Army Sponsorship Program

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

-DA Form 5434
-Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

sponsors should be appointed within _________ calendar days after battalion or higher activity receives the da form 5434?

10

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

-grade equal to or higher than the incoming soldier
-same sex, marital status, and military career as the incoming soldier
-The sponsor should be familiar with the unit and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1.DA Form 5434.M
2.Welcome letter.
3.ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4.Reception.
5.Orientation.
6.Inprocessing.

What is Reactionary sponsorship?

Sponsor support offered to a soldier or civilian employee arriving at an installation without an assigned sponsor

What is DA Form 7274?

Sponsorship Program Survey

For Whom Sponsorship is Mandatory?

First-Term Soldiers

what form is completed by a soldier on arrival in evaluating the units sponsorship program?

Da Form 7274

At a minimum how many welcome letters should a new arrival receive?

- one from the battalion commander (officers) - or command sergeant major (enlisted) - one from the designated sponsor

Before the Newcomer Arrival What should happen?

-Keep the chain of command informed
-Provide follow-up information newcomer needs
-Greet and receive newcomer
-Advise newcomer of arrangements for initial reception

What are the Sponsor Responsibilities

-Arrange transportation
-Meet the newcomer
-Assist with in-processing- gets to ACS
-Set up appointments
-Introduce to Chain of Command
-Acquaint with unit

Participation

-Company level
-Soldiers private through COL
-Civilian employees through grade 15

Where should the sponsor check if he/she received a Da 5434 from the incoming soldier

The army Career Tracker

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What is S-Gate?

S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?

10 days unless the sponsorship is declined

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1.DA Form 5434.M
2.Welcome letter.
3.ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4.Reception.
5.Orientation.
6.Inprocessing.

What publication covers the Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What is S-Gate?

S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?

10 days unless the sponsorship is declined

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

DA Form 5434.M

Welcome letter

ACS Relocation Readiness Service's

Reception

Orientation

Inprocessing

Should there be a sponsorship for a soldier departing a unit?

yes

What Army regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

DA Form 5434 or electronically generated DA Form 5434-E

How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?

10 days unless the sponsorship is declined

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

the soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher than the incoming soldier - the sponsor should be the same sex as the incoming soldier

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

DA Form 5434

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

welcome letter

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

ACS relocation readiness services

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

reception

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

orientation

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

inprocessing

What AR covers the Total army Sponsorship?

AR 600-8-8

What is the Purpose of the Army Sponsorship Plan?

A system is provided to help commanders exercise their basic responsibility to assist Soldiers, civilian
employees, and families successfully relocate into and out of their commands. Sponsorship is a commander's program
in which commanders and individual sponsors are key to success

The Total Army Personnel System directs the sponsorship function to do what?

1. Assist Soldiers, civilian employees, and families during the reassignment process
2. assist families geographically seperated from the soldier or civilian employee sponsor becasue of duty requirements.
3. Improve unit or organizational cohesion and readiness by decreasing distractions that hamper personal performance and mission accomplishment
4. Support the Army's personnel life-cycle function of sustainment

Sponsorship standards:

Personnel will be advised to make known their sponsorship needs as part of the reassignment management
process.



Sponsors will be appointed as part of the strength management process for military personnel.

Standards are to forward DA Form 5434 received by higher echelons within 3 working days ofreceipt; to appoint sponsors, unless the Soldier declines, within 10 calendar days of receipt of DA Form 5434; and to
forward the sponsor welcome letter and information within 10 calendar days of appointment.

Sponsors will respond to correspondence within 10 working days of receipt.

How many days does a new unit have to contact soldier?

3 days to contact 10 days for welcome letter

How long do sponsors have to answer correspondence?

10 working days

What is the form requesting sponsorship?

DA 5434

What is the paper trail of the DA 5434?

Losing unit--MACOM--Gaining Unit--Supervisor

Who sends a welcome letter?

A welcome letter will be sent from the battalion commander, command sergeant major or commander or activity director to the incoming Soldier or civilian
employee within ten calendar days following receipt of DA Form 5434 by the battalion.

AND THE SPONSOR

ACS relocation readiness services include?

Moving classes, Welcome packets, orientation briefings

Explain reception in Sponsorship

The sponsor should coordinate a time to receive the new soldier upon arrival prior to arrival.

Explain orientation in sponsorship

The sponsor should introduce incomming soldier to the unit, take them to ACS and other informal orientation such as area familarization

Explain inprocessing in sponsorship

the sponsor does not improcess, only assists when needed

Who is required to participate in the sponsorship program?

E1 to O6 will at least be offered a sponsor upon arrival in the event of not having a sponsor prior to arrival. All first term soldiers are required to particiapte in the sponsorship program

Who is selected as a sponsor?

Only those individuals who can represent the gaining unit or activity in a positive manner will be
selected as sponsors

How are sponsors evaluated?

Feedback from new soldier, supervisors etc. Awards are also recommeded for exemplary service.

When will a sponsor be appointed?

Within 10 days of receipt of DA 5434

What criteria apply to selecting a sponsor?

A grade equal to or higher when practical.

Of the same gender, marital status, and military career field or occupational series

Familiar with the unit or activity and community

Not PCSing in the next 60 days or being replaced by the soldier.

Rules for sponsor:

Email welcome letter within 10 days.

Attempt to call incomming soldier
Answer coorespondence within 10 days
Remain a "sponsor" for as long as necessary
Act like a big brother/sister for first term soldiers

Rules for greeting a soldier:

Commander will send out military transportaion if needed AND available
Provide sponsor adaquate time to perform sponsorship duties
Provide incomming soldier with adaquate time to inprocess and avoid being placed on tdy/ftx or other duty

Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?

Yes

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?

-DA Form 5434
-Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E

sponsors should be appointed within _________ calendar days after battalion or higher activity receives the da form 5434?

10

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

-grade equal to or higher than the incoming soldier
-same sex, marital status, and military career as the incoming soldier
-The sponsor should be familiar with the unit and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1.DA Form 5434.M
2.Welcome letter.
3.ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4.Reception.
5.Orientation.
6.Inprocessing.

What is Reactionary sponsorship?

Sponsor support offered to a soldier or civilian employee arriving at an installation without an assigned sponsor

What is DA Form 7274?

Sponsorship Program Survey

For Whom Sponsorship is Mandatory?

First-Term Soldiers

what form is completed by a soldier on arrival in evaluating the units sponsorship program?

Da Form 7274

At a minimum how many welcome letters should a new arrival receive?

- one from the battalion commander (officers) - or command sergeant major (enlisted) - one from the designated sponsor

Before the Newcomer Arrival What should happen?

-Keep the chain of command informed
-Provide follow-up information newcomer needs
-Greet and receive newcomer
-Advise newcomer of arrangements for initial reception

What are the Sponsor Responsibilities

-Arrange transportation
-Meet the newcomer
-Assist with in-processing- gets to ACS
-Set up appointments
-Introduce to Chain of Command
-Acquaint with unit

Participation

-Company level
-Soldiers private through COL
-Civilian employees through grade 15

Where should the sponsor check if he/she received a Da 5434 from the incoming soldier

The army Career Tracker

What publication covers the Army Sponsorship Program

AR 600-8-8

What is the purpose of the Army Sponsorship Program?

the successful reception and integration of Soldiers and Families into their units, installations,

Sponsors will need to complete which DA form, and within how many days?

DA Form 5434, section 3

After initial in-processing, what type of assistance will the sponsor give?

a decreasing level based on the soldier's ability to function independently

In which appendix is the sponsor checklist found?

appendix C

How long will the soldier and sponsor be linked after arrival and integration?

up to 45 days

What are the soldier's responsibilities during the sponsorship process?

1. Complete section 1,2,4, and 5 of DA Form 5434
2. Reply to sponsor's communication
3. Inform BDE sponsorship coordinator is contact with sponsor has not been made within 120 days of arrival

Will will AIT soldiers initiate their DA Form 5434?

No later than the first week of their phase IV training

Which soldiers are in Tier 1?

AIT and Officer Basic Course graduates

Which soldiers are in Tier 2?

PVT - SSG
2LT - CPT
CW1 - CW2

Which soldiers are in Tier 3?

SFC - SGM

Which tier is not required but may request sponsorship?

Tier 3

Sponsorship Program ETP approval authority lies at which level of leadership?

The first general officer in the soldier's chain of command.

Long term military schools (more than 20 weeks) are required to provide what, in regards to Army Sponsorship?

1. Welcome letter
2. Sponsorship Information

**not required to provide a sponsor

What are the types of sponsorship?

1. Advanced arrival
2. Out-sponsorship
3. Reactionary Sponsorship

Which type of sponsorship is preferred?

Advanced arrival

Which type of sponsorship is provided by gaining command for unprogrammed arrivals?

Reactionary Sponsorship

How long should it take for a reactionary sponsor to be assigned?

Within 24 hours for first-term and junior soldiers

What are the duties of a reactionary sponsor?

The same as a normal sponsor

When should a sponsor be assigned to a permanent party soldier in ACT?

At least 120 days out from report date

When should a sponsor be assigned to a basic training soldier in ACT?

