What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity?

DEOMI

4. Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication? (Page 5)

Reprisal

5. Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment?

Reasonable Person Standard

6. How many years will CMEO Managers maintain CMEO record files?

3

7. Which center function as the Navy's equal opportunity training manager and develops the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels?

CPPD

8. Within how many days of assuming command will Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate?

90

9. Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment?

RED

10. How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must commands conduct a follow-up debrief?

30-45

Sexual Assault

Intentional sexual contact characterized by the use of force, threats, intimidation or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent.

Sexual Harassment

Unwelcome sexual advances, request for sexual favors and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.

Individual Level sexual Assault Effects

a. Depression
b. Eating Disorder
c. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
d. Self Harm
e. Sleep Disturbance
f. Substance Abuse
g. Suicide

Unit Level Sexual Assault Effects

A. Unsafe conditions
B. Inability to focus
C. Recruiting and Retention issues

CDC 3 Levels of Prevention

A. Primary Prevention
B. Secondary Prevention
C. Tertiary Prevention

Primary Prevention

Approaches that take place before sexual violence has occurred to prevention initial perpetration.

Secondary Prevention

Immediate responses after sexual violence has occurred to address the early identification of victims and the short term contract sequences of violence.

Tertiary Prevention

Long term responses after sexual violence has occurred to address the lasting consequences of violence and sex offender treatment interventions.

DoD approach to prevention

A. Prevention
B. Investigation
C. Accountability
D. Advocacy/Victim Assistance
E. Assessment

Unrestricted Reporting

A. Command and law Enforcement are notified
B. An investigation is initiated
C. Legal proceedings usually follows if there is sufficient evidence
D. A SARC will be notified
E. Victim is offered Healthcare treatment and a sexual Assault forensic exam kit

Restricted Reporting

Must be reported to the SARC, SAPR VA, or Healthcare personnel.

. What coordinates any sexual assault that occurs within a domestic relationship or involves child abuse? (Page 3)

FAP

1. What is victim misconduct that might be in time, place, or circumstance associated with the victim's sexual assault incident? (Page 1)

Collateral misconduct

2. What are the words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct at issue by a competent person are defined as? (Page 1)

Consent

3. What is the emergency non-clinical care aimed at assisting victims to alleviate any potential negative consequences by providing safety assessments and connecting the victims to needed resources? (Page 2)

Crisis intervention

4. Which Department of Defense (DoD) database captures uniform data that is provided by Military Services and maintains all sexual assault data collected by the Military Services? (Page 2)

Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID)

5. What is the agency that processes PCS or PCA's for expedited transfers for the Navy? (Page 3)

Bureau of Naval Personnel

6. What type of situation requires immediate intervention to prevent the loss of life, limb, sight, or body tissue to prevent undue suffering? (Page 3)

Emergency

7. What are the actions taken referred to as that are used to resolve the reported sexual assault incident, document case outcome, and address the misconduct by the alleged perpetrator, as appropriate? (Page 3)

Final disposition

8. What type of information includes those facts and circumstances surrounding the sexual assault incident or that information about the individual that enables the identity of the individual to remain anonymous? (Page 5)

Non-personally identifiable

9. What is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action, or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a Service member for making, preparing, or receiving a communication? (Page 5)

Reprisal

10. What serves as the DoD's single point of authority, accountability, and oversight for the SAPR program? (Page 6)

Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Office (SAPRO)

11. Who provides liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters and reports directly to the SARC when performing victim advocacy duties on behalf of the sexual assault victim? (Page 6)

SAPR VA

12. What is defined as intentional sexual contact that is characterized by the use of force, threats, intimidation, or the abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent? (Page 7)

Sexual assault

13. What is defined as any person who suffers direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of the commission of a sexual assault? (Page 7)

Victim

1. Who serves as the Department of the Navy representative to the DoD Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Integrated Process Team (IPT)? (Page 1)

DON-SAPRO

2. At least how many key milestones of Service-level sexual assault victim support processes are identified by the DON-SAPRO in coordination with Service representatives? (Page 1)

Four

3. How many full-time SARCs at a minimum shall be assigned to each brigade or equivalent unit level of the Navy and Marine Corps? (Page 2)

One

4. Only members of the Armed Forces and civilian employees of the Department of Defense may be assigned to duty as a SARC as of what date? (Page 2)

October 1st, 2013

5. Who ensures that all Department of the Navy (DON) military and civilian healthcare personnel, including those not assigned to Medical Treatment Facilities (MTFs), receive SAPR training? (Page 5)

CHBUMED

6. How many reporting options do sexual assault victims have? (Page 9)

2

7. Which type of sexual assault reporting is favored by the Department of Defense (DoD) and the Department of the Navy (DON) as it improves the command's ability to support victims and enables criminal investigations? (Page 9)

Unrestricted

Enclosure 4

1. Which sexual assault reporting option is only available to service members and adult military dependents? (Page 2)

Restricted

2. The DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation along with what else prohibit the improper disclosure of confidential communications or improper release of medical information? (Page 4)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

3. Sexual assault victims must take advantage of the Restricted Reporting option before whom is informed of the investigation? (Page 5)

SARC

4. Within how many hours of an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault will SARCs provide sexual assault victims installation commanders with all information regarding unrestricted reports? (Page 6)

24

5. The time that the SARC has to provide the installation commander of sexual assault victims with information regarding all Unrestricted Reports may be extended by the commander to how many hours after the Unrestricted Report of the incident when there are extenuating circumstances in deployed environments? (Page 6)

48

6. How many years are DD Form 2910's stored as an electronic record in the Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID) from the date the victim signed it? (Page 10)

50

7. Which instruction contains guidance on the retention for the "DoD Sexual Assault Forensic Examination (SAFE) Report" (DD Form 2911)? (Page 10)

DoD Instruction 5505.18

8. How many years will the SARC retain a hard copy of the Restricted Report DD Form 2910? (Page 10)

5

9. How many years will the SAFE Kit, which includes the DD Form 2911 or civilian forensic examination report, if available, be retained for? (Page 10)

5

1. Within how many days of taking command shall each commander meet with the SARC for one-on-one SAPR training? (Page 1)

30

2. Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault unrestricted report must the SARC update the installation commander? (Page 1)

24

3. How often must Commanders provide victims of a sexual assault who filed an Unrestricted Report updates? (Page 3)

Monthly

4. Who will the Commander of the Service member who is a subject of a sexual assault allegation immediately provide in writing all disposition data, to include any administrative or judicial action taken, stemming from the sexual assault investigation to? (Page 4)

MCIO

5. What do SARCs have to have a favorable check from to be permitted access to enter sexual assault reports into DSAID? (Page 5)

National Agency Check (NAC)

6. What are used to enhance communications and the sharing of information regarding sexual assault prosecutions, as well as of the sexual assault care and forensic examinations that involve Service members and eligible TRICARE beneficiaries? (Page 6)

MOA's/MOU's

7. Who may order a member of a Reserve Component who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before the LOD determination is made to be retained on active duty until completion of the LOD determination upon request of the member? (Page 8)

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

8. How many days from the date of the request by a member of a Reserve Component to continue on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before the LOD determination is made, or to be ordered to active duty, respectively, be decided within? (Page 8)

30

9. If the request submitted by a member of a Reserve Component to continue on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before the LOD determination is made is denied, the member may appeal to the first General Officer or Flag Officer in the chain of command of the member, and in the case of such an appeal a decision on the appeal must be made within how many days from the date of the appeal? (Page 8)

15

10. Which form must the service member fill out to affirmatively change his or her reporting option to Unrestricted Reporting in order to be eligible for an expedited transfer if the Service member originally filed a Restricted Report and requests an expedited transfer? (Page 9)

DD Form 2910

11. Within how many hours from the CO's receipt of a Service member's request who have filed an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault to request a temporary or permanent expedited transfer from their assigned command or installation, or to a different location within their assigned command or installation do they have to approve or disapprove the request? (Page 10)

72

12. What is one of the most significant barriers to reporting assault because of the victim's fear of punishment? (Page 14)

Collateral misconduct

13. The initial disposition authority is withheld from all commanders within the DON who do not possess at least special court-martial convening authority and who are not in the what grade or higher, with respect to the alleged offenses of rape, sexual assault, forcible sodomy, and all attempts to commit such offenses, in violation of Articles 120, 125, and 80 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)? (Page 14)

O-6

1. Who serves as the single point of contact to coordinate sexual assault response when a sexual assault is reported? (Page 1)

SARC

2. Gender-responsive, culturally-competent, along with what else should SARC's sexual assault responses incorporate? (Page 2)

Recovery-oriented

3. How many years will hard copies of the DD Form 2910 be retained in the Restricted Reports? (Page 3)

5

4. How many years will the DD Form 2910 as well as the DD Form 2911's filed in connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the request of a service member? (Page 3)

50

5. Within how many hours of receiving an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault must the SARC or SAPR VA provide the installation commander with information regarding the Unrestricted Report? (Page 4)

24

6. At least how often will the SARC or SAPR VA facilitate SAPR training? (Page 5)

Annually

7. Which form will be used to document a sexual assault victims consent in writing to transfer case management documents when a sexual assault victim has a temporary or permanent change of station or is deployed? (Page 6)

DD Form 2910

8. Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault report must SARCs enter information into DSAID either through direct data entry or by Military Service DSAID interface? (Page 7)

48

9. An extension of how many hours can be granted to SARCs who are in deployed locations that have internet connectivity issues to enter sexual assault information into DSAID either through direct data entry by SARCs or by Military Service DSAID interface? (Page 7)

96

10. Who serves as the CMG co-chair? (Page 7)

Installation SARC

1. Who establishes the minimum standards of medical treatment for victims of sexual assault based on the requirements outlined in the Department of Justice National Protocol? (Page 1)

