Joint Staff Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Training Pre Test

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

1) When filing an Unrestricted Report, the victim's Commanding Officer is notified within 24 hours that an incident has occurred; however, no identifying information will be provided. (Reporting, page 4 of 10)

False

2) Consent is a freely given agreement to the conduct at issue by a competent person. An expression or lack of consent through words or conduct means there is no consent. (What is Consent, page 1 of 5) [objective2]

True

3) What does the acronym ABC stand for? (Preventing Assault - Bystander Intervention, page 2 of 8) [objective4]

Assess for safety, Be with others, Care for person

4) Sexual harassment is defined as the intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, physical threat or abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent. (What is Sexual Assault, page 2 of 8) [objective1]

False

5) What are the impacts of sexual assault on a Unit? (Impact on Victims, page 3 of 7) [objective3]

All of the answers are correct

6) Maximum punishments for offenders may include:

Reduction to paygrade E-1; Confinement for life without eligibility for parole; Total loss of all pay and allowances; Dishonorable discharge / dismissal from service

Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) Level II

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

1. Which of the following are potential indicators of insider threat?

-All of the above

2. Factors contributing to the onset of the stockhom syndrome include the hostage____________ (select all apply)

-Seeing the captors human qualities

- Having positive contact with the captors

3. Which of the following statements are true?

-Physical security measures are a combination of active or passive systems, devices, and security personnel used to protect a security interest from possible threats

-DoD 5200.8-R addresses the physical security of personnel, installations, operations, and assets of DoD components

4. A State supported terrorist group operates:

-Independently, but receives substantial outside support

5. An AT plan __________________. Select all that apply

- All are true

6. Training conducted in a clandestine fashion at the cell level by members of the terrorist group within the targeted country is considered__________.

- Internal training

7. Which of the following are foundation documents for building an AT Program? Select all that apply

-DOD instruction O-2000.16

-DOD instruction 2000.12

8. Which placing vehicle barriers, consider____________.

-All of the above

9. Which of the following are considered common goals of terrorist groups?

-All of the above

10. Which paragraph of the AT plan defines the requirements to supporting the AT Plan?

-Administration and Logistics

11. What resources are available to develop an AT plan?

DoD ATO Guide, DoDI 2000.12, DoDI O-2000.16 Vol 1 & 2

12. During a Risk Assessment, which element(s) must be considered to make well informed decisions?

-All of the above

13. Which of the following are reasons why AT plan exercise are important?

-All of the above

14. Security functions that must be performed for a physical security system to protect DoD assets include__________________.

-All of the above

15. Match the type of terrorist attack with its description.

-Raid = Surprise attack on a defined target

-Assassination = Murder of a prominent person usually for political reasons

-Ambush = Sudden attack from a concealed position

-Seizure = Occupying and holding a prominent building

-Bombing = Most common type of terrorist attack

-Hijacking = Forceful seizure of a surface vehicle

-Sabotage = Weaken an entitu through disruption or destruction

16. A terrorist threat level is_____________. Select all that apply

-Identified as High, sig…

-An indication that a terrorist…

17. A dirty bomb________________. Select all that apply.

-Combines conventional explosives with radioactive materials

-Is used by terrorists to frighten people and make the land around the explosion unusable for a long period of time

18. During an active shooter situation, you should: Select all that apply

-Evacuate

-Hide

-Take Action

19. Which of the following are common characteristics of a ramming attack? Select all that apply

-Lack of observable indicators immediately before the attack

-Targeting of public venues

20. A typical AT program organization includes the following members: Select all that apply

The answer is NOT all of them

The answer is not only the ATO and installation commander, The Threat working group

21. To minimize the insider threat, practice:

-Awareness, prevention, and deterrence

22. Which of the following statements are true?

-The commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan

- The ATO is responsible for leveraging the capabilities of the organizations AT working group to assist with creating the AT plan.

-The ATO is responsible for writing the AT plan

23. Which of the following statements illustrate the correct application of DoD Code of Conduct? Select all that apply

-As a hostage, service members should not, under any circumstances, support or encourage their captors

-Service members on assignment in an area prone to terrorist activity shall follow the appropriate counterterrorism measures

24. Which of the following are considered tactics of terrorist groups? Select all that apply.

-Everything but –being rurally based is incorrect

25. Which of the following are types of biological agents (Select all that apply)

-nerve agents and toxins only was incorrect

26. The combating terrorism Readiness Initiatives Fund (CbT RIF)

-Finances emergent or emergency high-priority combating terrorism requirements

27. What must be addressed in an AT plan (Select all that apply)

Coordination and intelligence only was incorrect

28. When Law enforcement arrives you should (select all that apply)

-Incorrect answer: all except ask for help

-Incorrect answer: all except ask for help and immediately raise hands

29. When documenting requirements, it is important to address_________. Select all that apply.

What resource is needed and how it fits into the AT plan.

Why the resource is needed

30. Force Protection conditions are __________________. Select all that apply

-Identified as Normal, alpha…

-A system of preventative measures used by DoD to mitigate hostile actions

31. There are several techniques hostages can use to help them survive a hostage situation. They should:

-Maintain a regular exercise routine

32. Different perspectives to any terrorist event include which of the following? Select all that apply.

-The general public…

-The victim…

-The terrorist…

33. Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific task for each subordinate unit?

The answer is NOT Annexes or Mission

34. Match each phase of a terrorist operation with its description.

-Phase1

-Phase 2

-phase 3

-Phase IV

-Phase V

-Phase VI

-Phase VII

35. Which funding category does a resources fall in if it is important to the mission, but has a low vulnerability?

- Should fund

36. As part of assessing the existence of a terrorist threat, the DoD analyzed a terrorist groups actual record of conducting an attack, and their ability and desire to conduct future attacks. Which of the following methodology factors did the DoD take into account A (select all that apply)

-Terrorist history and intentions

-Terrorist operational capabilities

37. The ATO is ______________ (select all that apply)

-The expert within an organization for generating, prioritizing, and appropriately documenting AT requirements

-Responsible for continuously documenting funding requirements

38. A Threat Assessment (TA):

Incorrect answer – Is considered complete with the development of the TM.