Within 5 calendar days of ACT notification

What are the requirements to be a RA sponsor?

1. equally in grade or higher
2. same gender, marital status, and career field
3. familiar with the unit
4. represent the unit in a positive manner

In regular army, the sponsor-soldier ratio should not exceed what?

1:5

An individual will be exempt from performing as a sponsor when he/she is...

1. being replaced by the inbound soldier
2. within 90 days of PCS
3. pending unfavorable actions
4. absent during the first 60 days
5. pending medical / physical evaluation board

What is the intent of the Army Reserve Sponsorship Program

to enhance unit readiness and RETENTION

What is the key responsibility of the CG, USARC

to designate a primary and alternate TASP manager

Army Reserves: who ensures the sponsorship process is initiated upon notification on a newly assigned solder?

the BDE/BN level commander

Army Reserves: who confirms new soldiers understand enlistment/reenlistment documents, and their TPU, military obligation, and ETS dates?

the unit Retention NCO

Army Reserve: who informs the commander on the status of the TASP?

the unit retention NCO

Army Reserve: who ensures the standards for sponsorship are established and adhered to within units of responsibility?

the senior command career counselor

What are the responsibilities of the Army Reserve Career Counsellor?

1. provide sponsor training upon request
2. ensure initial counseling requirements are completed
3. ensure appropriate documentation is completed within 30 days
4. informs leaders of the status of their sponsorship program

Army Reserves: what key responsibilities does the unit sponsorship coordinator have?

1. coordinates / manages the sponsorship program
2.

Army Reserves: what are the key responsibilities of the assigned sponsor?

1. contact the soldier prior to first battle assembly
2. establish a time/location at the reserve center to meet before formation
3. provide FRG any pertinent info
4. ensure the soldier completes in-processing
5. ensure meetings with CMD/1SG are scheduled & conducted

Army Reserves: which soldiers are required to participate in the TASP?

PVT - COL

**excluding soldiers completing AIT or other long-term schools

Army Reserves: how will a sponsor be selected?

1. duty-appointed by CMD
2. remain duty-appointed until no longer needed by the soldier - not to exceed 120 days
3. will act as a big brother/sister for first-term soldiers

Army Reserves: what are the requirements to serve as a sponsor?

1. equal in grade or higher
2. same gender, marital status, career field

Army Reserves: what would exempt someone from being a sponsor?

1. the person being replaced by the incoming soldier
2. within 60 days of PCS
3. pending administrative action
4. unavailable for 4 consecutive battle assemblies

National Guard: what happens with non-prior service soldiers?

they will be directly attached to their state's Recruit Sustainment Program until completion of Basic and AIT.

National Guard: what happens with prior service soldiers?

all prior service soldiers will report directly to their unit of assignment

National Guard: is the sponsorship program an important element the ARNG attrition management system?

yes

National Guard: who is responsible for overall implementation of the sponsorship program?

1. Commanders
2. CSM's
3. 1SG's
4. FLL's
5. Retention NCO's

National Guard: who appoints a soldier's sponsor?

1SG

National Guard: who should the sponsor be in relation to the soldier?

the soldier's first line supervisor

National Guard: what will sponsors use to ensure all sponsorship steps have been completed?

the ARNG sponsorship checklist

National Guard: what key things are noted in the ARNG sponsorship checklist

1. introduction of key personnel
2. explanation of unit history
3. equipment issue

National Guard: will the 1SG issue a sponsor to a soldier who has an extended leave of absence?

yes

National Guard: who is responsible for completion of initial sponsorship effort?

1SG

Sponsors to Tier 1 soldiers are expected to do what?

1. act as a big brother/sister
2. develop a sense of responsibility for fellow soldiers

Developing a sense of responsibility for fellow soldiers is intended to to what?

improve safety and reduce the likelihood and opportunity for sexual assault, misconduct, and suicide gestures

What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?

AR 600-8-8

What is S-Gate?

S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of Command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR websites and regulator information.

What DA form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands? and How soon after the DA Form is received should a sponsor be assigned?

1) DA Form 5434, 2) Within 10 days unless declined

What does block 5 on the DA Form 5434 M cover?

Family considerations

Who is responsible for the sponsorship program within a unit?

Senior NCO, 1SG or CSM

What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?

1) a grade equal or higher, 2) same gender, 3) be familiar with the unit or activity and community

What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?

1) DA Form 5434 M, 2) Welcome letter, 3) ACS Relocation Readiness Services, 4) Reception, 5) Orientation, 6) In processing.

Army Family Advocacy Program (FAP)

What AR covers Army Family Advocacy Program?

AR 608-18

What does Section 1 ofChapter 3 of AR 608-18 cover?

Section 1: Prevention of Spouse and Child Abuse ( Chapter 3: Response to Spouse and Child Abuse)

What is the purpose of prevention?

The prevention program is designed to create community and command
awareness of abuse, provide information of existing services, and provide specific educational programs

What does Prevention include?

includes awareness, education, and intervention in high-risk situations

What is Primary Prevention?

is community-based, promotes wellness for everyone, and commits resources to enhance
healthy individual, couple, and Family functioning.

creates a climate of awareness that encourages voluntary participation. Stress and anger
management classes, New Parent Support Programs (NPSP), couples-communication groups, parent-child groups, marital enrichment programs, home visiting programs, childcare opportunities, parent education classes, and Family wellness programs

What is Secondary prevention?

refers to those activities and services offered on a voluntary basis to individuals, couples,
or Families considered to be "at risk" because of their current life situation to address early symptoms of stress and crisis before they escalate into violent behavior

What is Tertiary prevention?

means assessment, intervention, and treatment services after an allegation has been made

Who manages Primary and Secondary Prevention?

ACS FAP prevention staff

Who manages tertiary prevention?

a medical treatment facility (MTF)

What form is used when referred to FAP?

DA Form 7517 (DD-FM&P (W1738))

Explain the Community education program in regards to FAP:

informs the military community of the extent and nature of spouse
and child abuse and focuses awareness of Family violence, including how to report it and what services are available

The purpose is to promote community
support and encourage early referral

Explain the Commander education program in regards to FAP:

The nature of spouse and child abuse and how to prevent it.
(2) FAP policies and procedures.
(3) Available FAP services and resources.
(4) Command responsibilities for identification, reporting, and coordination with the CRC.
(5) Information on FAP prevention services.
(6) Mandatory briefing requirements for unit commanders and senior enlisted advisers within 45 days after appointment to a command position.

Explain the Troop education program in regards to FAP:

annual troop education by FAP personnel for all Soldiers on the Family dynamics of spouse and child abuse, the availability of prevention and treatment services, and the Army's policies regarding Family violence

Education for professionals program.

is program provides semiannual education for personnel who work with
children (for example, those working in CYS and schools) to ensure that they are aware of the seriousness of child
abuse, the causes and effects of child abuse, the identification of child abuse, and the reporting responsibilities of child
abuse.

Parent education and support

arent education and support programs develop skills in physical care, protection,
supervision and nurturing appropriate to a child's age and stage of development.

Parent education program

This program involves education that is designed to enhance parenting and child
management skills.

New-parent support program

Primary prevention (NPSP-Standard) targets all Families with children 3 years of age and younger. (3-6 month cycles) Secondary prevention (NPSP-Plus) targets parents at moderate to high risk
Respite care

Safety education programs

The first target group is composed of
parents, teachers, caregivers, and all concerned adults in the community. This audience needs information about how to protect children and how to listen to and talk with children about child abuse prevention.

Spouse abuse prevention programs.

Strengthening and stabilizing intimate relationships is one approach to preventing marital distress and spouse abuse. The goals of spouse abuse prevention programs are to enhance and sustain communication, decision-making, and conflict-resolution skills and to clarify perceptions within the relationship

Victim advocacy services program

Provides comprehensive assistance and support to victims of spouse abuse, including crisis intervention, assistance in securing medical treatment for injuries, information on legal rights and proceedings, and referral to military and civilian shelters and other resources available to victims

What does Section 2 ofChapter 3 of AR 608-18 cover?

Reporting of Spouse and Child Abuse Incidents

What is mandated each installation will do?

Each installation will establish a telephone reporting system for handling all reports of spouse and child abuse

Where should most installations send these phone calls?

In most instances, the central location for receiving reports of abuse should be the MTF emergency room or MP desk,

What is the minimum requirement for an installation?

A report point of contact available to on and off post military members 24 hours a day

Are all service members compelled to report an incident?

No, they are encourage though as the information is received and annonmous reporting is an option as well as confidentiality

Who is required to report an incident?

All installation law enforcement personnel, physicians, nurses, social workers, school personnel, FAP and CYS
personnel, psychologists, and other medical personnel will as soon as the information is received
Commanders will report allegations of abuse involving their Soldiers

When are commanders informed of an incident?

within 24 hours of receipt by the CRC chairperson

What is included in the report given to the commander?

, the type of abuse, the alleged abuser, the case manager, and the date and
time of the next CRC meeting at which the case will be reviewed.

What civilian reports are introduced into the FAP?

All state reports regarding the soldier and family.