CHBUMED

2. Which form will the sexual assault victim be provided with a hard copy of upon completion of the SAFE Kit? (Page 3)

DD Form 2911

1. How many years from the date of the victim's Restricted Report of the sexual assault will any evidence along with the SAFE Kit be stored for? (Page 3)

5

2. How long after the sexual assault restricted report must the SARC contact the victim to inquire whether they wish to change their reporting option to unrestricted? (Page 3)

One year

3. How many years will the DD Forms 2910 and 2911 that are filed in connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the request of the victim? (Page 3)

50

4. How many business days do SARCs have to provide sexual assault victims copies of their DD Form 2910 and/or DD Form 2911 upon request? (Page 4)

7

5. At least how many days before the expiration of the 5-year sexual assault restricted report storage period will a NCIS Consolidated Evidence Facility representative notify the installation SARC that the storage period is about to expire and confirm with the SARC that the victim has not made a request to change to Unrestricted Reporting or made a request for any personal effects? (Page 4)

30

1. How often will the installation commander or the deputy installation commander chair the Case Management Group (CMG) to review individual sexual assault cases? (Page 1)

Monthly

2. Within how many business days of the final disposition decision will the Case Management Group (CMG) chair require that case dispositions are communicated to the sexual assault victim? (Page 2)

Two

3. Within what time frame will the Case Management Group (CMG) chair require that the appropriate paperwork (pursuant to Service regulation) for sexual assault case dispositions are submitted for each case disposition? (Page 2)

24 hours

4. Within how many hours of the last Case Management Group (CMG) must the victim's commander confirm at the CMG that the victim has received a monthly update from the victim's commander of her/his case? (Page 4)

72

5. Within how many hours of being activated will the High-Risk sexual assault Response Team make their first report to the installation commander, CMG chair, and CMG co-chair? (Page 5)

24

6. How often at a minimum will briefings occur for the CMG chair and co-chair while the sexual assault victim is on a high-risk status? (Page 5)

Weekly

1. Which topic must be incorporated into SAPR training? (Page 1)

Adult learning theory

2. Within how many days of returning from deployment should post-deployment reintegration training occur? (Page 5)

30

3. How often at a minimum will military recruiter sexual assault training occur? (Page 6)

Annually

4. Which form must be completed after healthcare personnel receive a sexual assault restricted report and immediately call a SARC or SAPR VA? (Page 12)

DD Form 2910

1. What serves as the centralized, case-level database for the collection and maintenance of information regarding sexual assaults? (Page 1)

Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID)

2. Which Office of Management and Budget control number has DSAID been assigned? (Page 1)

0704-0482

1. Who submits the annual Fiscal Year (FY) reports to Congress on sexual assaults that involve military service members? (Page 1)

USD (P&R)

2. Which Report Control Symbol has been assigned by the Defense Manpower Data Center (DMDC) for the MSA Sexual Assault Survey? (Page 2)

DD-P&R(A) 2198

What office handles Sexual Harassment?

Equal Opportunity Office

What is sexual discrimination that involved unwelcome sexual advances defined as?

Sexual Harassment

What is a request for sexual factors defined as?

Sexual Harassment

What is conduct that includes anything of a sexual nature that explicitly or implicitly used as a condition of pay/career, or could interfere with a persons work?

Sexual Harassment

Who handles Sexual Assault?

SAPR Office

What is intentional sexual CONTACT defined as?

Sexual Assault

Sexual contact that involves force, physical threat, or abuse of authority is defined as?

Sexual Assault

What happens when a victim cannot or does not give consent?

Sexual Assault

The progression where unchecked sexual harassment turns into an act of sexual assault?

Continuum of Harm

What is words or overt acts that indicate a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct from a competent person?

Consent

Reporting that involves no immediate investigation and command involvement?

Restricted Reporting

Which agencies are entitled to restricted reporting?

SAPR
On-Base medical providers Chaplains
Special Victims Council

SAPR Office must report what?

Intentions to commit suicide/homicide
Things that involve a child
Domestic violence

What will not be reported with a restricted report through the SAPR office? (Exceptions to Restricted Reports)

Underage drinking
adultery

What happens when an unrestricted report is initiated?

An immediate investigation ensues from OSI

Who can receive assistance with filing an unrestricted report?

Any adult with base access

What are the responses to trauma?

Fight
Flight
Freeze

Which agencies keep restricted reports restricted?

SAPR Office
On-base

JKO Age Discrimination

age discrimination in employment act (1967)

employers with 20 of more employees; protects individuals 40 yrs and over; protects older from discrimination in favor of younger; no protection for those under 40

disparate treatment

member of protected class; adverse employment action; doing job to meet employer's expectations; significantly younger workers treated more favorably

employer defenses

age as bona fide occupational qualification (rarely legal); reasonable factor other than age

ADEA implications of downsizing

many employees over the age of 40; organizations often offer early retirement incentives; organizations often ask early retirees to sign 'waivers' protecting Er from lawsuit;

guidelines for ADEA waivers

be in writing and understandable; specifically refer to ADEA rights or claims; not waive rights or claims that may arise in the future; be in exchange fro individual in writing to consult an attorney before signing the waiver; and provide the individual at least 21 days to consider the agreement and at least seven days to revoke the agreement after signing it

disparate impact claims

ex: visions acuity, strength, reaction time tests, pay policies, layoff policies; employers defense - reasonable factor other than age

age discrimination defined

- treating applicants or employees less favorably because of age
- harassment because of age also prohibited
- retaliation for fling a charge or opposing age discrimination practices

reasons why this happens

employer perceptions that older workers are:
- harder to train
- less nimble and slower
- more expensive
- overqualified and will leave for something better
- too rigid and less adaptable to change
- too attached to family (more sick & vacation days)
- tough to place under younger managers
*age discrimination transcends all protected classes

reasons why seasoned workers may be better

- institutional knowledge
- experience
- patience and coping skills
- deal with stress better
- suffer less injuries
- less intimidated
- more dedicated because of family

statistics

# of filed cases increasing:
1997 cases = 15,785
2015 cases = 20,144

ADEA of 1967

- protects applicants and employees 40 or over
- 20 or more employees (including federal, state, and local governments)
- age of person discriminating does not matter (can be over 40)
- 180 days to file a charge with the EEOC (45 days for federal employees)
- no reverse age discrimination, even if younger person is above 40 (some states prohibit this as well)

disparate treatment McDonnell Douglas framework

- must first prove a prima facie case
- burden of proof shifts to the defendant
- plaintiff argues pretext

prima facie case

1. P member of protected class
2. P was otherwise qualifed
3. P suffered adverse action
4. D hired people outside of class to fll P's position

employer defenses

D had legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason (failure to maintain records)

pretext

1. P's reason not real reason
2. Real reason was age discrimination

types of discrimination

- intentional (disparate treatment)
- unintentional (disparate impact - facially neutral policy that adversely affects older workers)

Reeves v. Sanderson case

prima facie case:
1. P is over 40
2. P worked for years
3. P left the company
4. D hired 3 people in their 30s
employer defenses:
- D had legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason (failure to maintain records)
pretext:
- P claims records were kept accurately (time clock malfunctioned)

what not to do

- ask for applicants date of birth
- give requirements for applicants' graduation date in advertisements

digital natives

today's students who have grown up using new technology

digital immigrants

today's older population who must learn to use this new technology

advertisements favoring senior

- are allowed because there is no reverse age discrimination

ADEA exceptions

- BFOQ
- RFOA
- BFSS
- BFFBP
- BF executives
- good cause

BFOQ

- bona fide occupational qualification
- age limit reasonably necessary to essence of the business
- pointless to examine on an individual basis (substantially all people above the set age are unable to perform job duties)
- defense is limited in scope/application
- bus drivers, pilots, cops, firefighters

RFOA

- reasonable factor other than age
- only for disparate impact cases
- employer had a non age factor for the adverse action
- that is objectively reasonable from the position of a prudent employer mindful of its ADEA duties
- employers don't have to find non-discriminatory alternative or justify it with business necessity
- larger raises to lower tier employees to bring those salaries in line with other employees
- police dept. requires applicants for patrol positions to pass a physical fitness test

BFSS

- bona fide seniority system
- must be based on length of service
- must be communicated to all and applied fairly to all
- system can't be created to avoid the ADEA
- system can't require someone over 40 to retire

BFEBP

- bona fide employee benefit plan
- must be accurately described to all employees
- benefits must be accorded according to the plan
- system can't be created to avoid the ADEA
- can't force but can encourage employees to retire via the plan