39. Which of the following are examples of expedient perimeters barriers? Select all that apply.

-Ropes

-Jersey wall segments

40. Why do terrorists use a compartmented cell structure?

-Makes it difficult to penetrate the entire organization

-Compromise or loss of one cell does not compromise the other cells

41. DoD AT Construction Standards:

-All are correct

42. Which AT Plan exercise(s) uses scenario driven events to test specific portions of the AT Plan?

-Drill

43. Chemical agents are:

-Identifiable with the sudden onset of symptoms

-Nerve agents, such as sarin, that interfere with the functioning of the nervous system

44. If a hostage senses or realizes a rescue attempt is imminent, the hostage should:

-All of the above is NOT the answer

-Prepare to escape… is NOT the answer

45. Which of the following statements are true regarding terrorist operations?

-Terrorists rehearse the operation in an environment mirroring the target location or in the target location itself

-Terrorists select multiple targets as potential locations for the actual operation

46. Why might a potential captor take a victim hostage?

-Because the victim is in the wrong place at the wrong time

-For the publicity the situation would generate

-Because the victim may be a source of trouble otherwise

47. Which of the following is an ATM responsible for? Select all that apply.

-XXXXXXXXXX

48. Which of the following statement(s) are true?

-The purpose of Criticality Assessment

-The critically assessment only focuses on assets located on the installation.

-Critically Assessments assist the Commander in making resources allocation

- All of the above – Is incorrect answer

49. Which of the following statement(s) are true?

-The Commander uses a vulnerability assessment

-A vulnerability assessment should focus only on WMD

-Higher Headquarters vulnerability assessment

- All of the above – Is incorrect answer

HIPPA and Privacy Act Training

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

1) HIPAA allows the use and disclosure of PHI for treatment, payment, and health care operations (TPO) without the patient's consent or authorization.

True (correct)

________________________________________

2) Which of the following statements about the HIPAA Security Rule are true?

Established a national set of standards for the protection of PHI that is created, received, maintained, or transmitted in electronic media by a HIPAA covered entity (CE) or business associate (BA)

Protects electronic PHI (ePHI)

Addresses three types of safeguards - administrative, technical and physical ? that must be in place to secure individuals' ePHI

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

3) Which of the following are fundamental objectives of information security?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Availability

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

4) Physical safeguards are:

Administrative actions, and policies and procedures that are used to manage the selection, development, implementation and maintenance of security measures to protect electronic PHI (ePHI). These safeguards also outline how to manage the conduct of the workforce in relation to the protection of ePHI

Physical measures, including policies and procedures that are used to protect electronic information systems and related buildings and equipment, from natural and environmental hazards, and unauthorized intrusion (correct)

Information technology and the associated policies and procedures that are used to protect and control access to ePHI

None of the above

________________________________________

5) Technical safeguards are: [Remediation Accessed :N]

Information technology and the associated policies and procedures that are used to protect and control access to ePHI (correct)

None of the above

________________________________________

6) Which HHS Office is charged with protecting an individual patient's health information privacy and security through the enforcement of HIPAA?

Office of Medicare Hearings and Appeals (OMHA)

Office for Civil Rights (OCR) (correct)

Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC)

None of the above

________________________________________

7) What of the following are categories for punishing violations of federal health care laws?

Criminal penalties

Civil money penalties

Sanctions

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

8) If an individual believes that a DoD covered entity (CE) is not complying with HIPAA, he or she may file a complaint with the:

DHA Privacy Office

HHS Secretary

MTF HIPAA Privacy Officer

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

9) A covered entity (CE) must have an established complaint process.

True (correct)

False

________________________________________

10) Which of the following statements about the Privacy Act are true?

Balances the privacy rights of individuals with the Government's need to collect and maintain information

Regulates how federal agencies solicit and collect personally identifiable information (PII)

Sets forth requirements for the maintenance, use, and disclosure of PII

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

11) Which of the following are examples of personally identifiable information (PII)?

Social Security number

Home address

Telephone

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

12) Under the Privacy Act, individuals have the right to request amendments of their records contained in a system of records.

False

True (correct)

________________________________________

13) A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is an analysis of how information is handled:

To ensure handling conforms to applicable legal, regulatory, and policy requirements regarding privacy

To determine the risks and effects of collecting, maintaining and disseminating information in identifiable form in an electronic information system

To examine and evaluate protections and alternative processes for handling information to mitigate potential privacy risks

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

14) A breach as defined by the DoD is broader than a HIPAA breach (or breach defined by HHS).

False

True (correct)

________________________________________

15) Which of the following are common causes of breaches?

Theft and intentional unauthorized access to PHI and personally identifiable information (PII)

Human error (e.g. misdirected communication containing PHI or PII)

Lost or stolen electronic media devices or paper records containing PHI or PII

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

16) Which of the following would be considered PHI?

An individual's first and last name and the medical diagnosis in a physician's progress report (correct)

Individually identifiable health information (IIHI) in employment records held by a covered entity (CE) in its role as an employer

Results of an eye exam taken at the DMV as part of a driving test

IIHI of persons deceased more than 50 years

________________________________________

17) Under HIPAA, a covered entity (CE) is defined as:

A health plan

A health care clearinghouse

A health care provider engaged in standard electronic transactions covered by HIPAA

All of the above (correct)

________________________________________

18) Which of the following are breach prevention best practices?

Access only the minimum amount of PHI/personally identifiable information (PII) necessary

Logoff or lock your workstation when it is unattended

Promptly retrieve documents containing PHI/PHI from the printer

All of this above (correct)

________________________________________

19) The minimum necessary standard:

Limits uses, disclosures, and requests for PHI to the minimum necessary amount of PHI needed to carry out the intended purposes of the use or disclosure

Does not apply to exchanges between providers treating a patient

Does not apply to uses or disclosures made to the individual or pursuant to the individual's authorization

All of the above (correct)

Leadership Fourteen: Creating a Culturally Sensitive Workplace

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Question 1.