Family Advocacy Program Mission

enhance AF readiness by promoting family and community health, as well as resiliency. The mission includes promoting family health, welfare and morale by preventing cases of maltreatment.

Family Advocacy Program components

Maltreatment Intervention
Prevention Services

AF Directive

AF Directive form 40-301

Installation Levels

Installation CC is responsible for operations and effectiveness of the installation FAP

Family Advocacy Committee (FAC)

Develops, publishes, and maintains installation directives which will include policy statements

Mental Health Tech Responsibilites while in FAP

Screening outpatient records for FAP history
Logging cases
Establishing FAP records

Process for FAP Maltreatment Program

Referall
Intake
Assessment
Case Management
Maltreatment Intervention

Maltreatment 3 Categories

Victims
Alleged Offender
Child Sexual Abuse

Situations where no FAP record is opened

Intra-Familial abuse of parents by their own children
Elder abuse except if victim is unable to care for self
Child sexual activity among peers

2 Main teams that make up FAP-IMT

Central Registry Board (CRB)
Clinical Case Staffing (CCS)

CRB

Is a multi-disciplinary team that makes administrative determinations for suspected family maltreatment meeting DoD/AF definitions

Purpose of CRB

Is to decide if each referral of suspected family maltreatment meets the AF criteria of family maltreatment

CRB Meetings

They are held in the wing headquarters

CRB Minutes

minutes of the CRB will be generated within 30 days

Child Sexual Maltreatment Response Team (CSMRT)

CSMRT has 72 hours to investigate allegations

High Risk for Violence Response Team (HRVRT)

HRVRT manages potentially dangerous situation involving FAP clients and/or FAP staff such

Maltreatment Records

Records must be secured by double-lock

FAP maltreatment record

will be opened with a referral when reasonable suspicion exists that maltreatment has occured in AD family

Maltreatment Records

maltreatment records file identified by the sponsor's name

Maltreatment Records Administration

DD Form 2005 has the Privacy Act Statement

Data Collection Instruments

child/spouse maltreatment incident report, produced by FASOR

Chronological Documentation

SF 600 chronological record of medical care, in chronological order

FAP Intervention

All prevention program intervations will be provided using evidence-based programs and approaches for supporting protective factors as determined by FAP

FAP Prevention

Primary purpose of the FA Prevention Program is to enhance mission readiness by preventing the occurance of child and spouse maltreatment

FAOM

FA Outreach Manager

FAIS

FA Intervention Specialist where no FOAM is assigned

NPSP

New parent support program

FAST

Family Advocacy Strength-Based Training staff

Prevention Programs services

Stress Management
Parenting Skills
Awareness campains such as child abuse prevention month
Anger management

NPSP Program

Is a home-based prevention program for military families

NPSP Principle Focus

Principle focus of the NPSP is to identify new parents at risk for maltreatment
Home visits should be scheduled for two hours

NPSP Home Visits Include

Updated assessment of the home environment
safety issues
family stresses
family interventions
family health issues
the need for further intervention

Family Advocacy Strength Based (FAST)

FAST clients must be eligible beneficiaries, with priority to active duty memebers and their families
The family does not have an open maltreatment record and is not eligible for NPSP

FAST Services

serivces will be documented in the FAST services record

What does the acronym FAP stand for?

Family Advocacy Program.

Explain the Family Advocacy Program.

It is dedicated to domestic and child abuse prevention, education, prompt to reporting investigations, intervention, and treatment. Held Soldiers and Families recognize and meet the unique challenges of military lifestyles. Services include seminars, workshops, counseling, and intervention to help strengthen Army Families, enhance resiliency and relationship skills, and improve quality of life.

What four areas does FAP program focus on?

Personal Safety; self sufficiency; personal preparedness; and community cohesion

Name two FAP resources.

EFMP, New Parent Support, victimismo Advocacy Services Program

What regulation covers FAP?

AR 608-1

JKO SEJPME-US002-22

Which headquarters level typically focuses assessment on answering the question "Are we doing things right?"
*NOT* Operational

Which of the following statements best describes the key aspects of an assessment process observation table?
* Source criteria, collection means, and commander/staff interface venues

Which of the following key roles enrich the assessment process and provides collaboration between the military and nongovernmental agencies?
* Stakeholder Involvement

Which headquarters level looks more broadly at assessment within their area of responsibility and often concentrates assessment efforts on determining whether progress has been made toward accomplishing the mission?
* theater strategic

Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)?
* straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE?
* Staff assessments products do not necessarily have to support the commander's requirements, as long as the products provide meaningful information.

Which assessment level involves asking the question "are we doing the right thing?"

Operational environment

Which of the following describes how assessments deepen the understanding of the operational environment (OE)

All of these describe how assessments deepen the understanding of the OE

Which of the following describes the role of the measure of performance (MOP) in conducting assessments?

Straight forward and is drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

The basis for establishing an assessment includes all of the following except?

Enabling an accurate visualization of past success as a template for all future missions

The tendency to over-engineer staff assessment products is a challenge that occurs within which of the following roles?

Staff

The J2 plays an important role in assessment because _____.

They provide much of the information for the operational environment (OE) assessment

What is the purpose of color-coding approach used in the staff assessment product? (Select all that apply)

1. Track progress over time
2. Provide understanding for the operational commander and common framework to allow sharing and discussion among commanders

Which of the following is an example of a measure of effectiveness (MOE) indicator?

forces or civilians injured

Which of the following identifies assessment criteria that are determined during planning and require periodic review and refinement?

measures of performance (MOP) and measures of effectiveness (MOE)

What important constraints must the staff consider in order to craft the best assessment products for the commander

The staff must understand how the commander wants to get the information, and must ensure clear connections between the objectives and the metrics they are using.

Which headquarters level looks more broadly at assessment within their area of responsibility and often concentrates assessment efforts on determining whether progress has been made toward accomplishing the mission?

theater strategic

In addition to helping deepen the understanding of the operational environment (OE), what else serves as the basis for assessment?

Supports joint force progress towards accomplishing the mission, MOP and MOE are determined during planning, and indicators require periodic review and refinement or change

The tendency to over-engineer assessment products is a challenge that occurs within which of the following roles?

staff

Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)?

straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

Which headquarters level typically focuses assessment on answering the question "Are we doing things right?"

tactical

What is the purpose of the color-coding approach used in staff assessment products (i.e., green - on plan, amber - off plan but okay, etc.)? (Select all that apply.)

these provide understanding for the operational commander and a common framework to allow sharing and discussion among commanders

- these allow tracking over time of progress

In what way does the J2 play an important role in assessments?

They provide much of the information for assessments via the J2/Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC)

JKO USSOUTHCOM Joint Task Force (JTF) Lifecycle Plan and Form

Because of the unique nature and visibility these task forces may be established as a separate task force and work directly for the JTF commander or be attached to the Joint Special Operations Task Force. (Concept and Example, Page 24)

Joint CMO Task Force and Joint PSYOPS Task Force (correct)

What is the event horizon for current operations? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 11)

Inside of 24 hours (correct)

In what phase is the operations order developed once a course of action is approved? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 8)

NOT
Strategic guidance phase

The early insertion of joint enablers provides key planning and communications capacity. (Operational Environment, Page 3)

True (correct)

What publication addresses the tasks associated with forming a joint task force? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 2)

Universal Joint Task List (correct)

Which one of the following members of the Command Group is usually chosen based on mission requirements and is usually NOT of the same service as the joint task force commander? (Forming the Joint Task Force: Doctrine and Tasks, Page 13)

NOT
Command Senior Enlisted Leader

The establishing authority responsibilities of the combatant command when setting up a JTF focus on _____________________. (Forming the Joint Task Force: Doctrine and Tasks, Page 12)

providing and facilitating (correct)

The phases of the JTF Lifecycle are fluid, overlapping and some may continue throughout the entire life of the JTF. (Objectives and Suggested Readings, Page 3)

False (correct)

The staff processes for contingency and crisis action planning are the same.

True (correct)

Combatant commands operate as the lead when directing military or humanitarian assistance operations. (Concept and Example, Page 4)

False (correct)

Which one of the following best describes contingency planning? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 5)

Planning done in anticipation of a potential crisis outside of crisis conditions (correct)

An earthquake devastates an area within the SOUTHCOM area or responsibility creating an humanitarian crisis. Due to the degree of destruction the decision is made to stand up a JTF to facilitate relief activities. At this point what should be the focus of SOUTHCOM? (Concept and Example, Page 12)

NOT
Establishing relationships with host nation and multinational partners through the embassy and Department of State

Which publication contains the tasks for both the combatant command and the joint task force? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 2)

NOT
CJCS Manual 3500.05A

In the JTF organization, what is the time horizon of future planning? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 11)

NOT
Activities within 24 hours

Which one of the following best describes the function of the Joint Enabling Capabilities Command ? (Concept and Example, Page 2)

NOT
Engages in liaison activities between to enable collaboration tasks between the JTF and multinational and intergovernmental organizations

What member of the command group is responsible for establishing and managing staff processes and procedures that support the command's decision making process? (Forming the Joint Task Force: Doctrine and Tasks, Page 13)

NOT
Command Senior Enlisted Advisor

What type of planning can be best understood as branches of an overarching global or theatre campaign plan? (Planning the Joint Task Force: Central Processes, Page 5)

NOT
Crisis action planning

Military interventions have largely been undertake to _______. (Operational Environment, Page 2)

achieve our enduring stability goals (correct)

JKO USSOUTHCOM Annual Security Awareness (CUI)

Who does a person that has knowledge of a loss or possible compromise of classified information report to and how soon?