BF executives

- bona fide executives
- employee is at least 65 years old
- employee must have been employed for the previous 2 years in an executive or high policy making job
- employee must be entitled to an immediate, non-forfeitable retirement of not less than $44,000 a year
- compulsory retirement allowed
- college President, CEO, executive VP of a bank

good cause

- reason unrelated to age
- back to at-will principles
- must treat employees similarly

exhaust administrative remedies

- file a claim with the EEOC (or state/local EEO office)
- 180 days to file with the EEOC
- P can sue 60 days later (don't have to wait for the
right to sue letter; time encourages settlement)
- but P can't wait more than 90 days after receiving a right to sue letter
- ADEA allows for a jury trial (EEOC suit supersedes an
individual claim)

remedies

back pay, front pay, compensatory damages, punitive damages, liquidated damages, other remedies

back pay

- payment for work done in the past that was withheld at the time, or for work that could have been done had the worker not been prevented from doing so
- salary, overtime, raises, bonuses, fringe benefits, COL increases, commissions
- P has duty to mitigate

front pay

- money awarded for lost compensation between judgment and reinstatement
- in addition to back pay
- look to P's age
- look to reasonable time for P to find comparable job
- look to time P worked for employer
- look to time similar employees had worked for employer
- no front pay if P failed to accept reasonable reinstatement offer
- no front pay if P's misconduct discovered
- P has duty to mitigate

compensatory damages

- a sum of money awarded in a civil action by a court to indemnify a person for the particular loss, detriment, or injury suffered as a result of the unlawful conduct of another
- designed to replace what was lost (nothing more)
- P must have suffered legally recognizable harm
- compensable by a certain amount of money (capped based on employer size)
- objectively determinable by judge or jury
- does not limit front pay

punitive damages

- monetary compensation awarded to an injured party that goes beyond that which is necessary to compensate the individual for losses and that is intended to punish the wrongdoer
- designed to punish D
- deterrent to future, similar acts
- beyond what is necessary to make P whole

liquidated damages

- monetary compensation for a loss, detriment, or injury to a person or person's rights or property, awarded by a court judgment or by a contract stipulation regarding breach of contract
- age discrimination must be willful
- employer knew, or showed reckless disregard to fact that conduct was prohibited
- up to the amount of back pay ordered
- generally available as contract terms
- occur when injury is hard to quantify
- must be reasonable, otherwise seen as a penalty
- must be awarded as soon as willfulness found

other remedies

- injunctions
- scored tests and edu requirements
- height and weight requirements
- make whole remedies
- promotions
- reinstatement
- hiring
- retroactive seniority
- attorney's fees

older workers benefit protection act of 1990

- amends the ADEA
- prohibits employers from denying fringe benefits to older employees because of cost
- cost of providing benefits to older workers can be more expensive
- must provide equal benefits to older and younger workers
- exception when age based reductions in benefits are justified by significant cost considerations

waivers

- you promise not to sue if you are let go (but not file an EEOC charge)
- must not be coercive and recommend attorney (voluntary)
- must offer something of value (consideration)
- must be in plain english (knowing)
- must list ages and job titles of all laid off
- must specify ADEA rights waived and future rights unaffected
- must be given at least 21 days to sign
- 45 days if presented to a group of employees
- 7 days to revoke your decision

Oubre v. Energy Operations case

- P worked as scheduler in power plant
- received a poor review and took severance option
- promised not to sue and received $6258
- release didn't comply with OWBPA
- P didn't get enough time (only 14 days)
- release made no mention of claims under ADEA
- P didn't get the proper time to revoke (7 days)
- release doesn't bar suit as it doesn't comply with OWBPA
- P may have to give back the money later but not to sue

after acquiring evidence or mixed motive cases

- employer fires someone based on age
- and then discovers that person violated policy (stole documents, lied, etc.)
- P may still sue
- there are now fewer remedies available, however
- backpay may only be awarded from the time of the age discrimination to the time the employer discovered the wrong

arbitration

- employer and employee enter into arbitration agreement
- employee then alleges discrimination based on
age
- dispute must be submitted to arbitration
- EEOC suit may still go forward in court too
- federal arbitration act and strong policy favoring arbitration

equitable relief

-relief that is not in the form of money damages, such as injunctions, reinstatement, and promotion

problems with RiFs

-employers generally do not retain intricate written analyses of performance
-managers and supervisors will likely evaluate an employee as compared to other employees
-the employer may make a decision based on some factor other than performance

As a result of the fact that Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 had been amended in 1991 to include "motivating factor" language but that the ADEA (Age Discrimination in Employment Act) had not, the U.S. Supreme Court said that?

-no burden shifting occurs in ADEA cases.

Under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, a firm may only offer different benefits to older and younger workers if it costs a significant amount more to provide those benefits to older workers.

-true

"Same Actor Defense"

-Same "actor" both hires and fires a worker - permissible inference that the employee's age was not a motivating factor in the decision; ADEA not Title VII

JKO Disability Awareness

ADHD

Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder

Autism

a disorder that appears in childhood and is marked by deficient communication, social interaction, and understanding of others' states of mind

Communication disorders

conditions involving impairment in language, speech, and communication

Deafness

general term for partial or complete loss of hearing

Visual impairment

a difficulty in seeing that may include blindness or partial sightedness

Down Syndrome

a condition of intellectual disability and associated physical disorders caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.

Bipolar disorder

A mood disorder in which the person alternates between the hopelessness and lethargy of depression and the overexcited state of mania.

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

disease of the central nervous system characterized by the demyelination (deterioration of the myelin sheath) of nerve fibers, with episodes of neurologic dysfunction (exacerbation) followed by recovery (remission)

PTSD (Post Traumatic Stress Disorder)

an anxiety disorder characterized by haunting memories, nightmares, social withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, and/or insomnia that lingers for four weeks or more after a traumatic experience

Asthma

A chronic allergic disorder characterized by episodes of severe breathing difficulty, coughing, and wheezing.

Blindness

The absence of sight

Schizophrenia

A severe disorder characterized by disorganized and delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions and inappropriate emotions and actions

Dyslexia

impairment of the ability to read by mixing up letters

Anxiety disorder

psychological disorder characterized by distressing, persistent anxiety or maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety

Diabetes

A condition in which the body is unable to produce enough insulin, the hormone required for the metabolism of sugar

Cognitive Disability

a condition characterized by significantly below average intelligence and limitations in daily life functions; appears before the age of 18

Intellectual disability

a condition of limited mental ability

Physical disability

a condition that limits a person's ability to use part of his or her body

Voice of Care

an organization that helps congregation members reach out and be inclusive of people with disabilities.

Lutheran Braille Workers

an organization that seeks to provide Bibles and other church books, written in Braille, to people with limited or no sight.

Mill Neck Services

an organization that provides services for the deaf community. They also help congregations in their services.

People with disabilities

are people like me with feelings, hopes and dreams.

People with disabilities

Were created by God and are loved by God.

How are we made?

Fearfully and wonderfully, Psalm 139:13-16

Everyone has a place in the Body of Christ

Ephesians 2:10

Do the people have disabilities because the parents sinned?

No! John 9:1-5

deaf

cannot hear

walking stick

a stick some people use to help them to walk

blind

unable to see

hard of hearing

not able to hear well

wheelchair

a movable chair mounted on large wheels

crutches

sticks to put under the arms to help a person walk

prosthetic leg

artificial leg

amputate

to cut off a body part, especially by surgery

ramp

a slanted walk or roadway that connects a lower to a higher place

tactile paving

raised surfaces that provide guidance to blind people

dumb

unable to speak; mute

obstacle

something that gets in the way

sign language

communication by means of manual signs

white cane

a stick assisting the blind

guide dog

dog that leads a blind person

braille dots

special symbol characters for the blind

Learning Styles

The different ways people naturally think and learn

Cognitive Domain

An area of development that involves patterns of change in children's intellectual abilities, including reasoning, learning, attention, memory, and language skills.

Affective Domain

Attitudinal and emotional areas of learning, such as values and feelings.

Multiple Intelligences (Gardner)

The hypothesis that intelligence consists not of one underlying ability but of many different abilities.

Howard Gardener

multiple intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, intrapersonal, interpersonal, bodily-kinesthetic, naturalist intelligence

emotional intelligence quotient

is a measure of a person's ability to manage emotions in leadership and social relationships

Exceptional Learners

Students who are gifted, talented, or have special needs, such as a disability, and need, or can benefit from, programs matched to their abilities and potential.

Special Education

Programs that address the needs of students with mental, emotional, or physical disabilities.

Individual with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)

Federal law that dictates structure of schools to serve the educational needs of students with disabilities

Non-discriminatory education

The principle on the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments of the U.S. Constitution, mandates that children with disabilities be fairly assessed, so that they can be protected from inappropriate classification and tracking.

Appropriate Education

Every student has a right to an Individualized Education Plan. This plan is to assure specified outcomes for the student, namely equal opportunity, full participation, independent living, and economic self-sufficiency and, while in school, access to the general curriculum and, where appropriate, advanced placement courses or a vocational educational program. Least restrictive environment: This principle guarantees that a child will be educated with same-age peers in the general curriculum to the maximum extent possible

Least Restrictive Environment

the setting that is most similar to that of children without special needs

Individualized Education Program (IEP)

A program tailored to the needs of a learner with exceptionalities.

Assistive Technology

item or piece of equipment that maintains or improves functional capabilities for students with disabilities

Differentiated Instruction

Practice of individualizing instructional methods, and possibly also individualizing specific content and instructional goals, to align with each student's existing knowledge, skills, and needs.

Disability

A physical or mental condition that limits a person

Autism Spectrum Disorder

A person with a disability that is behavioral, social, and/or developmental.

Deaf or Hard of Hearing

A person with hearing loss ranging from mild to profound

Developmentally Delayed (ages 0-5)

A child that develops slower than their average peers.

Dual Sensory Impaired

Affecting both hearing and vision

Emotional or Behavioral Disability

Inability to understand their emotions and behave appropriately in a variety of settings.

Gifted

Having exceptional talent and natural ability.

Language Impaired

A person who has difficulty understanding or using spoken or written language.

Orthopedically Impaired

Something different or abnormal on the outside of the body.

Other Health Impaired

Ongoing or serious health problems that limit strength and alertness.

Intellectual Disability

A person with significant limitations in learning and life skills. Originates before the age of 18.

Specific Learning Disability

A disorder in learning or mastering one or more academic skills in comparison with others the same age.

Speech Impaired

A person who is unable to communicate effectively.

Traumatic Brain Injury

Damage to the brain caused by a violent blow or jolt to the head.

Visually Impaired

Low or severe reduction in vision that can not be repaired with standard glasses or contact lenses.