Which is a guideline to improve cross-cultural communication?

Ascertain the value of involving the family in treatment

Question 2.

Which is a guideline in using interpreters?

Seek the client's consent before using an interpreter

Question 3.

The first step in setting up a diversity management program is to:

Develop a customized business case for diversity

Question 4.

The principal standard for culturally and linguistically appropriate standards (CLAS) is:

Provide effective, equitable, understandable, and respectful quality care and services that are responsive to diverse cultural health beliefs and practices, preferred languages, health literacy, and other communication needs

Question 5.

Cultural and linguistic competence is defined as:

A set of congruent behaviors, attitudes, and policies that come together in a system, agency, or among professionals that enables effective work in cross-cultural situations

Question 6.

As compared to mainstream American culture, patients from Asian countries:

Have a group orientation (versus an individual orientation)

Question 7.

What is most characteristic of the baby-boomer generation?

Valuing teamwork

Question 8.

True or False: Self-awareness is a key skill in managing diversity.

True

Question 9.

What is the first step in developing a cultural proficiency strategy for your organization?

Conduct a diversity and cultural assessment

Question 10.

True or False: Holding all managers accountable for diversity in their areas of responsibility is a key diversity management practice.

False

Question 11.

Which of the following is a strategy used to improve one's own cultural sensitivity?

Imagining yourself in a different culture and assessing your possible reactions

Question 12.

True or False: Benefits of traditional medicine is an area of dissonance between providers and patients.

False

DTS (Basic) Travel Documents

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Some of the questions are interactive and are difficult to be put to text, just read the questions carefully and you should be able to guess through the last 5 or so. Good Luck :)

1. Which commercial lodging type is located on or near U.S. installations, is operated by a commercial lodging company, and is corporately branded? Answer - DOD Privatized Lodging

2. Alicia did not select an available City Pair flight for her upcoming TDY. In addition to a written justification, what else will she need to provide on the Pre-Audit Trip screen? Answer - Reason Code

3. Selecting the Government Rate from a U.S. Government Rental Car Program vendor will result in a daily fee that provides you with unlimited mileage, liability coverage, and much more. What is the name of this fee? Answer - Government Administrative Rate Supplement

4. Select the non-mileage expense that requires a receipt in accordance with the JTR and the DoD FMR. Answer - Lodging Taxes (CONUS and Non-Foreign)

5. You need to land in Los Angeles, CA, no later that 11:00AM to make sure you are on time for an afternoon meeting. Select the appropriate option to book the flight that will get you to Los Angeles, CA in time. Answer - DCA to LAX, 7:15AM Non-Stop 9:54AM

6. You're on the Review Reservation Selections screen of you authorization when you realize that you selected the wrong rental care provider. Select the link that will enable you to cancel you existing rental car reservation. Answer - Cancel Rental Car

7. You're building your itinerary for an upcoming TDY to Los Angeles, CA. Select the field that you'd use to enter Los Angeles, CA, as your TDY destination. Answer - TDY Location

8. On your authorization, you estimated that you would have a taxi from the airport to get to your hotel. However, you ended up taking the hotel's courtesy shuttle instead. Select your appropriate option to start the deleting that expense from your voucher. Answer - Taxi - To/From Terminal (Three dots on the right)

9. You used your GTCC to pay for the baggage fees on your outbound flight. While you could add the baggage fee expense to your voucher manually, select the option that allows you to add it from a list of your GTCC transactions. Answer - Import from GTCC (Click the Add Button)

10. You selected a rental car that was more expensive than the lowest-priced, compact-sized vehicle. Select where you would enter your Other Auths and Pre Audits justification for this reservation. Answer - Add Justification, under Higher Rental Car Rate Chosen

11. You used your GTCC to pay for your meals on a recent TDY. Update your Adjust disbursements so that an extra $35.56 of your reimbursement is split disbursed to the GTCC vendor. Answer - Adjust Disbursements, Additional Payment Paid to GTCC, Save

12. You need to enter an estimate for the cost of a baggage fee for your outbound flight. You expect the cost to be $50.00 and you plan to charge the expense to your GTCC. Answer - Add, Type to Filter, Other Expenses, Baggage - First Checked Bag, Add (Options Should be highlighted)

13. The Government paid for your lunch on 09/18. You need to annotate that meal on your voucher. Answer - Select 09/18/2018 (Three Dots), edit, Government Meals Provided at TDY Location, Lunch (Only Lunch), Save Adjustments

14. You’ve already scanned and saved a copy of your airline receipt to your workstation. Now you need to attach it to your airfare reservation expense and provide it with a descriptive name. While you could drag and drop your airfare receipt into DTS, for this scenario attach it directly to the airfare. Answer - Browse, Select, Hit the box on the First Page only, Next, Attach to Existing, Attach

JKO Meningococcal Diseases Course (1.5 hrs)

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

1) A man who is traveling in the first-class section of an airplane on an overnight flight from Africa is diagnosed with meningococcemia after arriving in Chicago. Which other person on the plane is most likely to be contacted by the health department and told that he or she needs chemoprophylaxis against meningococcal disease?

The Pilot

The passenger who was sitting in first class next to the man who was ill (correct)

The airline attendant

The passenger who was sitting in the back of the plane in the coach section

2) Trumenba and Bexsero can be given interchangeably when administering meningococcal B vaccine.

True

False (correct)

3) The most common adverse reaction following either type of meningococcal vaccine is: [Remediation Accessed :N]

Headache and stiff neck

Joint pain and low grade fever

Malaise and nausea

Pain and redness at the injection site (correct)

4) Meningococcal B vaccine series is a category B recommendation.

True (correct)

False

5) An 11-year-old boy needs to receive meningococcal vaccine. He has HIV infection. What is the correct schedule? [Remediation Accessed :N]

A single dose today and a booster dose at age 16.

A single dose today and no need for a booster dose.