The Security Hotline at 305-437-2345 or the Information Security Office at 305-437-1175 , immediately.

The wearing of a USSOUTHCOM security badge implies "need to know" regarding access to classified information.

False

Cover sheets are not required when handling Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).

False

It is authorized to have classified discussions in the HQ building hallways and/or restrooms, as long as the person you are speaking to has the proper clearance and a need to know.

False

When material is derivatively classified based on "multiple sources," the derivative classifier shall compile a list of the sources used. This list shall be included in, or attached to the derivative document.

True

You received an email on NIPRNET that you believe may contain classified information. You should?

Immediately contact the Security Hotline at (305) 437-2345 or the Information Security Office at (305) 437-1175.

Identify the correct employee type or access.

Contractor (3), (5) TS/SCI Access

Compromise of classified information is defined as:

The unauthorized disclosure of classified information.

When transporting classified materials within the HQ building, which of the following is required?

A classified document cover sheet over the document and placed in a folder or envelope ensuring the classification level of the document is not exposed during transit.

Threats to classified and unclassified government assets include:

All of the provided choices are correct.

What classification level should be applied to information that could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to the national security?

Confidential

If you suspect that information has been over-classified, who must you contact to challenge the classification?

Contact the Original Classification Authority (OCA) of the information.

Choose the correct overall classification for the document.

SECRET/NOFORN

JKO USSOUTHCOM Emergency Response and Active Shooter Preparedness

1) The person identified in the Installation Emergency Management plan who has overall authority and responsibility for the management of an incident operation is the:

nstallation Emergency Manager
Incident Response Commander (correct)
Evacuation Assistant
Chief of Police

Emergencies that may occur include:

Active Shooter (correct)
Fire (correct)
Zika virus epidemic
Catastrophic Flu
Bomb Threat (correct)

In an active shooter situation, it is recommended that personnel follow the three basic courses of action listed below. Which is the correct order?

Run - Fight - Hide
Run - Hide - Fight (correct)
Fight - Run - Hide
Hide - Run - Fight

) An active shooter is an individual or group of individuals actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

True (correct)
False

In the event of an emergency, personnel may be required to evacuate the SC HQ building or shelter-in-place, but in either case emergency assistance must be requested by dialing 9-911.

True (correct)
False

JKO USSOCOM Post-Deployment Intelligence Oversight Course

USSOCOM may collect and retain information on U.S. persons while determining if the information may be retained permanently for up to:

180 days (wrong)
60 days (wrong)

Which of the following describe the independent oversight of intelligence activities within the command?

Inspector General

The IO program applies to the following personnel:

All staff organizations that collect, process, retain, or disseminate intelligence information. (wrong)

After 9/11, collection of information on U.S. persons was relaxed for DOD for prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism regardless of applicability of command mission.

False.

USSOCOM Manual 381-10 applies to:

All intelligence components assigned to Joint Special Operations Command (wrong)

If deployed, all questionable IO activity should be reported to:

Your Special Operations Judge Advocate (wrong)

The Special Operations Judge Advocate is responsible for:

Oversight of USSOCOM IO program and reporting violations. (wrong)

The IO program was established to: (check all that apply)

Ensure protection of the rights of U.S. persons
Regulate DOD intelligence activities

JKO USSOCOM Intelligence Oversight Course (FOUO)

SOCOM primary mission

primary mission is to organize, train, and equip special operations forces (SOF) and provides those forces to the Geographic Combatant Commanders under whose operational control they serve

what are the seven sub-components to SOCOM

1. USASOC
2. NSWC
3. AFSOC
4. MARSOC
5. JSOC
6. JSOU
7. SOC-JC

What are the responsibilities of the Commander, USSOCOM

to organize, train, and equip SOF for current and future challenges and:
(1) Serve as the SOF joint force provider.
(2) Integrate and coordinate DOD MISO capabilities to enhance interoperability and support US Strategic Command's IO responsibilities and other CCDRs' MISO planning and execution.
(3) Synchronize planning for global operations against terrorist networks in coordination with other CCDRs, the Services, and as directed, appropriate USG departments and agencies.
(4) Train SO force, including developing recommendations to the CJCS regarding strategy, doctrine, tactics, techniques, and procedures for the joint employment of SOF

SOCOM additional missions

1. develops special operations strategy, doctrine, and procedures for the use of SOF and also develops and procures specialized, SOF-unique equipment for its assigned forces
2. the lead COCOM for synchronizing DOD planning against terrorists and their networks on a global basis (and executive with orders from POTUS or SecDef)

what is the CDRUSSOCOM

an FCC who exercises COCOM of all assigned AC [Active Component] and mobilized RC [Reserve Component] SOF minus US Army Reserve CA and MISO [Military Information Support Operations] forces

US Army SOC assets

Green Berets; Rangers; Civil Affairs, and Military Information Support Operations (MISO)

Naval Special Warfare Command assets

- SEAL teams that conduct operations in both maritime and ground environments
- SEAL Delivery Vehicle (SDV) teams—specialized SEALs that pilot small submersible vehicles that can deliver SEALs to their area of operations
- Special Boat Teams that can deliver SEALs from ship to shore as well as operate in the littorals and rivers

AFSOC assets

- provides specialized fixed and rotary wing support to USSOCOM units
- Combat Controllers, Pararescue Jumpers, Special Operations Weather Teams, and Tactical Air Control Parties (TACPs)

Marine Special Operations Command

- newest subcomponent
- three Marine Special Operations Battalions
- a Marine Special Operations Support Group
- a Marine Special Operations Intelligence Battalion
- Marine Special Operations School.

Joint Special Operations Command capabilities

1. JSOC is a sub unified command charged with studying special operations requirements and techniques to ensure interoperability and equipment standardization
2. plans and conducts special operations exercises and training and develops joint special operations tactics
3. Press reports suggest JSOC is home to USSOCOM's national mission forces which reportedly conduct highly sensitive combat and supporting operations against terrorists on a world-wide basis.

Joint Special Operations University mission

Educate Special Operations Forces executive, senior, and intermediate leaders and selected other national and international security decision-makers, both military and civilian, through teaching, research, and outreach in the science and art of Joint Special Operations

Special Operations Command - Joint Capabilities mission

to train conventional and special operations force commanders and their staffs in the employment of Special Operations Forces focusing on the full integration of SOF and the conventional forces in both planning and execution to enhance warfighting readiness.

USSOCOMs comparative advantage

three pillars: 1) persistent engagement, 2) enabling partners, and 3) discreet action

SOF core activities

1. direct action
2. special recon
3. unconventional warefare
4. foreign internal defense
5. civil affairs ops
6. military information support ops
7. counter-proliferation of WMD
8. security force assistance
9. hostage rescue and recovery
10. foreign humanitarian assistance
11. counterterrorism
12. counterinsurgency

direct action

Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions employing specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets

special recon

Actions conducted in sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance

unconventional warefare

Actions to enable a resistance movement or insurgency to coerce, disrupt, or overthrow a government or occupying power

foreign internal defense

Activities that support an HN's internal defense and development (IDAD) strategy and program designed to protect against subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, and other threats to their internal security, and stability, and legitimacy

civil affairs ops (CAO)

CAO enhance the relationship between military forces and civilian authorities in localities where military forces are present

counterterrorism

Actions taken directly against terrorist networks and indirectly to influence and render global and regional environments inhospitable to terrorist networks

military information support operations (MISO)

Counter-proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction

Activities to support USG efforts to curtail the conceptualization, development, possession, proliferation, use, and effects of weapons of mass destruction (WMD), related expertise, materials, technologies, and means of delivery by state and non-state actors

security force assistant

Activities based on organizing, training, equipping, rebuilding, and advising various components of Foreign Security Forces

counterinsurgency

The blend of civilian and military efforts designed to end insurgent violence and facilitate a return to peaceful political processes.n

hostage rescue and recovery

Offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorist threats and incidents, including recapture of U.S. facilities, installations, and sensitive material in overseas areas

foreign humanitarian assistance

The range of DOD humanitarian activities conducted outside the US and its territories to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation

JKO USINDOPACOM Intelligence Oversight Training

To whom can I report a violation?

All the above

What groups of personnel performing intel-related activities could collect, analyze, process, retain, or disseminate information on US persons?

Military, Government Civilians, Contractors

What two goals does IO try to balance?

Protect national security.
Protect individual constitutional rights.

What is the primary DoD publication covering IO? [Remediation Accessed :N]

DODD 4715.12 (wrong)

IO applies to all military, government, and contractor personnel in organizations performing intelligence or intelligence related activities that collect, analyze, process, retain or disseminate information on U.S. persons.