Disability awareness helps _____ _____ so that responsible, self sufficient people with _____ can assume risks, makes choices and contribute as they wish

Remove barriers
Disabilites

What percentage of officers encounter persons with disabilities during the course of their duties

Includes mental illness

50%-80%

Lack of _____ can lead to lawsuits, unwarranted _____ or death

Awareness

Arrests

A person with a disability is _____ times more likely to be the victim of a crime

Seven

Low Vision/ Blind

Low Vision: persons with _____ difficulty seeing with one or two eyes. Even while wearing glasses

Some

Low Vision/ Blind

Legally Blind: _____ or less in the good eye or central vision less than _____ degrees of visual field

20/200

20

Low Vision/ Blind

Blind: having less than _____ normal Vision or _____ vision

1/10

No

When dealing with people with low Vision or blindness it is always important to _____ _____ properly

Identify yourself

Rules for interacting with the blind:

Identify yourself by letting them:

1. Feel your _____
2. Feel your _____
3. Hear _____

1. Badge
2. Handcuffs
3. Dispatch

Rules for interacting with the blind:

1. Speak _____ to the person
2. Don't talk _____ them
3. Use natural _____ tone
4. Use natural conversational _____
5. Don't use _____ terms (honey, sweetheart)
6. Address them by _____ when possible especially if the conversation involves _____ people
7. Immediately _____ people who are blind when you enter a room

1. Directly
2. About
3. Conversational
4. Speed
5. Demeaning
6. Name / multiple
7. Greet

Rules for interacting with the blind:

8. Indicate the _____ of the conversation
9. Feel free to use visual _____ words
10. Be _____ and _____ when you describe things
11. Be _____
12. Use _____ descriptive language
13. Indicate _____ landmarks
14. Ask if _____ is needed. Don't assume it is though

8. End
9. Oriented
10. Precise and through
11. Specific
12. Visually
13. Textile
14. Assistance

Service animals:

What are the only two service animals authorized by the American Disabilities Act (ADA)

Dog and miniature horse

_____: anybody who uses sign language

Signer

_____: Anybody who has been through the official 13 month training and is certified and credentialed. Only ones that are able to be used for a serious crime or in court

Interpreter

_____ _____: The reading of lips and using body language. Always ensure to face the person and keep objects away from your mouth

Speech Reading

Some of the tactics that have been proven not to work when interacting with a person who is deaf or blind:

1. _____ on paper. Passing notes
2. Using _____ expressions
3. ______ to people
4. Use of _____ exchange communication
5. Using _____/_____ response

1. Writing
2. Facial
3. Pointing
4. Picture
5. Yes/no

As per policy and best practice, always use an ______ for investigations interviews and during court

Interpreter

When to request an interpreter:

When conducting a ______ Investigation, during _____ proceedings

You don't have to request an interpreter for ______ offenses such as traffic

Criminal / court
Non-criminal

Two types of physical disabilities:

1. Ambulation Challenge (movement)
2. Communication.

Communication disability challenges:

1. Don't assume they have a _____ _____
2. Don't ______ from wheelchair
3. Show ______, talk at _____ level
4. Some ______ ______ signs can appear to be intoxication

1. Cognitive disability
2. Remove
3. Respect / eye
4. Cerebral Palsy (sometimes referred to as CP)

JKO Radio Wave Propagation Overview

Radiation

The process where waves and energy particles travel through free space

Emission

The process of intentionally releasing radiation

Wave velocity

The velocity of EM waves depends on the medium where it travels

Wave velocity

It travels fastest at free space.

Frequency

The number of cycles an electromagnetic wave completes in one second

Wavelength

The distance that the radio wave travels in the time of one cycle

Polarization

This refers to the physical orientation of the E field on space

Linear Polarization

E field has a particular direction in space

Circular Polarization

E field is rotating about the axis of the direction of propagation

Elliptical Polarization

similar to circular polarization except that E and H are unequal

Random Polarization

No fixed pattern

Ray

A line drawn along the direction of propagation of the wave

Wavefront

A surface of constant phase of the wave

Intrinsic Characteristic Impedance

The definite ratio between the electric field intensity and magnetic field intensity (For free space: 120π or 377 ohms)

Power Density

Rate at which energy flows through a unit area of surface in space

Inverse Square Law

states that power density is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source

Electric Field Intensity

The amount of voltage that will be induced by an electromagnetic wave at a specific location

Electric Field Intensity

It is directly proportional to the square root of the power density and inversely proportional to the distance from the source.

Refraction

The bending of a radio wave as it passes from one medium to another at an angle

Refraction

Changing of direction and speed of an EM wave as it passes from one medium to another.

Index of refraction

The ratio of the speed of radio wave in free space to speed of the radio wave in a specific medium.

Index of refraction

Dependent on the material and the number of electrons in a given medium

Refraction

The degree of bending of a wave at boundaries increases with frequency

Reflection

Occurs when an incident wave strikes the boundary of two media and some or all of the incident power does not enter the second material

Reflection coefficient

Ratio of the electric intensity of the reflected wave to that of the incident wave

Diffuse reflection

Reflection at irregular and rough surfaces

Specular reflection

Also called mirrorlike reflection Reflection at very smooth surfaces

Rayleigh criterion

States that a semirough surface will reflect as if it were a smooth surface if the cosine of the angle of incidence is greater than λ/8d

Diffraction

Redistribution of energy within a wavefront when it passes near the edge of an opaque object

Diffraction

It allows secondary waves to sneak around the corner of an obstacle into what is called the shadow zone.

Huygens' principle

The principle that any point on a wavefront of light may be regarded as the source of secondary waves.

Interference

Occurs when two waves that left one source and travelled by different paths arrive at a point

Terrestrial Propagation

Propagation of radio waves within the Earth's atmosphere between two or more points in the Earth's surface

Ground Wave Propagation

A ground wave is an Earth-guided electromagnetic wave that travels over the surface of the Earth

Ground Wave Propagation

It follows contour of the earth and given enough transmit power, it can communicate between any two locations in the world.

Tilting

As the ground waves move away from the source, it can experience _______ and eventually disappear

Sky Wave Propagation

Also called ionospheric propagation

Sky Wave Propagation

Strikes the ionosphere and is reflected back to the ground

Troposphere

Lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather disturbances take place

Stratosphere

Also called isothermal region because of its constant temperature

Ionosphere

Ionized layers and low - density gas are found

D-Layer

The lowest layer of the ionosphere

D-Layer

Ionization begins at sunrise, peaks at local noon and disappears at sundown

E-Layer

Ionization peaks at midday

E-Layer

Also called the Kennelly - Heaviside layer

F-Layer

During daytime, it is divided into F1 and F2 layers

F-Layer

Responsible for HF wave propagation

Critical Frequency

The highest frequency that will be returned down to the earth when beamed vertically upward

Critical Frequency

Measured by the process of ionospheric sounding

Maximum Usable Frequency

The highest frequency that will be returned down to the earth at a given distance when beamed at a specific angle other than the normal

Optimum Working Frequency

The frequency that gives the most consistent communication

Optimum Working Frequency

It is chosen to avoid irregularities of the ionosphere

Optimum Working Frequency

Also called FOT, in French (Frequence optimum de travail)

Optimum Working Frequency

It is chosen to be 15% lower than the MUF

Virtual Height

It is the apparent height of the ionized layer and measured by sending a wave vertically to the layer and measuring the time it takes to come back at the receiver

Skip Zone

The area that is between the outer limit of the ground wave range and the inner edge of the energy of return from the ionosphere

Skip Distance

The distance between the originating site and the beginning of the atmospheric return

Space Wave Propagation

Also called the Line - Of - Sight (LOS)

Radio Horizon

The boundary line beyond which direct rays of the radio waves cannot be propagated over the earth's surface.

Radio Horizon

4/3 time greater than the optical horizon

JKO Navy Modernization Program Overview (CUI)

EXPLAIN the Navy Modernization Program (NMP).

designed to prevent unauthorized and non-supported alterations from being installed on
Navy ships.

DEFINE the mission of the Navy Modernization Program (NMP).

provide a disciplined process to deliver operational and technical modifications to the Fleet in the most operationally effective and cost efficient way.

What are the two types of Ship Changes (SC)?

Program Changes and Fleet Changes

This change is programmed for installation by SYSCOMs or PEOs, as well as funded for
accomplishment by the SYSCOMs, PEOs or other organizations as agreed upon.

Program Changes

This change is programmed and budgeted as part of TYCOM Ship Maintenance funding. Fleet changes typically address safety of personnel and/or equipment, provide increased efficiency, reliability, or maintainability, and generally do not increase or add new capability.

Fleet Changes

*** What is the single authorized document for all
Ship Changes.

SHIP CHANGE DOCUMENTS (SCD).

What are the 4 processes involved in a Ship Change (SC).

1. SHIP CHANGE DOCUMENTS (SCD).
2. DRAWING PREPARATION
3. INTEGRATED LOGISTICS SUPPORT (ILS).
4. SHIPS CHANGE IMPLEMENTATION.

What are the 6 Ordnance Alteration (ORDALT).

1. ORDALT INSTRUCTION
2. CHANGE
3. REVISION
4. NEW (SUPERSEDING) ORDALT INSTRUCTION.
5. TECHNICAL DOCUMENTATION
6. LATENT DEFECTS

DISCUSS the procedures for accomplishing an Ordnance Alteration (ORDALT).

(NAVSEACENLANT/PAC) have respective overall
responsibility for providing material and supervising installation of ORDALTs beyond Forces Afloat
capability,

INDICATE who is responsible for assignment of Ordnance Alteration (ORDALT) instruction numbers.

What activity prepares a memorandum to SEA 06D2G1 requesting the assignment of an
ORDALT number?