Two doses given 2 months apart and a booster dose at age 16. (correct)

Two doses given 2 months apart and no need for a booster dose.

6) Which statement accurately represents information contained in the meningococcal vaccines VIS?

Meningococcal vaccine can be used to treat meningococcal infection.

The majority of people who get meningococcal vaccine experience redness or pain where the shot is given.

Of those people who live after a meningococcal infection, about 11% to 19% lose their arms or legs, become deaf, have problems with their nervous systems, become mentally impaired, or suffer seizures or strokes. (correct)

Meningococcal vaccine should NOT be given to people who live in areas where meningitis outbreaks are common.

7) The number of doses and schedule for meningococcal vaccine varies depending on age and risk. Based on this, select the recommended schedule. What is the right schedule for administering Menveo vaccine to a healthy 2-month-old girl who will be traveling to an endemic area?

2 doses: 2 and 4 months of age.

3 doses: 2, 4, and 6 months of age.

4 doses: 2, 4, 6, and 12 months of age. (correct)

5 doses: 2, 4. 6, 12 and 15 months of age.

8) Which statement is true regarding illnesses caused by Neisseria Meningitidis (N. Meningitidis)? [Remediation Accessed :N]

N. Meningitidis-related illness is hyperendemic in southern Africa and the newly independent Eastern European nations.

There are slightly more than 200,000 reported cases of N. Meningitidis-related illness in the United States each year.

N Meningitidis most commonly causes meningitis and sexually transmitted diseases.

Most cases of meningitis in the United States are caused by N. Meningitidis serogroups B, C, Y, and W-135. (correct)

9) Which statement is correct about meningococcal vaccination in the Armed Forces?

Service Members are given meningococcal vaccine according to ACIP recommendations for adults in the general population. (correct)

There are no recommendations for administration of meningococcal vaccine related to travel or deployment in the Armed Forces.

Service Members are required to be revaccinated with meningococcal vaccine every 5 years.

Meningococcal vaccination is not routinely administered to Armed Forces recruits.

10) Is a meningococcal booster recommended for a 2-year-old girl who has complement component deficiency and received primary series with final dose at 15 months of age?

Yes

No (correct)

11) Is a meningococcal booster recommended for a 75-year-old woman who had her spleen removed 10 years ago and received a primary dose at age 66?

Yes (correct)

12) Meningococcal conjugate vaccine is administered subcutaneously. [Remediation Accessed :N]

False (correct)

True

13) Which person has a valid contraindication to receiving meningococcal vaccine today?

Someone hospitalized with acute bronchitis. (correct)

Someone who is allergic to penicillin.

Someone taking antibiotics for a sinus infection.

Someone who received a prior dose of meningococcal vaccine less than 10 years ago.

14) Is a meningococcal booster recommended for a healthy 16-year-old boy who received a primary dose at 14 years of age?

Yes (correct)

Information Environment Awareness

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

What is the importance of information warfare within military activities?

Competition between the United States and other countries to control, degrade, manipulate, and corrupt the information environment.

What instrument of national power may be used to advance America’s strategic interests on the international stage?

Information

What countries have used social media to conduct disinformation and propaganda offensives targeting individual Airmen?

Russia and China

False stories of unjustified strikes against an adversary could create doubt about the reliability of sensors and weapons and cause hesitation.

True

What makes it cheap and easy to target Military and veterans for intelligence gathering and influence campaigns?

Social media

Adversaries can determine how close Airmen are connected to others by __________.

analyzing the volume, frequency, and pattern of Airmen’s communications

What action should you take if you detect or suspect disinformation?

Ignore it

How can Airmen begin to pick apart an influence attempt?

Recognize, apply, and improve your ability to detect falsehoods

Social media algorithms are designed to prioritize content the audience will engage with shares, reactions, and links, because that’s how they earn advertising revenue.

True

Real news reporting spreads faster on the Internet than false news reporting.

False

When using the SMART model and analyzing information based on the Two-Source Test phase, what should you be aware of?

Question and challenge your own confirmation bias

How does the integrated deterrence concept affect the United States?

Information operations against the United States may cause the United States to turn inward focused on domestic matters.

Annual OSD Records and Information Management Training (20 mins)

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

1) DHA's SharePoint must be configured to comply with recordkeeping requirements to be approved to manage official agency records.

False

True (correct)

2) Penalties for unlawful or accidental removal, defacing, alteration, or destruction of Federal records or the attempt to do so, include a fine, imprisonment, or both.

True (correct)

False

3) Non-record materials can be comingled with official Agency records.

True

False (correct)

4) Vital records are: (Check all that apply)

Needed to meet operational responsibilities under an emergency and part of an agency's Records Disaster Mitigation and Recovery Program (correct)

Needed to protect the legal and financial rights of the government and those affected by government activities (correct)

Accessible within 12 hours after a disaster, regardless of media or format of records (correct)

5) Permanent records are destroyed after a fixed period of time or the occurrence of an event.

True

False (correct)

6) File Plans must be updated annually or more frequently if necessary.

False

True (correct)

7) Record Freezes/Litigation Holds are court or agency imposed requirement suspending the destruction of all affected record information until all litigation or disputes are resolved or lifted.

False

True (correct)

8) Records must be destroyed in accordance with the OSD Records Disposition Schedule.

True (correct)

False

9) DHA Form "Notice of Destruction" is ONLY required for records containing sensitive, PII, or PHI.

True

False (correct)

10) Record removal authorization must be coordinated with:

Supervisor/Division Chief

General Counsel

Security Officer

Records Management Officer or Market Records Liaison

All of the above (correct)

11) Records stored in a form that only a computer can process are called ___________.

Electronic Records (correct)

Paper Records

Cuneiform Records

12) It is a good idea to maintain duplicate records in different locations for ease of access.

True

False (correct)

13) The OSD Records Disposition Schedule provides records disposition instructions for temporary and permanent records.

False

True (correct)

14) An Office File Plan is not required if the office's records are organized.