True

A person currently in the U.S. under a travel visa is considered a U.S. person under IO.

False.

What document governs United States Intelligence activities throughout government, ensuring the interests of national security are protected while maintaining the Constitutional rights of all U.S. persons?

EO12334 (wrong)
EO10450 (wrong)
EO10555

Under which procedure in DODD 5240.1-R is it legal for JPRA to retain information collected on U.S. persons?

Procedure 3

DoD intelligence components are authorized to cooperate with law enforcement under certain circumstances.

True

Why does JPRA need to have an IO program?

JPRA is an intelligence organization. X

JKO USPACOM Theater Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (T-JFMCC)

Knowledge management integrates tacit and explicit knowledge making it available to higher authority and subordinates to facilitate PACFLT operational planning teams (OPT).

TRUE

What mission area would include activities such as Hostile and Uncertain Non-combatant Evacuation Operations?

OFENSIVE AND DEFENSIVE OPERATIONS

Commander U.S. Pacific Command delegates OPCON of U.S. Navy forces assigned to PACOM to COMPACFLT as the Navy Component Commander.

TRUE

What is the function of the Maritime Operations staff?

EMPLOY THE FORCE

What command, along with PACFLT, shares responsibility for preparing the force based on Title 10 requirements?

US FLEET FORCES COMMAND

The Maritime Operations Center is part of a Navy-wide, top-down effort focused on defining and developing operational level headquarters around the globe. What PACFLT organization supports this effort?

MARITIME HEADQUARTERS

A maritime headquarters must balance operational joint force activity and ______________.

OPERATIONAL CONTROL (OPCON)

What are the four main centers of the T-JFMCC MOC?

LOGISTICS READINESS CENTER (LRC)

NAVY COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM COORDINATION CENTER (NCCC)

FLEET COMMAND CENTER (FCC)

MARITIME INTELLIGENCE OPERATIONS CENTER - PACIFIC (MIOC-P)

Chapter 6 of Title 10 addresses the specific laws as they apply to _______________.

THE U.S. NAVY AND MARINE CORPS

Which two of the following statements about PACFLT are true?

AS NCC, PACFLT HAS OPCON AND PROVIDES ASSIGNED FORCES TO CDR USPACOM

AS T-LFMCC, PACFLT HAS TACON AND EMPLOYS FORCES ASSIGNED BY CDR USPACOM

Maritime Operations Center (MOC) posture flexes in response to the nature of world crises. What is the normal and routine MOC posture?

LEVEL 0

What is a distinct aspect of the Maritime Operations Center (MOC) functionality?

THE MOC LACKS INTERNAL LINES OF COMMAND RELYING ON CROSS-FUCTIONAL PROCESSES FOR ORGANIZATIONAL EFFECTIVENESS

What knowledge management tool consolidates Higher Headquarters (HHQ) to Strike Group and Amphibious Readiness Group (ARG) tactical, operational and selective administrative information in one central SIPRNet location?

COLLABORATION AT SEA(CAS)

What senior leadership position is responsible for establishing and managing staff processes and procedures at PACFLT?

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR AND DIRECTOR OF STAFF

Which two of the following Logistics Readiness Center responsibilities support the Direct phase of the Commander's Decision cycle?

PROMULGATE LOGISTICS CONOPS

ANNEX D

What MOC tasks are related to the recognized decision-making process?

Plan, direct, monitor, assess, and communicate

What N-code billet functions as the Maritime Planning Group Director?

N5 Director for Plans and Policy

What is the mission of the Theater-Joint Force Maritime Component Commander?

EXERCISE TACON OVER OTHER MILITARY CAPABILITIES AND FORECES MADE AVAILABLE FOR TASKING

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

OFFENSIVE AND DEFENSIVEOPERATIONS

What is knowledge management?

A PROCESS THAT TURNS RELEVANT INFORMATION AND DATA INTO DECISION-QUALITY KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING

A maritime headquarters must balance operational joint force activity and

OPERATIONAL CONTROL (OPCON)

The three basic functions of PACFLT as an operational level of war headquarters are to provide the force, prepare the force and assign forces

What is the event horizon during Normal and Routine operations?

Greater than 120 days

The three basic functions of PACFLT as an operational level of war headquarters are to provide the force, prepare the force and assign forces

False

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

Offensive and Defensive operations

What cross-functional decision making entity executes Plans Management Functions across three planning event horizons?

Maritime Planning Group

Which two of the following statements underscore the importance of PACFLT knowledge management?

Knowledge management integrates tacit and explicit knowledge making it available to higher authority and subordinates to facilitate PACFLT operational planning teams (OPT)

Knowledge management supports shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making

Knowledge management contributes to organizing information required for enterprise situational awareness and the PACFLT Maritime Operations Center objective of decentralized decision making and execution

At PACFLT, what senior leadership position is responsible for accomplishing the main functions of operational planning, combat operations, Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), air and sea mobility, and operational sustainability?

DIRECTOR OF MARITIME OPERATIONS CENTER

Knowledge management enhances decision-making by supporting shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making.

TRUE

The Maritime Intelligence Operations Center-Pacific (MIOC-P) connects with a number of cells that support the activities of the MIOC-P. Which one of the following supporting cells serves as the commander's common operating picture database manager for red and white tracks?

Watch Cell

Which of the following is defined as articulated knowledge as contained in documented databases, reports, manuals and expressed and recorded as words, numbers, codes, and mathematical and scientific formulae?

Explicit knowledge

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

Providing the force

Preparing the force

Contrary to its name, the Maritime Planning Group does no actual planning

TRUE

Which two of the following describe the two fleet management mission types?

PREPARING THE FORCE

PROVIDING THE FORCE

An operational maritime command and its associated support infrastructure are collectively known as a _____________________________.

MARITIME OPERATIONS CENTER

Generally the difference between N-codes and MOC centers is that the N-codes support Fleet Management and the MOC centers support maritime operations.

TRUE

The T-JFMCC MOC transitions to the N-Code Directorate structure when supporting contingency and crisis operations

false

What is COMPACFLT's mission as the Navy Component Commander?

provide interoperable, trained, and combat ready naval forces

Which two of the following functions are performed by the Maritime HQ Staff?

Tacit knowledge

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

Theater Security Cooperation and Phase 0 Operations

Which two of the following statements underscore the importance of PACFLT knowledge management?

Knowledge management contributes to organizing information required for enterprise situational awareness and the PACFLT Maritime Operations Center objective of decentralized decision making and execution

Knowledge management supports shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making

During normal and routine operations how often does the Maritime Planning Group meet?

monthly

What MOC center is required to attain, maintain, and share operational situational awareness?

Fleet Command Center (FCC)

An operational maritime command and its associated support infrastructure are collectively known as a _____________________________.

Maritime Headquarters

What knowledge management tool provides community spaces and collaborative tools available to the DOD and mission partners in order to leverage information to effectively plan, train and respond to meet their business requirements and mission objectives?

All Partners Access Network (APAN)

Knowledge management integrates tacit and explicit knowledge making it available to higher authority and subordinates to facilitate PACFLT operational planning teams (OPT).

False

Which two of the following statements underscore the importance of PACFLT knowledge management?

Knowledge management contributes to organizing information required for enterprise situational awareness and the PACFLT Maritime Operations Center objective of decentralized decision making and execution

Knowledge management supports shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making

What mission area would include activities such as Hostile and Uncertain Non-combatant Evacuation Operations?

Offensive and Defensive Operations

The MOC lacks internal lines of command relying on cross-functional processes for organizational effectiveness

What is a distinct aspect of the Maritime Operations Center (MOC) functionality?

Level 0

Maritime Operations Center (MOC) posture flexes in response to the nature of world crises. What is the normal and routine MOC posture?

True

Staff planning horizons are dependent on the amount of time the MOC staff must look into the future, regardless of whether it is normal and routine, contingency, or crisis operations.

- Theater Strategic Communications Working Group (correct)
- Commander's Action Group

Which two of the following groups ensure strategic communication advice to the Maritime Planning Group that is aligned with PACOM's?

Sustainment and Services Cell

What significant Logistics Readiness Center cells' purpose is to plan and direct logistics operations for all classes of supply in the PACOM AOR?

- As T-JFMCC, PACFLT has TACON and employs forces assigned by CDR USPACOM
- As NCC, PACFLT has OPCON and provides assigned forces to CDR USPACOM

Which two of the following statements about PACFLT are true?

Operational Control (OPCON)

A maritime headquarters must balance operational joint force activity and ______________.

Employ the force

What is the function of the Maritime Operations staff?

Explicit knowledge

Which of the following is defined as articulated knowledge as contained in documented databases, reports, manuals and expressed and recorded as words, numbers, codes, and mathematical and scientific formulae?

Executive Director and Director of Staff

What senior leadership position is responsible for establishing and managing staff processes and procedures at PACFLT?

All Partners Access Network (APAN)

What knowledge management tool provides community spaces and collaborative tools available to the DOD and mission partners in order to leverage information to effectively plan, train and respond to meet their business requirements and mission objectives?

Provide interoperable, trained, and combat-ready naval forces

What is COMPACFLT's mission as the Navy Component Commander?