The Configuration Control Board Secretrait

ref
NAVY MODERNIZATION PROGRAM

1. Introduction to Navy Modernization Process Management and Operations Manual (NMP-MOM),
NAVSEA SL720-AA-MAN-030
2. Ordnance Alteration (ORDALT) Instruction Control Procedures, NAVSEAINST 4130.6C

Define Modernization and Maintenance and Repair

Mod: improve capability

Maint: ship can continue operating at current design reliability and performance characteristics

Repair: returns a ship to current design design reliability/performance characteristics

Goals of NMP

-improve capabilities/material condition

-improve safety, reliability, habitability, and environmental compliance of ships/equipment

-increase Fleet Readiness by improving STANDARDIZATIONwithin classes.

Who funds Depot-Level Legacy Alts?

SYSCOMs (K-Alts) & TYCOMs (D-Alts)

O/I-Level:

SYSCOM= KP Alts
TYCOM = F-Alts

Under Legacy system, who prepares and approves SARs (ShipAlt Records)
?

-Preparation = Planning Yard

-Approval = SPM (Ship Program Manager)

Who funds Fleet and Program Ship Alts or Ship Changes? (under the NMP system)

TYCOM funds FLEET Ship Alts

PMO funds PROGRAM Ship Alts

Who initiates an SCD- Ship Change Document?

Anyone with an NDE account who initiates an idea(ship change) into the NDE-EP via the SCD include:

PEOs, PEs, TYCOMs, RMCs, ISEAs, Govt Planning Yard, Group Staffs

Who funds K-ALTS? (legacy)

SYSCOM

Who funds D-ALTS? (legacy)

TYCOM

What are the two types of ship changes within the Navy Modernization program?

Program or Fleet Alts

Who funds Program Alts

Programs

Who funds Fleet Alts

Fleet

What are the goals of Navy modernization

Improve ship's capabilities and material condition by installation of approved alterations and modifications

Improve safety, reliability, maintainability, habitability and environmental compliance of ships and equipment

Increase fleet readiness by improving standardization within ship classes

What types of alterations are funded by SYSCOMs and TYCOMs under the legacy FMP?

SYSCOM: K and KP

TYCOM: D and F

What types of alterations are funded by Program Offices and TYCOMs under the NMP system?

Program Office: Program

TYCOM: Fleet

Which legacy documents have been absorbed by the Ship Change Document (SCD)?

Justification Cost Form (JCF), Ship Alteration Record (SAR), and Engineering Change Proposal (ECP)

What is modernization?

Improve a ship's capabilities over and above the initial configuration

What is maintenance?

Allows a ship to continue operating to its current design reliability and performance characteristics

What are repairs?

Return a ship to its current design reliability and performance characteristics

Who prepares and approves the SAR and SIDS?

The SHIPALT Record (SAR) is usually prepared by the Planning Yard and approved by the Ship Program Manager

Who can initiate at SCD (ship change document)?

Anyone can initiate a SCD.

HEROEMCONB Hazard Of Electromagnetic JKO Radiation To Ordnance (HERO) Surveys And HERO Emission Control (EMCON) Bills (CUI)

What is the purpose of an EMCON bill?

To implement restrictions for setting HERO

What are the four classifications of HERO?

Safe, Susceptible, Unsafe, Unreliable

What is HERO Susceptible ordnance?

Ordnance that is still safe in an open area

What is the pub that governs HERO?

NAVSEA OP 3565, NAVAIR 16-1-539

When must the EMCON bill be updated?

Continuously

What is an EED?

Electro Explosive Device

JKO Aseptico Portable Scrub Sink Operator's Course

The Surgical scrub sink is designed to work with which of the following ?

ALL OF THE ABOVE :

Jerry cans
Bladder supply
Domestic supply

Which of the following are most likely the cause of a heating element to shut off

Select 2 answers :

-Tilt level breaker sensor triggered
-Heating breaker tripped

If the GFCI is tripped when the power is disconnected will the green LED illuminate when power is reconnected to the sink

Yes after GFC is reset

With the flow rate sit at high about how long will it take to fill the internal tank?

About 2 minutes

Which of the following sources is not an acceptable water source for the scrub sink?

Nearby natural resources

What is the appropriate temperature of the water in the scrub sink?

106 degrees Fahrenheit

How many Jerry cans are supplied?

None

Describe sink will operate properly with either a 110 V or 220 V power source without any modification

TRUE

JKO ASI Triton Dental System 2025M AR Operator Course

Which is not a repacking step?

Filling water source with 1 to 10 ratio solution

First step in troubleshooting compressor failure?

Ensure compressor is on

If purge pump is producing low or no flow?

Empty amalgam separator, verify tubing is not blocked or kinked, verify tubing is installed correctly

It is not necessary to leave a valve open

False

Maximum capacity of closed water supply

(INCORRECT)4L(INCORRECT)

During normal operation, one valve must be open

True

Converting from 115 to 230 volts is not an operator task

True

What position must the lock-out lever be for normal operation?

(INCORRECT)Lever pointed up(INCORRECT)

How long should the waste container soak

Overnight

JKO Aribex NOMAD Pro Dental X-Ray Apparatus Maintainer's Course

3 Alara Concepts

Time, Shielding, Distance

Nomad handset battery is...

(INCORRECT)Nickel Cadmium(INCORRECT)Nickel Metal Hydride(INCORRECT)

New handset battery cycles

300 (full charge and discharge)

Only usable with digital systems

False

A tech deployed to Iraq...

1 Acclimate, 2 Inspect, 3 Functions Check, 4 Calibration Check

???

Handset Passed

???

Trigger is designed to be pressed and released to ready exposure

Assemble/Disassemble

False

???

Press and hold select and press patient

What tech bulletin or regulation

TB MED 521

When assembling

Should hear a click

Handset can stay in cradle for an indefinite amount of time

True

Acceptable KVP limits

54 to 66 KVP

???

Press and release trigger and green light

JKO Aribex NOMAD Pro Dental X-Ray Apparatus Operator Course

Optional backscatter......

All of the above

Not a part of the preliminary check receiving a new unit

Determine if both handsets are charged

Operator can input custom user settings

True

First trigger squeeze does what?

Ready mode

Orange indicator lights on base

(INCORRECT)Trigger squeezed when placing(INCORRECT)

For added security store handset in separate area

True

How many exposures on a fully charged handset?

400

Yellow light with a radiation symbol

Currently conducting an exposure

"SYSTEM FAILURE" displayed

Turn off and back on

If you might be outside the protection zone

Lead apron

Handset may not charge over night

False

Collimator tube not perpendicular/90 degrees from DEXIS

Adjust angle of patient

Best way to prevent battery strength loss

Swap handsets daily

JKO Alaris MedSystem III Infusion Pump Operator's Course

What sizes of syringes can be used for infusions with the I.V. pump?

20 - 60 cc syringes

While preparing the standard INFUSION SET I.V. tubing for the pump what are two differences we find in comparison with our standard drip sets?

- the spike has a VENT CAP to open after flushing the tubing in case the container requires VENTING
- you'll need to INVERT (the) CASSETTE SO (that the) TUBING IS UP AND PRIME SET. GENTLY MASSAGE PRESSURE DOME TO ENSURE NO AIR BUBBLES ARE TRAPPED

How do you PREPARE THE ADMINISTRATION SET?

- PULL CASSETTE SLIDE CLAMP OUT TO COMPLETELY OCCLUDE TUBING
- INSERT CASSETTE INTO INSTRAMENT
* THREE BEEPS SOUND WHEN CASSETTE IS INSERTED PROPERLY
- ENSURE THE CASSETTE SLIDE CLAMP IS PUSHED IN COMPLETELY SO TUBING IS NOT OCCLUDED
- INVERT THE CASSETTE SO TUBING IS UP. SLOWLY OPEN THE REGULATING CLAMP AND ESTABLISH FLUID FLOW TO FULLY PRIME THE SET.
- GENTLY TAP THE CASSETTE AND "Y" SITES AS NECESSARY TO REMOVE ALL AIR.
- GENTLY MASSAGE THE PRESSURE DOME TO ENSURE NO AIR BUBBLES ARE TRAPPED.

How do you LOAD THE SET onto the pump?

- CLOSE THE REGULATING CLAMP BEFORE INSERTING AND REMOVING THE CASSETTE TO REDUCE THE RISK OF FREE FLOW
- ENSURE CASSETTE SLIDE CLAMP IS PULLED OUT (IN THE CLOSED POSITION) PRIOR TO LOADING
- PRESS "on/off" TO TURN PUMP ON
- WITH TUBING DOWN, USE A 45-DEGREE UPWARD MOTION TO INSERT CASSETTE INTO CHANNEL
- PUSH ON CLEAR PORTION OF CASSETTE UNTIL FULLY SEATED. THEN PUSH IN SLIDE CLAMP FLUSH WITH ENTIRE CASSETTE
- PULL DOWN GENTLY ON TUBING COLLAR. PRESS WITH THUMB TO SEAT TUBING COLLAR IN RECESS TO SEAT CASSETTE.

What does "VR" mean?

Volume Remaining

What does "VI" mean

Volume Infused

What does "TR" mean?

Time Remaining

After pressing the "ON/OFF" button, hearing one beep followed by three beeps, what needs to be done if the digital screen isn't showing anything?

Press the "softkey pad" button that's second from the left up to six times. This "Cntrst" button brightens and darkens the screen.

What is the STANDARD DISPLAY button for?

It allows you to display the STANDARD DISPLAY for all three channels at once

What does the MORE OPTIONS button do?

It allows you to display additional softkey functions:

- TotVol: shows volumes infused on all three channels
- Device (shown next)
- Config (shown next)
- Note: shows nothing
- BatLog: illustrates battery history
- DemoWD: Watchdog Alarm Demo

What does selecting "Device" show?