False (correct)

True

15) File Plan elements include, but are not limited to: (Check all that apply)

Physical location of records (correct)

Media format (correct)

Record disposition instructions (correct)

Vital Record designation (correct)

File number, file title, and file description (correct)

16) Non-records may only be removed from DHA custody when proper authorization has been received.

False

True (correct)

17) An effective Records and Information Management (RIM) program ensures which of the following? (Check all that apply)

Responsibilities are assigned for maintenance of records (correct)

Record, non-record, and personal material are maintained separately (correct)

Procedures are established for organizing, storing, handling, protecting, referencing, and retrieving of records (correct)

18) Personal papers are documentary materials of a private or nonpublic character that do not relate to, or have an effect on, the conduct of agency business.

False

True (correct)

1) DHA's SharePoint must be configured to comply with recordkeeping requirements to be approved to manage official agency records.

False

True (correct)

2) Penalties for unlawful or accidental removal, defacing, alteration, or destruction of Federal records or the attempt to do so, include a fine, imprisonment, or both.

True (correct)

False

3) Non-record materials can be comingled with official Agency records.

False (correct)

True

4) Vital records are: (Check all that apply)

Needed to protect the legal and financial rights of the government and those affected by government activities (correct)

Accessible within 12 hours after a disaster, regardless of media or format of records (correct)

Needed to meet operational responsibilities under an emergency and part of an agency's Records Disaster Mitigation and Recovery Program (correct)

5) Permanent records are destroyed after a fixed period of time or the occurrence of an event.

True

False (correct)

6) File Plans must be updated annually or more frequently if necessary.

True (correct)

False

7) Record Freezes/Litigation Holds are court or agency imposed requirement suspending the destruction of all affected record information until all litigation or disputes are resolved or lifted.

False

True (correct)

8) Records must be destroyed in accordance with the OSD Records Disposition Schedule.

True (correct)

False

9) DHA Form "Notice of Destruction" is ONLY required for records containing sensitive, PII, or PHI.

False (correct)

True

10) Record removal authorization must be coordinated with:

Supervisor/Division Chief

General Counsel

Security Officer

Records Management Officer or Market Records Liaison

All of the above (correct)

11) Records stored in a form that only a computer can process are called ___________.

Electronic Records (correct)

Paper Records

Cuneiform Records

12) It is a good idea to maintain duplicate records in different locations for ease of access.

True

False (correct)

13) The OSD Records Disposition Schedule provides records disposition instructions for temporary and permanent records.

True (correct)

False

14) An Office File Plan is not required if the office's records are organized.

False (correct)

True

15) File Plan elements include, but are not limited to: (Check all that apply)

Record disposition instructions (correct)

File number, file title, and file description (correct)

Media format (correct)

Physical location of records (correct)

Vital Record designation (correct)

16) Non-records may only be removed from DHA custody when proper authorization has been received.

True (correct)

False

17) An effective Records and Information Management (RIM) program ensures which of the following? (Check all that apply)

Procedures are established for organizing, storing, handling, protecting, referencing, and retrieving of records (correct)

Record, non-record, and personal material are maintained separately (correct)

Responsibilities are assigned for maintenance of records (correct)

18) Personal papers are documentary materials of a private or nonpublic character that do not relate to, or have an effect on, the conduct of agency business.

False

True (correct)

NEO for Civilians v1.1

February 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

__________ is a recognized system of dinternational courtesy. It is the starting point for almost everything done in protocol.

Precedence

The group of fighter escorts protecting our bombers during WWII that acheived the lowest bomber loss rate was the _____.

Tuskegee Airman

The Spoils System was a way to appoint family and friends civil service jobs. What significant events prompted civil service reform and resulted in the passage of the Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act, which replaced The Spoils System?

The assassination of President Garfield and public support for civil service reform.

Part of the Army Air Corps became the U.S. Air Force, making the Air Force its own independent service in_____.

1947

Orville and Wilbur Wright developed the technology to successfully control an aircraft and had their first successful flight in _____.

1903

True/False: The Women’s Auxiliary Ferrying Service (WAFS) was a strictly civilian organization placed, on 3-month contracts, used to ferry aircraft from the point of manufacturer to bases where they were needed.

True

The Army Aeronautical Division was formed under the Army Signal Corps in____.

1907

In the late 1930s more than 150,000 civilians with a love of aviation petitioned for an organization to put theri flying skills to use. Their petition was granted and this organization became the ________.

Civil Air Patrol

All of the following are true, except: The American flag _____.

may be draped over parts of vehicles, train cars, boats, etc. when appropriate

Practices that are established by usage over a long period of time, are considered an Air Force________

Custom

President Harry Truman appointed the first civilian leader of the Air Force when Truman appointed_______as Secretary of the Air Force in 1947.

Stuart Symington

What created rules and procedures for federal civilian employees and provided new protections for employees disclosing illegal or improper government conduct? The——-.

Civil Service Reform Act of 1978

True/False: Only military members are required to render a salute, not civilians.

True

Which ceremoney signals the end of the duty day and serves a ceremony to pay respect to the flag?

Retreat

A willingness to do the right thing even when no one is looking is an example of________.

Integrity First

Part of the mission statement for the Air Force is, “to fly, fight, and_____.”

The Department of the Air Force is comprised of the U.S. Air Force and _______.

U.S. Space Force

The ______ _______ is/are a common bond that unifies all Airmne.

Core Values

__________ encompasses attributes such as courage, honesty, justice, and openness.

Integrity First

Which Air Force Core Mission provides information helping our leaders make informed decisions to maintain deterrence, contain crises, or achieve success in battle?

Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance

Which position is held by a general officer in the U.S. Air Force and is the principal military advisor to the Secretary of the Air Force?

Chief of Staff of the Air Force

Which of the following is NOT one of the Air Force Core Missions?

Global Vigilance

Headquarters Air Force is made up of two major entities, the Secretary of the Air Force and the_______

Air Staff

Which entity is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping Guardians to conduct global space operations to enhance join warfighting?