Offensive and Defensive Operations

What mission area would include activities such as Hostile and Uncertain Non-combatant Evacuation Operations?

U.S. Fleet Forces Command

What command, along with PACFLT, shares responsibility for preparing the force based on Title 10 requirements?

Maritime Headquarters

The Maritime Operations Center is part of a Navy-wide, top-down effort focused on defining and developing operational level headquarters around the globe. What PACFLT organization supports this effort?

Fleet Command Center (FCC) (correct)
Navy Communications System Coordination Center (NCCC)
Maritime Intelligence Operations Center - Pacific (MIOC-P)
Logistics Readiness Center (LRC)

What are the four main centers of the T-JFMCC MOC?

False

The T-JFMCC MOC transitions to the N-Code Directorate structure when supporting contingency and crisis operations.

Chapter 6 of Title 10

Which part of the U.S. Code establishes the authority of Combatant Commanders over assigned forces?

True

Knowledge management enhances decision-making by supporting shared situational awareness, enabling a common understanding of the Commander's intent, and enhancing the speed and quality of decision-making.

X Offensive and Defensive operations

What mission area supports PACOM theater strategy?

A process that turns relevant information and data into decision-quality knowledge and understanding

What is knowledge management?

X U.S. Pacific Command

What command, along with PACFLT, shares responsibility for preparing the force based on Title 10 requirements?

Annex D
Promulgate logistics CONOPS

Which two of the following Logistics Readiness Center responsibilities support the Direct phase of the Commander's Decision cycle?

Director of the Maritime Operations Center

At PACFLT, what senior leadership position is responsible for accomplishing the main functions of operational planning, combat operations, Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), air and sea mobility, and operational sustainability?

Employ the force

What is the function of the Maritime Operations staff?

X Maritime Operations Center

An operational maritime command and its associated support infrastructure are collectively known as a _____________________________.

All Partners Access Network (APAN)

What knowledge management tool provides community spaces and collaborative tools available to the DOD and mission partners in order to leverage information to effectively plan, train and respond to meet their business requirements and mission objectives?

- The primary operational functions of the HQ are organizationally separated from the administrative, support, and fleet management functions of the staff
- A cross-function structure is overlaid on the traditional N-code structure, creating a network of people, processes, and functions
- Cross-functional boards, centers, cells, and working groups are managed via a battle rhythm (BR) that aligns with the Commander's decision cycle

What are the three ways the Maritime Operations Center construct adds to the traditional N-codes staff structure and processes?

Planning capacity

During times of contingency and crisis operations the Maritime Planning Group expands to provide additional ____________________________.

True

Commander U.S. Pacific Command delegates OPCON of U.S. Navy forces assigned to PACOM to COMPACFLT as the Navy Component Commander.

Exercise TACON over other military capabilities and forces made available for tasking

What is the mission of the Theater-Joint Force Maritime Component Commander?

JKO Basic Antennas Overview

hat is wave propagation?

Transmission of energy by electromagnetic radiation

What are the two electromagnetic fields associated with every antenna?

Induction and radiation fields

Basic antenna systems are composed of what two fields?

Electric and magnetic

What is electromagnetic radiation?

Radiation associated with periodically varying electric and magnetic fields

Electrical field exists around all _______________.

Electrically charged objects

In an electrical field lines travel from...

positive to negative

An electrical field is generated by ___________of antenna

capacitive action

In an electrical field lines connect....

at a right angle

An induction field continually...

expands and contracts

What type of combined field doesn't exist apart from the antenna?

Induction field

The direction of the magnetic field is determined by....

the direction of the current flow

Which field is represented by lines forming closed loops around a current-carrying conductor?

Magnetic (H) field

Which combined field is the action of the expanding and collapsing of the induction field causes radiation to be radiation to be released?

Radiation field

What are the two types of polarization?

Vertical and horizontal

Which type of polarization has an E field perpendicular to the Earth's surface?

Vertical

Which type of polarization is ideal for antennas at higher elevation?

Horizontal

Which type of polarization has an E field parallel to the Earth's surface?

Horizontal

Which type of polarization has the greater signal strength along the Earth's surface?

Vertical

Which polarization has the advantage of simple antenna?

Vertical

Which polarization has the less loss in dense areas?

Horizontal

Which polarization is affected less by reflection?

Vertical

Which polarization has the stronger receiver signal?

Vertical

Which polarization is the less likely to be affected by man-made interference?

Horizontal

Waves, light waves, radio waves, etc. are all types of ...

Electromagnetic energy

Radio waves have a shape that is similar to?

A sine wave

Electromagnetic waves travel

at the speed of light

What can likely slow down an electromagnetic wave?

Atmospheric conditions

What are wavelengths in Basic Antenna Systems?

The space occupied by one full cycle of a wave at any given instant

What are wavelengths measured in?

Meters

What are the two types of waves?

Ground waves and sky waves

What are the two types of ground waves?

Surface waves and direct waves

What are surface waves?

Waves that travel along the ground

What are direct waves?

Waves that travel from the transmitting to the receiving antenna.

What are sky waves?

Radio waves returned to Earth from the ionosphere

From the earth to space what is the order of regions of the atmosphere?

Troposphere, Stratosphere, and Ionosphere

What is reflection?

Turing back a wave from the boundary of a medium

Reflection can be reflected up to 180 degrees depending on...

The surface, angle of incidence, polarization, and wave length

What is refraction?

Changing direction of the wave as it passes through a medium

Refraction is dependent on...

Density of ionization of the layer, frequency of the radio wave, and the angle at which the wave enters the layer

What is defraction?

Bending of radio waves as they pass an object

Which propagation factor allows for receiving of radio waves around the edges of an obstacles?

Diffraction

What are antenna systems?

A conductor used to radiate or collect electromagnetic energy

What three basic components make up antenna systems?

Coupling device, feeder and antenna

The size and shape of an antenna system is determined by...

Frequency of transmitter, amount of power radiated, and the direction of the receiving antenna

What must be at least one-half the wavelength of the frequency?

Radiation of electromagnetic energy

What are the operational characteristics of antenna systems?

Reciprocity of antennas and antenna gain

What type of antenna is independent of ground?

Hertz

What are the four types of special antennas?

Long wire, Slot, Skin, and Blade

electromagnetic radiation

the radiation associated with an electric and magnetic field; it varies periodically

type of electromagnetic fields

Electric (E) field and Magnetic (H) field

Electric field

exist around all electrically charged objects. force of voltage on antenna.
lines travel from positive to negative and lines connect at right angles.

magnetic field

produced by current field through a conductor. direction is determined by flow current

Induction field

continually expands and collapses
doesn't exist apart from the antenna

radiation field

the action of the induction field expanding and collapsing causes the radiation field to be released

induction field and radiation field

associated with every antenna

Vertical Polarization

E Field perpendicular to earths surface
greater signal strength along Earth's surface

horizontal polarization

the E field is parallel to the earths surface.
ideal for antennas at higher elevation

advantages of vertical polarization

stronger antenna, stronger receiver signal up to 50 MHz, and affected less by reflection.

advantages of horizontal polarization

minimizes interference from certain directions, less likely to be affected by man-made interference, and less loss in dense areas.

electromagnetic energy

includes infrared waves, light waves, and radio waves

radio

radio waves in the 3 KHz to 300 MHz

frequencies (RF)

electromagnetic waves transmit electromagnetic energy through free spaces

radio waves shape

basic shape is that of a sine wave
may or may not retain shape once radiated into space

Radio Wave Velocity

electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light
186,000 miles per second or 300,000 meters per second

what would slow down radio waves velocity

atmospheric conditions

radio wave wavelength

spaced occupied by one full cycle of a wave at any given instant
measured in meters

wave categories

ground wave and sky wave

ground wave

Radio waves that travel near the surface of the Earth

sky wave

Radio waves that are reflected back to Earth from the ionosphere
usually high frequency

Regions of the Atmosphere

troposphere, stratosphere, ionosphere

ionosphere

most important region for long distant point-to-point communication

Reflection

turning back of a wave from the boundary of a medium

Refraction

changing direction of the waves as it passes through a medium

Diffraction

bending of radio waves as they pass an object

Tropospheric Scattering

caused by turbulence in the troposphere

antenna system

a conductor used to radiate or collect electromagnetic energy

basic components of antenna systems

coupling, feeder, and antenna

antenna system size and shape

determined by frequency of transmitter, amount of power radiated, and direction of receiving antenna

Radiation of electromagnetic radiation

must be at least one-half the wavelength of the frequency

reciprocity of antennas

using one antenna for both transmission and reception

antenna gain

ration between directional propagation and total propagation

Hertz (Half Wave)

what type of antenna is independent of ground

marconi (quarter-waves)

grounded or connected to counterpoise, perpendicular to earth, one quarter wavelength, and resonates at same frequency as half-wave antenna

long wire antenna

at least one wavelength long, and used for frequencies up to twice that for which it was cut

slot antenna

radiator formed by narrow slot in metal surface. is one-half wavelength long. underside of a wing surface.

skin antenna

produced by flush-mounted antenna. electrically isolating portion of metal skin of the aircraft.

blade antenna

quarter-wave antenna fed through a base. low drag for external aircraft fuselage mounting.