It shows (by an asterisk next to it) which of the six possible device designations you've selected:

- General Purpose
- Neonatal
- Controller Pressure
- Operating Room
- General Purpose II
- Operating II

What does selecting "Config" show?

Five pages of the pre-set operational settings for the pump

What does the GP label over the third softkey pad indicate?

It shows the current "device" selection, of which the default is GP (General Purpose)

When is the INFUSION SET used?

The INFUSION SET (#28034)--with 2 INJECTION PORTS, and can either be VENTED/NINVENTED--is the standard I.V. pump administration set used for ......

When is the HALF SET used?

The HALF SET (#28117)--with SMALLBORE TUBING and an INJECTION PORT--is used for medication administration via syringe.

When is the LOW SORBING INFUSION SET used?

The LOW SORBING INFUSION SET(#28053)--which is VENTED/NONVENTED-- are PVC-free sets which are designed to minimize adsorption of certain drugs (such as insulin and nitroglycerin) into the matrix of the tubing materials.

How long will the pump battery last?

A new, fully charged battery will last 6-8 hours of operation

On the administration set what is the "cassette"?

It is the portion of the set which inserts into the "cassette holder" to allow regulation of the medication by the pump

How many cc's does it take to flush air from the half set?

Though the packaging showed it'd need "6", it actyally took about 7 ml to fully flush the tube and its cassette

How many cc's does it take to flush air from the infusion set, or the low sorb set?

Though the packaging showed it'd need "20", it actually took about 25 ml to fully flush the tube, its cassette, and to fill the drip chamber halfway

JKO Annual Security Refresher

1) Which of the following are required markings on all classified documents?

All of the above

Classified information is official government information that has been determined to require protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of National Security. Which of the following are levels of classified information? Select all that apply

- Top Secret
- Confidential
- Secret

When transporting SCI within the building (outside the SCIF), the material shall be placed in a locked brief case or locked pouch made of canvas or other heavy-duty material and must have an integral key-operated lock.

TRUE

Specific material must be used for derivative classification decisions. Which of the following are authorized sources? Select all that apply.

- Security classification guides
- Properly marked source documents
-Contract Security Classification Specifications

A security incident in which classified data is introduced to an information system with a lower level of classification, or to a system not accredited to process data of that restrictive category is an example of which type of security incident?

Data Spill

You may be subject to loss or denial of classified access, suspension without pay, termination of employment, discharge from military service, and criminal prosecution if you knowingly, willfully, or negligently disclose classified information or CUI to unauthorized persons.

True

Aggregating unclassified information together will never make the information classified

False

If you hold a top secret clearance, you are required to report to the security office when you have a foreign roommate over 30 calendar days, a co-habitant, and when you get married.

True

You do not have to report unofficial foreign travel to the Security Office.

False

After securing your space at the end of the day, you should try to badge back in to ensure it is locked.

True

Which of the following is not a controlled unclassified information marking?

For Official Use Only

SCI material can be processed on SIPRNET if the content is SECRET//SCI

False

Wireless Wearable Fitness Devices are authorized within SCIFs.

False

Controlled unclassified information (CUI) requires the following markings: banner lines, portion markings, and a CUI designation indicator.

True

The full receiving and return address, including names, along with the highest classification level and dissemination markings are required to be on the outer layer of classified documents double wrapped for mailing.

False

classified information can be safeguarded by using________. (select all that apply)

Vaults, Secure Rooms, Secure Telephones

A security infraction involves loss, compromise, or suspected compromise.

False

What form is used to record end-of-day security checks?

SF 701

Which of the following is required to access classified information? )select all that apply)

NEEDS REVIEW

Physical security is concerned with_____and ____ measures designed to prevent unauthorized access.

needs review

what form is used to request a background investigation

SF86

which of the following are parts of the opsec process

OPSEC process involves five steps: (1) identification of critical information, (2) analysis of threats, (3) analysis of vulnerabilities, (4) assessment of risk, and (5) application of appropriate

a security infraction involves loss compromise or suspected compromise

false

the personnel security program establishes______ for personnel security determinations and overall program management responsibilities

Policies and procedures

which method may be used to transmit confidential materials to dod agencies

First Class mail

derivative classifiers are required to have all the following except

Approval of the original classification authority (OCA)

top secret documents can be transmitted by which of the following methods

Defense Courier Service, Secure Fax

which of the following materials are subject to pre-publication review

articles, speeches, books

which of the following is required to access classified information

sf312, clearance eligibility at the appropriate level, need to know

which level of classified information could cause damage to national security

confidential

physical security is concerned with______ and _______ measures designed to prevent unauthorized access

active, passive

Which of the following are required markings on all classified documents?

All of the above

Classified information is official government information that has been determined to require protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of National Security.

Confidential, Secret, Top Secret

When transporting SCI within the building (Outside the SCIF), the material shall be placed in a brief case or locked pouch made of canvas or other heavy duty material and must have an integral key operated lock

True

Specific material must be used for derivative classification decisions.

Contract security specification
Security classification guides
Properly marked source documents

A security incident in which classified data is introduced to an information system with a lower level of classification or to a system not accredited to process data of that restrictive category is an example of which type of security incident?

Data Spill

You may be subject to loss or denial of classified access, suspension without pay, termination of employment, discharge from military service, and criminal prosecution if you knowingly, willfully, or negligently disclose classified information or CUI to unauthorized persons.

True

Aggregating unclassified information together will never make the information classified.

False

If you hold a top secret clearance, you are required to report to the security office when you have a foreign roommate over 30 calendar days, a co-habitant, and when you get married.

True

You do not have to report unofficial foreign travel to the security office

False

After securing your space at the end of the day, you should try to badge back in to ensure it is locked.

True

Which of the following is NOT a controlled unclassified information marking?

For Official Use Only

SCI material can be processed on SIPRNET if the content is Secret/SCI

False

Wireless wearable fitness devices are authorized within SCIFs

False

Controlled unclassified information (CUI) requires the following markings: banner lines, portion markings, and a CUI designation indicator.

True

The full receiving and return address, including names, along with the highest classification level and dissemination markings are required to be on the outer layer of classified documents double wrapped for mailing.

False

JKO Joint Staff Law of War (Abridged)

Which two of the following describe prohibited actions? (Actions in Defense, pg. 5,6 of 9)

Using civilians to shield one's military operations from the enemy (correct)
Using civilians to shield or make a military object immune from attack (correct)

Which two of the following cultural centers are most likely to qualify under the 1954 Hague Cultural Property Convention? (Protection of Cultural Property, pg. 2 of 10)

A center square containing monuments representing ancient cultures (correct)


A museum containing artifacts and historical writings (correct)

3) Which two of the following acts are prohibited acts of perfidy? (Good Faith and Perfidy, pg. 2 of 11)

You will need to guess:

Displaying a white flag of truce while attacking the enemy


Using the enemy's weapons during combat


Fighting in the enemy's uniform


Using the enemy uniforms to evade capture

What principle of the Law of War forbids the infliction of unnecessary suffering, injury, and destruction? (The Principles of the Law of War, pg. 5 of 8)

Humanity (correct)

Select all that apply. What are the Law of War principles? (The Principles of the Law of War, pg. 2 of 8)

Proportionality (correct)


Honor (correct)


Humanity (correct)


Military Necessity (correct)


Distinction (correct)

Which two of the following are true about the principle of Military Necessity? (The Principles of the Law of War, pg. 4 of 8)

It does not justify prohibited actions (correct)
It justifies the use of overwhelming force, but not wanton destruction (correct)

Humanity is a principle of the Law of War that addresses the immunity of peaceful populations and civilian objects from attack. (The Principles of the Law of War, pg. 6 of 9)

True (correct)

The principle of Proportionality obligates military commanders to consider the expected incidental harms from planned attacks, but also the consequences of other military options as well. (The Principles of Proportionality and Distinction, pg. 2 of 9)

True (correct)

The Law of War principle of Distinction applies to the attacker AND the defender during the conduct of attacks. (The Principles of Proportionality and Distinction, pg. 5 of 9)

True (correct)

What is meant by the term 'No Quarter Given'? (Combatants and Civilians, pg. 6 of 9)

Conducting attacks and ordering that no survivors will be taken (correct)

11) The Law of War requires humane treatment for military personnel who are out of combat (hors de combat) due to capture by enemy forces. Humane treatment includes: (Military Persons Exempt From Attack, pg. 3 of 8)

All of the above (correct)

Initial Tactical question of detainees may be conducted by any DoD personnel, but interrogations may be conducted only by trained interrogators. (Military Persons Exempt From Attack, pg. 4 of 8)

True

Which statement on the use of force in individual self-defense to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent is most accurate?