U.S. Space Force

The Secretary of the Air Force is a _____________

Civilian appointed by the president

Which Core Value encourages Airmen to strive for continual improvement in self and in service to achieve greater accomplishments and performance for themselves and their community

Excellence in All We Do

One of the Core Missions of the AF is____________ which provides deployments, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and place or any time.

Rapid Global Mobility

The recognition, appreciation, and use of the talents and skills of employees of all backgrounds BEST describes:

Inclusion

Which of the following are NOT true when completing this statement: Civilian employees are expected to _______________

All are true

TRUE/FALSE: Highly effective teams are able to view the future in an optimistic manner and take a strategic approach to their goals with the anticipation those goals will be met.

True

True or False: Department of the Air Force Instructions (DAFIs) apply only to uniformed Active-Duty, AF Reserve, and Air National Guard Airment.

False

The consistent and systematic fair, just, and impartial treatment of all individuals BEST describes:

Equity

An Airman who may live on a military base, can be deployed at any time, and works full-time for the Air Force with on-the-job training and benefits best describes a/an____________

Active Duty member

Which of the following attributes are used to create a collaborative team environment?

All of these apply

The Air Force considers civilian employees to be Airman.

true

Being a good teammate and communicating effectively are important to the success of a team. Being committed to the team, being flexible and practicing good____ skills are some of the things you can do to be a good teammate

communication

As federal civil servants we take an ________ of_________ that signifies a personal commitment and willingess to serve our nation.

oath, office

Officers are grouped into three rank categories: company grade officers, field grade officers, and ___________ officers.

General

When you make changes to a job, work environment, or the way things are done that allows individuals with a disability to apply for and perform the job, you are applying________

reasonable accommodation

_________ _________ has a goal to instill institutional and occupational competencies in all Airmen to meet current and future Air Force mission requirements

Force development

____________ provides a holistic, learner-centered approach to learning: connects training, education, and experiences, and develops the officer, enlisted, and civilian Airmen we need to meet mission requirements.

Force development

Which initiative provides a better focus on how Airmen learn by integrating education, training, and experience that allows them to learn anytime and anywhere throughout their careers?

Distance Learning

Which of the following are goals of civilian force development in order to sustain a civilian workforce?

All of these apply

_________ is an enterprise solution that supports the Department of the Air Force’s goal to provide a standardized process available to all Airmen for career development and mentor selection

MyVector

A competency that universally applies to all Airmen (officer, enlisted, and civilian) is called a ________________ competency.

Foundational

______________ are a cluster of knowledge, skills, abilities and attributes an individual possesses to successfully perform a given task.

competencies

Supervisor and manager training courses develop supervisors and managers as part of a comprehensive management succession program. The courses are _______ based on the current position held by the employee.

Mandatory

Which civilian education program can provide financial aid for civilian self-development courses taken on a voluntary, off-duty basis?

Civilian Tuition Assistance Program (CTAP)

______is a relationship between two individuals, in which one has greater experience and wisdom, and is based on a mutual desire for development towards career goals and objectives.

Mentoring

an/A___________ is a written plan and schedule designed to meet an employee’s particular development goals.

Individual Development Plan (IDP)

When the federal government can’t meet a training need, the employee development specialist may arrange training through a non-government entity. This type of training is called_________ training.

Vendor

The Supervisor plays a key role in a force development. In fulfilling this role, the supervisor should do which of the following?

All are correct

All employees who are authorized to telework are required to__________

All are correct

Which of the following are true concerning the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP)?

You are automatically enrolled and 5% of your basic salary is deducted each pay period and depositited to your TSP account

Sick leave is allowed for which of the following situations?

All are correct

True/False: Flexible spending accounts are available to assist with medical costs not covered by your insurance.

True

True/False: You are automatically enrolled in basic life insurance and due to the nature of your employment, you make not opt out of this coverage

False

Which of the following are true statements concerning your rights as a federal civil service employee

All are true

What is the maximum number of annual leave hours a federal employee can accumulate?

______hours are the time periods during the workday, workweek, or pay period that are within the tour of duty during which an employee covered by a flexible work schedule is required by the agency to be present for work

Core

True/False: New permanent civilian employees are automatically enrolled in basic life insurance effective the first day of employment

True

Title VII of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 allows bargaining unit employees to _______

Elect a labor union to serve as their bargaining agent

The_______protects employees from reprisal for lawfully disclosing gross mismanagement, gross waste of funds, abuse of authority, and other significant violations of federal law

Whistleblower Protection Act

Veterans who become a federal civilian employee and who want their military time to count toward their federal civilian retirement may do so under the______

Military Service Buy Back program

Which of the following is NOT a federal holiday?

Good Friday (the Friday before Easter)

There are two types of Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) contributions:

Regualr and Catch-up

The two types of telework are________

Full-Time and Remote

____________are hours an employee works, with the supervisor’s approval, in excess of the employee’s basic work schedule

Credit hours

Which system is the official source of Air Force human resource knowledge

-MyPers

Military Decision Making Process (MDMP) Questions and Answers

December 7, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Define the Military Decision Making Process

"An iterative planning methodology to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce and operation plan or order.

What are the two types of planning?

Collaborative & Parallel

What are the design activities?

Understand, Visualize, Describe

What are the steps of MDMP?

1. Receipt of Mission // 2.Mission Analysis // 3.Course of Action Development // 4.Course of Action Analysis (Wargaming) // 5.Course of Action Comparison // 6.Course of Action Approval // 7.Orders Production

How many steps in Receipt of Mission?

How many steps in Mission Analysis?

How many steps in Course of Action Development?

How many steps in Course of Action Analysis?

How many steps in Course of Action Comparison?

Who is the most important participant in MDMP?

The Commander

What do commanders do during MDMP?

Drive the design process // Informal and frequent // meetings // Commanders are planners // Ensure approaches to planning meet specific requirements (simple, flexible plans work best)"

What does the CoS or XO do during MDMP?