JKO Aseptico Portable Scrub Sink Operator's Course

The Surgical scrub sink is designed to work with which of the following ?

ALL OF THE ABOVE :

Jerry cans
Bladder supply
Domestic supply

Which of the following are most likely the cause of a heating element to shut off

Select 2 answers :

-Tilt level breaker sensor triggered
-Heating breaker tripped

If the GFCI is tripped when the power is disconnected will the green LED illuminate when power is reconnected to the sink

Yes after GFC is reset

With the flow rate sit at high about how long will it take to fill the internal tank?

About 2 minutes

Which of the following sources is not an acceptable water source for the scrub sink?

Nearby natural resources

What is the appropriate temperature of the water in the scrub sink?

106 degrees Fahrenheit

How many Jerry cans are supplied?

None

Describe sink will operate properly with either a 110 V or 220 V power source without any modification

TRUE

JKO Aribex NOMAD Pro Dental X-Ray Apparatus Operator Course

Optional backscatter......

All of the above

Not a part of the preliminary check receiving a new unit

Determine if both handsets are charged

Operator can input custom user settings

True

First trigger squeeze does what?

Ready mode

Orange indicator lights on base

(INCORRECT)Trigger squeezed when placing(INCORRECT)

For added security store handset in separate area

True

How many exposures on a fully charged handset?

400

Yellow light with a radiation symbol

Currently conducting an exposure

"SYSTEM FAILURE" displayed

Turn off and back on

If you might be outside the protection zone

Lead apron

Handset may not charge over night

False

Collimator tube not perpendicular/90 degrees from DEXIS

Adjust angle of patient

Best way to prevent battery strength loss

Swap handsets daily

JKO Aribex NOMAD Pro Dental X-Ray Apparatus Maintainer's Course

3 Alara Concepts

Time, Shielding, Distance

Nomad handset battery is...

(INCORRECT)Nickel Cadmium(INCORRECT)Nickel Metal Hydride(INCORRECT)

New handset battery cycles

300 (full charge and discharge)

Only usable with digital systems

False

A tech deployed to Iraq...

1 Acclimate, 2 Inspect, 3 Functions Check, 4 Calibration Check

???

Handset Passed

???

Trigger is designed to be pressed and released to ready exposure

Assemble/Disassemble

False

???

Press and hold select and press patient

What tech bulletin or regulation

TB MED 521

When assembling

Should hear a click

Handset can stay in cradle for an indefinite amount of time

True

Acceptable KVP limits

54 to 66 KVP

???

Press and release trigger and green light

JKO Belmont Rapid Infuser Fluid Management System 2000 Operator's Course

at which flow rate will the FMS 2000 no longer heat fluids?

A: 50 ml/min
B: 10
C: 2.5
D: 25
E: 5

c & E

Which of the following solutions are acceptable for use when cleaning the pump?

A: Mild bleach solution
B: Hydrogen peroxide
C: Multipurpose cleaner
D: Ammonia solution

A & B

True or False: The disposable set has no expiration date and if undamgaed, may be used.

F

True or false: Because the FMS 2000 does not utilize an open heat source, it is acceptable to use it in the prescence of potentially flammable anesthetics.

F

What is the maximum achievabel flow rate for packed RBCs with a 16 gauge cannula?

A: about 400 ml/min
B: 750 ml/min
C: about 200 ml/min
D: less than 100 ml/min

C

While operting on battery power, what is the maximum infusion rate?

A: 50 ml/min
B: 5 ml/min
C: 750 ml/min
D: 250 ml/min

A

True or False: While cleaning or disinfecting the FMS 2000, it is acceptable to us butyl alcohol.

F

What is the maximum infusion rate for the FMS 2000?

A: 1000 ml/min
B: 750 ml/min
C: 500 ml/min
D: 250 ml/min

B

JKO Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM)

Define TCRM

using risk management concepts when time and resources are limited.

Identify terms used with TCRM

ABCD model.

What is the ABCD model?

Fundemental scientific principles, ability to focus individuals, increase their situational awareness.

What does A stand for?

A- Asses the situation

What does B stand for?

B- Balance Resources

What does C stand for?

C- Communicate

What does D stand for?

D- Do and Debrief

Situational Awareness (SA)

refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the current environment mirrors reality.

How many Risk Gauge colors are there?

4

What does Green mean?

Little chance of serious error.

What does Yellow mean?

Higher chance of serious error.

What does Red mean?

Very high chance of serious error.

What does Swooshing Arrow mean?

Return to good situational awareness.

Define Assessing the situation

In real time situation, it is essential to consider the event.

Define Balancing Resources

Make the correct decisions to mitigate risks.

Define Communication

Who needs to know? Who can help? Ensure everyone knows.

Define Do and Debrief

Do the mission and use the appropriate resources to mitigate risk.

How does Honor correlate with TCRM?

Keeping a keen sense of ethical conduct.

How does Courage correlate with TCRM?

The mental and moral strength to do whats right.

How does Commitment correlate with TCRM?

The day-to-day of every Navy man and women to work together as a team to improve the quality of their work.

JKO French-Mali Rapport - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

French is the language of government and academia.

True

Timbuktu is the capital of Mali.

False

Mali gained independence from France after a long insurgency.

False

The Malian economy relies heavily on mining.

True

The tourism industry of Mali revolves around safari tourism.

False

The constitution of Mali defines the country as a secular state.

True

The Great Mosque of Djenne is susceptible to the elements.

True

Beliefs in supernatural powers are considered heresy and evil by most Malians.

False

Tuareg rebels and allied militants protected Sufi Islamic shrines and tombs during the 2012-2013 conflict in Northern Mali.

False

The Family Code passed in 2011 by the Malian legislature made advances in securing and protecting women's rights.

False

Touching the right elbow with the fingertips is an offensive social gesture in Mali.

False

Malian women's possibilities to be on equal footing with men remain limited.

True

Domestic violence is a rare phenomenon in Mali.

False

Kola nuts play an important role in Malian hospitality customs.

True

Meat is affordable in Mali, and Malians eat it on a regular basis.

False

Poverty and conflict have driven rural migrants to Mali's cities in search of security and employment.

True

Mali stopped practicing slavery by the mid-20th century.

False

Traditional healers provide an alternative to the health care system.

True

With the help of international aid, Mali has established a successful country-wide public education system.

False

Quality restaurants and nightlife are concentrated in Bamako.

True

Drought, political instability, and climate change have all contributed to a historic low in Malian cereal production.

False

The Malian government relies on foreign mining companies to mine the country's vast deposits of gold.

False

The Ebola virus reached Mali during the 2013-2016 Ebola outbreak and claimed several victims.

True

In rural Mali, a gathering crowd at the scene of a vehicle accident can create a dangerous situation.

True

The Malian government continues to lay minefields along the border to stop the infiltration of al Qaeda and ISIS fighters.

False

Muslim women in Mali do not veil.

True

Malian law prohibits domestic violence.

False

Although religious and civil marriages are both practiced, only civil marriage are given legal recognition and protection under the law

False

Economically disadvantaged Malian parents often send their children to earn money in order to improve the family's financial standing.

True

Underage marriage is still practiced, even though the practice is prohibited by Malian law.

True

A griot is a Malian magistrate judge, who presides over a civil marriage.

False

In Mali, women do not have maternity leave.

False

Polygamy is prevalent across Mali.

True

Mali has one of the highest infant mortality rates in the world.

True

In 2012, the Malian government passed a law banning female genital mutilation (FGM

False

Due to Mali's size and the condition of most rural roads, domestic flights are the preferred method of cross-country travel for Malians.

False

The University of Timbuktu is one of the oldest institutions of higher education in the world.

True

The Malian government has started funding Islamic schools, or madrassas, to provide students with basic religious education.

False

Mali does not have a rail service.

False

International aid and education reforms ended illiteracy in Mali.

False

Bamako's main market is called the Mercato.

False

Mali is the leading producer of beef in West Africa

True

ATMs throughout Bamako typically accept Visa and MasterCard.

False

Visitors to Mali can rent cars with or without drivers.

True

Due to Mali's generally flat landscape, automobile and motorcycle use is widespread throughout the country.

False

Peanuts are an important part of Malian cuisine.

True

Owing to the country's French colonial past, Malians use Western-style utensils when eating meals.

False

Malian men and women throughout the country often wear a long, flowing, wide-sleeved robe.

True

Mali was one of the last African nations to gain independence from France, in the mid-1970s.

False

The left hand is considered unclean in Mali.

True

Islamic extremist groups based in Northern Mali have become a security concern.

True

The majority of Malians are in favor of a secular government.

False

Beliefs and practices of traditional African religions are part of Christian and Muslim worship practices.

True

The Muslim majority of Mail are intolerant toward religious minorities.

False

Tabaski, also known as Eid al-Adha, is one of the most important religious holidays in Mali.

True

The Islamic High Council controls all branches of government.

False

The Tuareg are a people of Berber decent, distinguished by their bold blue clothing.