The use of force may exceed hostile intent demonstrated by the enemy, as long as the force used is necessary and proportional to counter the threat (correct)

What two of the following statements combine to form the definition of a military objective? (Objects of Attack, pg. 3 of 6)

The partial or total destruction, capture, or neutralization of the object offers a definite military advantage (correct)
An object which by its nature, location, purpose, or use makes an effective contribution to the enemy's military action (correct)

Which of the following special classes of persons are considered unprivileged belligerents? (Combatants and Civilians, pg. 4 of 9)

Members of non-state armed groups and civilians that directly take part in hostilities (correct)

Individual military members can claim enemy property they find on the battlefield. (Enemy Property, pg. 5 of 10)

False (correct)

What best describes the Law of War? (The Law of War, pg. 3 of 8)

That part of international law that regulates the conduct of hostilities (correct)

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the purposes of the Law of War? (The Law of War, pg. 4 of 8)

Protecting the right of free expression for peoples in conflict (correct)

As a member of the US Armed Forces, the Law of War helps you make the lawful decisions of war in difficult circumstances that arise in armed conflict. (The Law of War, pg. 4 of 8)

True (correct)

In addition to applying to the conduct of hostilities, the Law of War also applies to duties during peacetime and occupation. (The Law of War, pg. 5 of 8

True (correct)

Of the following, which one is defined as, directives and orders that delineate the authorities and limitations under which the U.S. armed forces will initiate and/or continue the use of force against other forces? (The Law of War and Other Bodies of Law, pg. 5 of 8)

Rules of Engagement (correct

Which of the following rules pertain to law enforcement and security duties? (The Law of War and Other Bodies of Law, pg. 5 of 8)

Rules on the Use of Force (correct)

The Law of War principle of Honor influences the conduct of activities by encouraging refrain from taking advantage of the adversary's adherence to the Law of War and to encourage combatants to act in good faith in non-hostile relations. (The Principle of Honor, pg. 3 of 6)

All of the above (correct)


Effective advance warning of the attack


Adjusting the timing of the attack to reduce the potential for collateral damage


Weapon selection to reduce the potential for collateral damage


Evacuation of the protected population prior to the attack

When conducting an attack, armed forces should take feasible precautions to reduce the risk of incidental harms to civilians and civilian objects. Which of the following actions could be considered a feasible precaution? (Proportionality in Attacks, pg. 4 of 10)

All of the above (correct)


Effective advance warning of the attack


Adjusting the timing of the attack to reduce the potential for collateral damage


Weapon selection to reduce the potential for collateral damage


Evacuation of the protected population prior to the attack

Which two of the following statements are true about certain symbols such as the Red Cross and Red Crescent?

May not be used for any other purpose

Which of the following rules pertain to law enforcement and security duties?

Rules on the Use of Force

What document establishes authorized procedures for interrogating detainees? (Military Persons Exempt From Attack, pg. 4 of 8)

(Wrong) Geneva Conventions of 1949

JKO Joint Staff Insider Threat Awareness

Three phases of recruitment include:

Spot and Assess, Development, and Recruitment

Social media is one platform used by adversaries to recruit potential witting or unwitting insiders.

True

Indicators of an Insider Threat may include unexplained sudden wealth and unexplained sudden and short term foreign travel

True

What is an insider threat?

anyone with authorized access to the information or things an organization values most, and who uses that access - either wittingly or unwittingly - to inflict harm to the organization or national security

You notice a coworker is demonstrating some potential indicators (behaviors) of a potential insider threat. How would you report it?

Contact the Joint Staff Security Office

Consequences of not reporting foreign contacts, travel or business dealings may result in:

- Loss of employment or security clearance

- UCMJ/Article 92 (mil)

- Disciplinary action (civ)

- Criminal charges

DoD and Federal employees may be subject to both civil and criminal penalties for failure to report. For cleared defense contractors, failing to report may result in loss of employment and security clearance. Individuals may also be subject to criminal charges.

True

Some techniques used for removing classified information from the workplace may include:

- Email

- USB data sticks

- Making photo copies of documents

- Physically removing files

Insiders may physically remove files, they may steal or leak information electronically, or they may use elicitation as a technique to subtly extract information about you, your work, and your colleagues.

True

Why is it important to identify potential insider threats?

insiders have freedom of movement within and access to classified information that has the potential to cause great harm to national security

JKO Joint Staff Non-Supervisory Equal Employment Opportunity

How many calendar days does an individual have to contact an EEO Counselor to initiate the discrimination complaint process?

45

What Act does a Federal agency violate if agency authorities take, or threaten to take, retaliatory personnel action against any employee or applicant because of disclosure of information by that employee or applicant?

Whistleblower Protection Act

How can Joint Staff employees assist in increasing the participation rate of IWD and IWTD in our workforce?

All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice?

Considering proper employment recommendations based on personal knowledge or records of job-related abilities or characteristics

True or False? A verbal reasonable accommodation starts the reasonable accommodation process?

True

Which of the following is an example of discrimination on the basis of reprisal?

An employee is denied a promotion solely because of their participation in the discrimination complaint process.

The Equal Pay Act of 1963 protects men and women who perform substantially equal work, which requires:

All of the above

True or False: EEO is special treatment in employment, promotion, training, and other personnel actions for a selected group to meet quotas.

False

Where can an employee file a request for reasonable accommodation?

Both answers are correct

An employee or applicant may only file an EEO complaint on the basis of Age Discrimination if:

He or she is 40 or older

Why is mediation advantageous?

Parties reach a mutually agreeable resolution.

JKO Joint Staff Law of War

In addition to applying to the conduct of hostilities, the Law of War also applies to duties during peacetime and occupation.

True

How does Human Rights Law differ from the Law of War?

Human Rights Law deals with individual rights against abuses by their government, while the Law of War regulates the conduct of hostilities.

Which two of the following describe prohibited actions?

1) Using civilians to shield or make a military object immune from attack
2) Using civilians to shield one's military operations from the enemy

Humanity is a principle of the Law of War that addresses the immunity of peaceful populations and civilian objects from attack.

True

What best describes the Law of War?

That part of international law that regulates the conduct of hostilities

Which of the following special classes of persons are considered unprivileged belligerents?

Members of non-state armed groups and civilians that directly take part in hostilities

Which two of the following acts are prohibited acts of perfidy?

1) Displaying a white flag of truce while attacking the enemy
2) Fighting in the enemy's uniform

What document establishes authorized procedures for interrogating detainees?

Hague Conventions of 1899

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the purposes of the Law of War?

Protecting the right of free expression for peoples in conflict

The proportionality rule only applies __________________.

When civilians or civilian objects are at risk of harm

Human Rights Law is the "lex specialis," or controlling, body of law for U.S. armed forces in armed conflict.

False

The Law of War may overlap, or be included within, other bodies or types of international law.

True

Of the following, which one is defined as, directives and orders that delineate the authorities and limitations under which the U.S. armed forces will initiate and/or continue the use of force against other forces?

Rules of Engagement

The Law of War principle of Honor influences the conduct of activities by encouraging refrain from taking advantage of the adversary's adherence to the Law of War and to encourage combatants to act in good faith in non-hostile relations.

True

Which two of the following persons are exempt from attack?

1) Military personnel exclusively assigned to, and engaged in, medical or chaplain duties
2) Staff of voluntary aid societies belonging to a neutral country

Individual military members can claim enemy property they find on the battlefield.

False

As a member of the US Armed Forces, the Law of War helps you make the lawful decisions of war in difficult circumstances that arise in armed conflict.

True

What principle of the Law of War forbids the infliction of unnecessary suffering, injury, and destruction?

Humanity

What two of the following statements combine to form the definition of a military objective?

1) The partial or total destruction, capture, or neutralization of the object offers a definite military advantage
2) An object which by its nature, location, purpose, or use makes an effective contribution to the enemy's military action

Which Law of War principle obligates parties to a conflict to discriminate between the armed forces and those taking no active part in hostilities?

Distinction

Which of the following describes actions that are considered taking direct part in hostilities?

Actions with the intent to cause actual harm to the enemy

Which two of the following are true about the principle of Military Necessity?

1) It does not justify prohibited actions
2) It justifies the use of overwhelming force, but not wanton destruction

Select all that apply. What are the Law of War principles?

1) Military Necessity
2) Honor
3) Distinction
4) Humanity
5) Proportionality

The Law of War does not permit wanton destruction. What is wanton destruction?

Destruction without purpose

Which of the following rules pertain to law enforcement and security duties?

Rules on the Use of Force

Which two of the following cultural centers are most likely to qualify under the 1954 Hague Cultural Property Convention?

1) A center square containing monuments representing ancient cultures
2) A museum containing artifacts and historical writings

The principle of Proportionality obligates military commanders to consider the expected incidental harms from planned attacks, but also the consequences of other military options as well.

True

Initial Tactical question of detainees may be conducted by any DoD personnel, but interrogations may be conducted only by trained interrogators.

True

Which two of the following statements are true about certain symbols such as the Red Cross and Red Crescent?

- May only be used to identify a civilian object as protected under the Law of War.
- May not be used for any other purpose

JKO Joint Staff Military Equal Opportunity Policy Basic Training

True or False. When filing an informal complaint, the complaint must be in writing and the chain of command must be notified. (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 2)

False

What is maximum number of days to submit a formal complaint? (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 6)

30

Which of the following terms is described as an unreasonable negative attitude, judgment, or opinion toward others because of their membership in a particular group? (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 4

Prejudice

True or False. Bystanders might be subordinate or senior to the person whose comment or behavior warrants reaction. (Bystander Intervention, Page 1)

True

Select all that apply. The DoD EO policy was established to provide equal opportunity and treatment for all Service members, civilian employees, and their families without regard to which of the following? (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4)

Color
National origin
Religion
Gender
Race

True or False. Historically and cross-culturally, sexism is most often used to subordinate women. (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 3)

True

True or False. A bystander is anyone who sees or otherwise becomes aware of behavior that appears worthy of comment or action. (Bystander Intervention, Page 1)

True

Which of the following are traits of leadership responsibility? Select all that apply. (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4)

Ensure that all military members receive EO training

Counsel subordinates on EO roles and responsibilities

Actively seek to identify discriminatory practices early on, and start actions to remove the contributing factors

Ensure that EO policies are publicized and enforced

Ensure that unit personnel are aware of complaint processing procedures

What is the result of Service members or civilians being subjected to offensive, unwanted, unsolicited comments and behaviors of a sexual nature that interfere with their work performance?