1. Manages and coordinates the entire staff // 2. Clearly understands the commander's guidance/intent // 3. Provides time-lines, briefing instructions, and additional instructions"

What is the collective staff role in MDMP?

1. Help the CDR understand the situation // 2. Assist the CDR in making decisions // 3. Synchronize decisions // 4. Help CDR develop visualization // 5. Provide recommendations // 6. Produce orders"

What are the staff characteristics?

Competence, Loyalty, Team Player, Effective Manager, Effective Communicator, Confidence, Flexible, Creative, Initiative"

What are the inputs for Receipt of Mission?

Higher HQ plan or order & A new mission anticipated by the CDR"

What are the key outputs from Receipt of Mission?

1. Commander's Initial Guidance // 2. Initial allocation of time // 3. WARNO #1"

What are the 6 sub-steps to Receipt of Mission?

1. Alert the staff and other key participants, 2. Gather the tools, 3. Update running estimates, 4. Conduct initial assessment, 5. Issue the CDR's initial guidance, 6. Issue the WARNO

What are some examples of tools to gather during Receipt of Mission?

Appropriate FM's, Higher HQ order, Maps / Graphics, Intel and Assessment Products, SOPs, Running Estimates"

What do running estimates include?

Facts, Assumptions, Friendly Force Status, Enemy Activity / Capabilities, Civil Considerations, Conclusions and Recommendations"

What does the initial commander's guidance include?

Initial time allocation, Liaison officer exchange, Initiate ISR, Collaborative planning times and locations, Initial information requirements (IRs), Additional staff tasks

What does the initial WARNO include?

Type of operation, Location of operation, Timeline, Initial movement and ISR directives"

What is the 1/3 - 2/3 rule?

Higher HQ takes 1/3 of time to plan, gives 2/3 of time to lower echelons to plan

What are the inputs for Mission Analysis?

Higher HQ Plan/Order, Intel from Higher HQ, Products from other organizations, Updated running estimates, Initial CDR Guidance, Design concept

What are the outputs from Mission Analysis?

1. Problem Statement, 2. Mission Statement, 3. Initial CDR Intent, 4. Initial CCIR and EEFI, 5. Initial CDR Planning Guidance, 6. Updated IPB products, and Running Estimates, 7. Assumptions, 8. COA Evaluation Criteria, 9. WARNO #2"

What is the purpose of Mission Analysis?

1. Refines the commander's situational understanding and determines their mission, 2. Enables better commander's visualization of the purpose of the operation

What are sub-steps 1 through 8 of Mission Analysis?

1. Analyze the higher HQ Plan/Order, 2. Perform initial IPB, 3. Determine specified, implied and essential tasks, 4. Review available assets and identify resource shortfalls, 5. Determine constraints, 6. Identify critical facts and develop assumptions, 7. Begin Risk Management, 8. Develop initial CCIR and EEFI

What are sub-steps 9 through 18 of Mission Analysis?

9. Develop initial information collection plan, 10. Update plan for use of available time , 11. Develop initial themes and messages, 12. Develop a proposed problem statement, 13. Develop a proposed mission statement, 14. Present the MA brief, 15. Develop and issue initial CDR's Intent, 16. Develop and issue initial planning guidance, 17. Develop COA evaluation criteria, 18. Issue WARNO #2"

What is the commander and staff's aim when analyzing the higher HQ order?

"Determine how their unit, by task and purpose, contributes to the mission, commander's intent, and concept of operations of the higher HQ"

When analyzing the higher headquarters plan or order, mission analysis sub-step 1, what must the commander and staff completely understand?

1. Commander's Intent, 2. Mission, 3.Concept of Operations, 4.Available Assets, 5.Timeline, 6. Missions of adjacent, supporting and supported units, 7. Missions of interagency, intergovernmental, and NGOs working in the operational area, 8.Assigned area of operations"

What are the four steps of IPB?

1. Define the Operational Environment, 2. Describe the effects of the environment on operations, 3. Evaluate the threat, 4. Determine threat COAs"

What is a specified task?

a task specifically assigned to a unit by its higher headquarters. Specified tasks can be found in paragraphs 2 and 3 of the higher headquarters order or plan.

What is an implied task?

a task that must be performed to accomplish a specified task or mission but is not stated in the higher HQ order.

What are the two types of implied task missions?

1. Be-prepared mission: assigned to a unit that might be executed, 2. On-order mission: to be executed at an unspecified time"

What is an essential task?

a specified or implied task that must be executed to accomplish the mission. They are always included in the unit's mission statement.

What areas must be analyzed during Review Available Assets and Identify Resource Shortfalls?

1. Additions to and deletions from current task-org, 2. Command and Support relationships, 3. Current capabilities/limitations of all units, 4. Consider relationships between specified, implied, and essential tasks and available assets.

What is a constraint?

a restriction placed on the command by a higher command; a constraint dictates an action or inaction, thus restricting the freedom of action of a subordinate commander.

What are plans and orders based on?

Facts and Assumptions

What is a fact?

a statement of truth or a statement thought to be true at the time

What is an assumption?

a supposition on the current situation or a presupposition on the future course of events, assumed to be true in the absence of positive proof

What is the Army's primary process for determining hazards and controlling risk during operations?

Composite Risk Management

What are the five steps of Composite Risk Management?

1. Identify Hazards, 2. Assess Hazards, 3. Make Decisions, 4. Implement Controls, 5. Supervise"

What are the two types of risk?

"Tactical Risk & Accidental Risk

Define Tactical Risk:

risk concerned with hazards that exist because of the presence of either the enemy or an adversary

Define Accidental Risk:

"includes all operational risk considerations other than tactical risk. It includes risks to the friendly force. It also includes risks posed to civilians by an operation, as well as an operation's impact on the environment."

Define CCIR as it applies to Mission Analysis:

What does the commander need to know in a specific situation to make a particular decision in a timely manner

What are the two types of CCIRs in MDMP?

Initial CCIR & Post COA CCIR

What elements are included in synchronization of ISR?