True

Mali is an arid country covered entirely by the Sahara Desert.

False

The majority of the population is concentrated in northern Mali

False

There are more cell phone subscriptions than people in Mali.

True

JKO Multi-Domain Operations (MDO) Overview

MDO Operational Environment

*Contested in all domains
*Increasingly lethal, expanded battlefield
*Increasingly complex environment
*Challenged deterrence

MDO Central Idea

Army forces, as an element of the Joint Force, conduct Multi-Domain Operations to prevail in competition; when necessary, Army forces penetrate and dis-integrate enemy anti-access and area denial systems and exploit the resultant freedom of maneuver to achieve strategic objectives (win) and force a return to competition on favorable terms

Russian and Chinese A2AD create

Multiple Layers of Stand-Off

China and Russia in Competition

Creating stand-off by separating the U.S. and partners politically with ...
*National- and district-level forces
*Unconventional warfare
*Information warfare
*Conventional forces: Long-, mid-, and short-range systems
...to fracture alliances and win without fighting

China and Russia in Armed Conflict

Creating stand-off by separating the Joint Force in time, spaces, and function with ...
*National-and district-level forces
*Conventional forces: Long-, mid-, and short-range systems
*Unconventional warfare
*Information warfare
...to win quickly with a surprise, fait accompli campaign

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #1

How does the Joint Force compete to enable the defeat of an adversary's operations to destabilize the region, deter the escalation of violence, and, should violence escalate, enable a rapid transition to armed conflict?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #2

How does the Joint Force penetrate enemy anti-access and area denial systems throughout the depth of the Support Areas to enable strategic and operational maneuver?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #3

How does the Joint Force dis-integrate enemy anti-access and area denial systems in the Deep Areas to enable operational and tactical maneuver?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #4

How does the Joint Force exploit the resulting freedom of maneuver to achieve operational and strategic objectives through the defeat of the enemy in the Close and Deep Maneuver Areas?

Multi-Domain Operations Problem #5

How does the Joint Force re-compete to consolidate gains and produce sustainable outcomes, set conditions for long-term deterrence, and adapt to the new security environment?

Tenets of MDO

Calibrated Force Posture
Multi-Domain Formations
Convergence (time, space, capabilities)

Calibrated Force Posture

*Force presence forces (contact and blunt forces)
*Expeditionary forces (blunt and surge forces)
*National-level capabilities
*Authorities

Multi-Domain Formations

*Conduct independent maneuver
*Employ cross-domain fires
*Maximize human potential

Convergence (time, space, capabilities)

*Cross-domain synergy
*Layered options
*Mission command/disciplined initiative

Convergence at Echelon: Theater Army

*Provides AOR-tailored capacity
*Maintains enduring initiative
*Sets the theater
*Enables expeditionary maneuver
*Responds immediately to regional emergencies
*Protects bases, key nodes, and networks

Convergence at Echelon: Field Army

*Executes competition against a near-peer
*Conducts all-domain operational preparation of the environment
*Provides credible deterrence
*Commands multiple corps
*Enables partners and SOF
*Employs long-range fires

Convergence at Echelon: Corps

*Tailors to multiple missions and roles (e.g. JTF)
*Coordinates deep cross-domain maneuver
*Commands multiple divisions
*Shapes close areas: enemy mid-range fires and IADS
*Defeats long-range fires

Convergence at Echelon: Division

*Commands multiple BCTs and enablers
*Converges cross-domain capabilities in the close area
*Shapes deep maneuver area
*Executes expeditionary and deep maneuver
*Dominates the close fight

Compete to expand the competitive space

*Enable defeat of information and unconventional warfare
*Conduct intelligence and counter adversary reconnaissance
*Demonstrate credible deterrence

Penetrate strategic and operational stand-off

*Neutralize enemy long-range systems
*Contest enemy maneuver forces
*Maneuver from operational and strategic distances

Dis-integrate the enemy's anti-access and area denial systems

*Defeat enemy long-range systems
*Neutralize enemy short-range systems
*Conduct independent maneuver
*Conduct deception

Exploit freedom of maneuver to defeat enemy objectives

*Defeat enemy mid-range systems
*Neutralize enemy short-range systems
*Maneuver to isolate and defeat enemy maneuver forces

Re-compete to consolidate and expand gains

*Secure terrain and populations physically
*Enable sustainable outcomes with partners
*Set conditions for long-term deterrence
*Re-calibrate force posture
*Secure the initiative

MDO Implications for the Army

*Enhanced and broader need for combined arms maneuver
*Operating at echelon
*Converging cross-domain capabilities
*Maximizing human potential
*14 required Army capability sets

Italian Rapport - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

il matrimonio

wedding

i pettegolezzi

gossip

avere fiducia

to trust

condividere

to share

contare su

to rely on

lasciare

to leave

mentire

to lie

meritare

to deserve

rompere con

to break up (with)

uscire con

to go out with

comprensivo

understanding

dimenticabile

forgettable

fedele

faithful

adorare

to adore

amare

to love

arrabbiarsi

to get angry

avere vergogna

to be ashamed

dare fastido

to annoy

disturbare

to bother

innamorarsi

to fall in love with

odiare

to hate

provare

to feel

sentirsi

to feel

sognare

to dream

volere bene a

to feel affection for

ansioso

anxious

contratiato

annoyed

deluso

disappointed

depresso

depressed

emozionato

excited

entusiasta

enthusiastic

geloso

jealous

preoccupato

worried

stufo

fed up

Iraqi Rapport Course - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

Much of Iraq southwest of the Euphrates River consists of lush river valleys.

False

Saddam Hussein's administration drained the southern marshlands, turning them into dry salt flats.

True

Although Baghdad is the nation's capital, it is only the second-largest city in Iraq.

False

Iraq's cold winds and snowstorms are strong enough to disable the engines of machinery and aircraft and reduce visibility to almost zero.

False

In 1980, Hussein launched a costly eight-year war with Iran.

True

Of Iraq's estimated 29 million people, nearly 97% identify as Muslim.

True

Iraq is home to some of the most important sites in Islamic history.

True

Sunni Islam has a highly centralized leadership and it has played only a limited role in the development of the region's legal, political, and economic systems.

False

Baathism is a syncretic religion found predominantly among the Kurds of northern Iraq.

False

Both Sunnis and Shiites agree on Islam's fundamental principles and share the same holy book (Quran).

True

Iraqis have suffered through economic sanctions and years of war, so they remain cautious and guarded around visitors.

False

Iraqis typically greet others in public places, even if they do not know one another.

True

Iraqis do not date, and couples do not appear together in public unless legally engaged or married.

True

So long as Iraqi men don't talk to women, they may ask other men direct questions about the females in their families.

False

Invitation to an Iraqi home is a rarity.

False

The draft 2005 Iraqi constitution was approved in October 2005 by a wide margin of Iraqi voters

F

The media in Iraq face challenges in terms of both operations and security

T

After oil, agriculture is the second-largest economic sector in Iraq and the second-largest source of jobs.

T

All U.S. troops had withdrawn from Iraq by the end of 2009

F

The country has a single-party system with executive power held exclusively by the prime minister.

F

The Iraqi government is less involved in religious affairs than the governments of other nearby countries

T

Islam is a monotheistic religion and its followers believe in a single deity. The Muslim community, or umma, calls this deity Allah.

T

Sufism is practiced by several Shiite groups that emphasize the different dimensions and rituals of their religion.

F

Members of some religious minority communities hold senior government positions, and employment discrimination is almost unknown.

F

Purdah dictates that women stay "veiled" from non-related males in their home by using separate spaces, and by keeping their heads and bodies covered.

T

Iraqi women wear contemporary European clothing in public.

F

Iraqis often celebrate a wide variety of events and occasions by firing rifles into the air.

T

It is not unusual for males to be served first, with females eating afterwards in a separate room.

T

Guests should always clean their plates as an indication they have eaten well.

F

Iraqis readily use gestures to communicate

T

ATMs are found throughout the country and ATMs are quite dependable, so there is no real need to use banks when exchanging money.

F

Iraq has a wide variety of shops and stores, ranging from large 24-hour shopping malls loaded with Western goods and brands, to smaller traditional Iraq-style shops with smaller selections.

T

Driving a private car in Iraq is not the preferred means of travel, and few people own a car.

T

Iraqi cities are full of security forces and are now quite safe for Westerners to visit.

F

Iraq's transportation system is limited to cars in urban areas, and buses in rural areas.

F

Updates to rural schools and infrastructure, as well as high rates of attendance have made Iraq's educational system one of the best in the Middle East.

F

Following Iraq's December 2005 elections, an alliance of Shiite parties held the highest percentage of seats in the new Iraqi assembly because they won a clear majority.

F

In 2015, most checkpoints in Iraq were located in the capital city of Baghdad.

T

Iraq has a severe problem with landmines, unexploded ordnance (UXO), and abandoned ordnance (AXO) from conflicts that date back to World War II

T

Iraq's tribal bonds were weakened after the British imperial authorities united three Ottoman provinces, Mosul, Baghdad, and Basra, into the loosely organized state of Iraq.

F