Hostile environment

Which of the following alternatives best describes the term "Racism"? (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 8)

Attitude, belief, behavior, or institutional arrangement that favors one race or ethnic group over another

True or False. When filing an informal complaint, the complaint must be in writing and the chain of command must be notified. (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 2)

False

What is maximum number of days to submit a formal complaint? (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 6)

-30
-10
-15
-60

30

Which of the following terms is described as an unreasonable negative attitude, judgment, or opinion toward others because of their membership in a particular group? (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 4)

-Power
-Prejudice
-Discrimination
-Privilege

Prejudice

True or False. Bystanders might be subordinate or senior to the person whose comment or behavior warrants reaction. (Bystander Intervention, Page 1)

-True
-False

True

Select all that apply. The DoD EO policy was established to provide equal opportunity and treatment for all Service members, civilian employees, and their families without regard to which of the following? (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4)

Color
National origin
Religion
Gender
Race

True or False. Historically and cross-culturally, sexism is most often used to subordinate women. (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 3)

True

True or False. A bystander is anyone who sees or otherwise becomes aware of behavior that appears worthy of comment or action. (Bystander Intervention, Page 1)

-True
-False

True

Which of the following are traits of leadership responsibility? Select all that apply. (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4)

Ensure that all military members receive EO training

Counsel subordinates on EO roles and responsibilities

Actively seek to identify discriminatory practices early on, and start actions to remove the contributing factors

Ensure that EO policies are publicized and enforced

Ensure that unit personnel are aware of complaint processing procedures

What is the result of Service members or civilians being subjected to offensive, unwanted, unsolicited comments and behaviors of a sexual nature that interfere with their work performance?

Hostile environment

Which of the following alternatives best describes the term "Racism"? (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 8)
-An adverse opinion formed without just grounds directed against an individual or group
-A dislike based on faulty and inflexible generalizations toward a group or an individual
-Actively making distinctions and choices that have an adverse impact on members of one group
-Attitude, belief, behavior, or institutional arrangement that favors one race or ethnic group over another

Attitude, belief, behavior, or institutional arrangement that favors one race or ethnic group over another

What is the minimum number of days for an informal complaint to be resolved? (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 2)

-15 business days from when the complaint was submitted
-3 business days from when the complaint was submitted
-10 business days from when the complaint was submitted
-Informal complaints are not subject to timeline suspense

Informal complaints are not subject to timeline suspense

What is the purpose of the DoD MEO Program? Select all that apply. (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 3)

-Prevent and respond to prohibited discrimination through education and training
-Ensure service members are treated with dignity and respect
-Promote equal opportunity as being critical to mission accomplishment, unit cohesiveness and military readiness
-Enhance safety and well-being of all service members

-Prevent and respond to prohibited discrimination through education and training
-Ensure service members are treated with dignity and respect
-Promote equal opportunity as being critical to mission accomplishment, unit cohesiveness and military readiness
-Enhance safety and well-being of all service members

Select all that apply. The DoD MEO is the right of all Service members to serve, advance, and be evaluated based on only on individual merit, fitness, capability, and performance in an environment free of prohibited discrimination on the basis of which of the following? (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4)

-color
-national origin
-religion
-sex
-gender identity
-sexual orientation

-color
-national origin
-religion
-sex
-gender identity
-sexual orientation

JKO Joint Staff No Fear Act Training Course

complaints filed with the office of special counsil may be filed online or submitted by mail.

true

what is the reprisal according to the civil service reform act?

retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of effective date of the personnel action.

true

which of the following is not a prohibited personnel practice:

considering employment recommendation based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

what proactive actions can leadership, management and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination?

all are correct

the office of the special counsel is an independent federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than those enforced by the EEOC under the civil service reform act of 1978

true

what is the purpose of the merit systems protection board?

to protect federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel actions

a benefit of a model EEOC program is...

all of the answers are correct

the age discrimination in employment act of 1967 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of age against individuals who are...

40 years of age or older

how many days do you have to contact the EEO office to file a discrimination complaint after learning of a discriminatory event or the effective date of an action?

45 days

what does management directive 715 provide to federal agencies?

it provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

under the no fear act each federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data...

annually

federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force or loss of employee benefits.

false

which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the equal employment opportunity commission (EEOC)?

• enforcing all federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
• providing oversight and coordination of all federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies

under the civil service reform act of 1978 a federal employee who is authorized to take, direct other to take, recommend or approve any personnel action may influence anyone to withdraw from competing for a job to help or hurt the employment prospect of another person?

false

the purpose of the No FEAR Act is to ensure that Federal agencies:

all of the answers are correct

Complaints filed with the Office of Special Counsel may be filed online or submitted by mail.

True

An individual who wants to file an EEO complaint must contact the EEO office within 45 calendar days of the date when he or she knew or should have known about the alleged discriminatory act, or in the case of a personnel action, within 45 calendar days of the effective date.

True

Federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force or loss of employee benefits.

False

What is reprisal according to the Civil Service Reform Act?

Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

Appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of the effective date of the personnel action.

True

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice:

Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

What proactive actions can leadership, management and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination? Select all that apply.

All Above

The Office of the Special Counsel is an independent Federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than those enforced by the EEOC under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978.

True

What is the purpose of the Merit Systems Protection Board?

To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices

A benefit of a model EEO program is ______________________.

All of the above

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of _______________________.

Race, color, national origin, sex, or religion, and in reprisal for prior protected activity

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal agencies?

It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

Under the No FEAR Act each Federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data _______________.

Annually

Which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)?

-Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
-Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies

True or False. Complaints filed with the Office of Special Counsel may be filed online or submitted by mail. (Benefits of a Model Program, page 6 of 10)
-True
-False

True

True or False. An individual who wants to file an EEO complaint must contact the EEO office within 45 calendar days of the date when he or she knew or should have known about the alleged discriminatory act, or in the case of a personnel action, within 45 calendar days of the effective date. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 10 of 19)
-True
-False

True

True or False. Federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force or loss of employee benefits. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 4 of 14)
-True
-False

False

What is reprisal according to the Civil Service Reform Act? (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 9 of 13)
-Authorization of a preference or an advantage to anyone that improves or hurts the employment prospects of an employee or applicant
-Wage discrimination on the basis of sex in the performance of substantially equal work
-Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection
-Discrimination against an employee or applicant based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, mental or physical disability, marital status, or political affiliation

Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

True or False. Appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of the effective date of the personnel action. (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 5 of 10)
-True
-False

True

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice: (Equal Opportunity Laws, page 7 of 19)
-Deciding not to hire a qualified applicant because he or she has a mental disability
-Retaliating against an employee or applicant for reporting a possible violation of the law
-Violating a veteran's hiring preference
-Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

What proactive actions can leadership, management and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination? Select all that apply. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 5 of 14)
-Take steps to ensure that all workplace policies, practices and behaviors are fair
-Contact the EEO office if there are any questions about how to deal with employee complaints of harassment or other unlawful discrimination
-Take employee complaints of harassment and unlawful discrimination seriously, and exercise their responsibility to investigate complaints thoroughly
-Take appropriate action to resolve the issue, and documenting the situation and action taken

-Take steps to ensure that all workplace policies, practices and behaviors are fair
-Contact the EEO office if there are any questions about how to deal with employee complaints of harassment or other unlawful discrimination
-Take employee complaints of harassment and unlawful discrimination seriously, and exercise their responsibility to investigate complaints thoroughly
-Take appropriate action to resolve the issue, and documenting the situation and action taken

True or False. The Office of the Special Counsel is an independent Federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than those enforced by the EEOC under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978. (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 1 of 13)
-True
-False

True

What is the purpose of the Merit Systems Protection Board? (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 4 of 13)
-To protect Federal employees from reprisal or retaliation for protected whistleblowing
-To protect all workplace employees from violation of EEO laws
-To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices
-To protect all workplace employees from reprisal or retaliation for protected whistleblowing

To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices

A benefit of a model EEO program is ______________________. (Benefits of a Model Program, page 3 of 9)
-A more productive workforce
-A diverse organization where skilled employees want to work
-Improved efficiency of employees
-All of the answers are correct

All of the answers are correct

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of _______________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 11 of 19)
-Marital status, political affiliation, and in reprisal for protected whistleblowing activity
-Race, color, national origin, sex, or religion, and in reprisal for prior protected activity
-Mental or physical disability

Race, color, national origin, sex, or religion, and in reprisal for prior protected activity

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal agencies? (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 5 of 14)
-It provides guidance for filing whistleblower complaints
-It provides guidance to reimburse the Treasury's Judgment Fund
-It provides procedures for filing EEO complaints
-It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

Under the No FEAR Act each Federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data _______________. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 2 of 14)
-semi-annually
-annually
-monthly
-quarterly

Annually

Which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)? (Equal Employment Opportunity Law, page 4 of 19)
-Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
-Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies
-Reviewing and ruling on appeals of personnel actions such as removals, suspensions, furloughs, and demotions
-Reviewing and ruling on administrative decisions affecting rights or benefits under the Civil Service Retirement System or the Federal Employees' Retirement System

-Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
-Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies

How many days do you have to contact the EEO office to file a discrimination complaint after learning of a discriminatory event or the effective date of an action? (Benefits of a Model Program, page 5 of 10)
-60 days
-30 days
-15 days
-45 days

45 days

The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination in ________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 11 of 14)
-Wage differences between employees on the basis of race, color, national origin, or religion
-Wage differences between employees on the basis of age
-Wage differences between men and women performing substantially equal work

Wage differences between men and women performing substantially equal work

True or False. The No FEAR Act applies to all Federal agencies. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 3 of 19)
-True
-False

True

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of age against individuals who are _____________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 12 of 19)
-60 years of age or older
-50 years of age or older
-40 years of age or older

40 years of age or older

The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of ___________________________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 14 of 19)
-Mental or Physical disability
-Marital status
-Race

~Mental or Physical disability

True or False. The No FEAR Act was established by the President of the United States of America on 15 May 2002. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 2 of 19)
-True
-False

True