1. All assets the commander controls, 2. Assets made available from lateral units or higher echelons, 3. RFIs, 4. Intelligence reach to answer CCIR

What is an information theme?

a unifying or dominant idea or image that expresses the purpose for military actions

Define problem statement:

a statement of the problem to be solved

How does a staff identify and understand the problem?

They compare the current situation to the desired end state and brainstorm and list issues that impede the commander from achieving the desired end state"

Define Mission Statement:

"a short sentence or paragraph that describes the organizations essential task, or tasks, and purpose- a clear statement of the action to be taken and the reason for doing so; must answer who, what, where, when, why and how"

What is the purpose of the Mission Analysis brief?

1. Inform the commander of the results of the staff's analysis of the situation and helps the commander understand, visualize, and describe the operation, 2. Staff presents summary of their running estimates, 3. CDR issues guidance to the staff for continued planning based on situational understanding"

What two things does the commander's intent link?

The operations purpose with conditions that define the desired end state.

What are evaluation criteria?

factors the commander and staff will later use to measure the relative effectiveness and efficiency of one COA relative to other COAs

What two factors do evaluation criteria address?

factors that affect success factors that can cause failure

Who initially determines each proposed criterion with weights based on the assessment of its relative importance and the commander's guidance?

What things must the Targeting Officer do during Mission Analysis?

Refine HPTL, Refine NAIs, Refine TSS/AGM, Refine TSM, Update Running Estimate, Identify initial ATO requirements

What is the most important step of MDMP?

Mission Analysis

What are the inputs for Course of Action (COA) Development?

1. Approved Problem Statement,2. Approved Mission Statement, 3. Initial CDR's Intent and Planning Guidance, 4. Specified and Implied Tasks, 5. Assumptions, 6. Updated Running Estimates and IPB Products"

What are the outputs from COA Development?

1. COA Statements and Sketches, 2. CDR's Refined Planning Guidance to include Wargame Guidance and Evaluation Criteria, 3. Updated Running Estimates and IPB Products, 4. Updated Assumptions, 5. Initial HPTL, TSS, AGM"

What are the screening criteria?

Feasible, Acceptable, Suitable, Distinguishable, Complete

Each COA must incorporate:

1. How the decisive operation leads to mission accomplishment, 2. How shaping operations create and preserve conditions for success of the decisive operation or effort, 3. How sustaining operations enable shaping and decisive operations or efforts, 4. How offensive, defensive, and stability or civil support tasks are accounted for, 5. Tasks to be performed and conditions to be achieved

What are the 8 steps of COA Development?

1. Assess relative combat power, 2. Generate Options, 3. Array Forces, 4. Develop a Broad Concept, 5. Assign Headquarters, 6. Prepare COA Statements and Sketches, 7. Conduct a COA Briefing, 8. Select or Modify COAs for Continued Analysis

Define Combat Power:

the total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit/formation can apply at a given time

During Generate Options, what options are being generated?

Friendly options to defeat an enemy COA

What is the order for Generating Options?

1. Begins with Decisive Operation, 2. Then Shaping Operation, 3. Determine Supporting Operation, 4. Determine essential tasks for each operation, 5. Weigh COA against screening criteria (FASDC)"

What is meant by array forces?

Assessing relative combat power in time/space

What is a COA Statement?

Clearly portrays how the unit will accomplish the mission

What is a COA Sketch?

Provides a picture/graphic of the movement and maneuver aspects of the concept, including the positioning of forces

What will the COA Statement and Sketch cover for each subordinate unit?

The who (generic task org), what (tasks), when, where, and why (purpose)

What are the inputs for COA Analysis?

1. Updated IPB, 2. Updated Running Estimates, 3. Updated CDR Planning Guidance, 4. COA Statements and Sketches, 5. Updated Assumptions

What are the outputs for COA Analysis?

1. Refined COA, 2. Decision Support Template and Matrices, 3. Synchronization Matrices, 4. Potential Branches and Sequels, 5. Updated Running Estimates, 6. Updated Assumptions

What are the eight steps to COA Analysis?

1. Gather the Tools, 2. List all friendly forces, 3. List assumptions, 4. List known critical events and decision points, 5. Select War-Game method, 6. Select a technique to record and display the results, 7. War-game the operation and assess the results, 8. Conduct a war-game brief (optional)"

What is a critical event?

events that trigger significant action/decisions, complicated actions, and essential tasks

What is a decision point?

a point in time and space when the CDR or staff anticipates making a key decision concerning a specific COA & Requires decision by the CDR

What is the purpose of war-gaming?

1. Attempts to visualize the flow of the operation, identifying:, 2. Force strength and disposition, 3. Enemy capabilities and COAs, 4. Impacts to civilian personnel

What are the two forms of war-gaming?

1. Manual Method (tabletop) & 2. Modern Method (computer aided)

What is the process for conducting war-gaming?

"Action-Reaction-Counteraction & Blue-Red-Blue"

What are the War-gaming rules?

1. Remain objective, 2. Accurately record advantages and disadvantages of each COA as they emerge, 3. Continually assess screening criteria, 4. Avoid drawing premature conclusions and gathering facts to support such conclusions, 5. Avoid comparing one COA with another during the war-game"

If planning in a time-constrained environment, what operation should be war-gamed at a minimum?"

The Decisive Operation

What are the three war-gaming techniques?

1. Belt, 2. Avenue in Depth, 3. Box

Describe the Belt Technique:

-Works best in offensive and defensive operations on terrain divided into well-defined cross-compartments, during phased operations or when the enemy is deployed in clearly defined belts or echelons and is Based on sequential analysis of events to focus forces affecting a particular event

Describe the Avenue in Depth Technique:

One Avenue of approach at a time, that Begins with decisive operation and is good for offensive operations or in the defense when canalizing terrain inhibits support

Describe the Box Technique:

Detailed analysis of a critical area that Works best in time constrained environment such as a (hasty attack) and is conductive to noncontiguous AOs

What are the two techniques to Record and Display Results?

"Synchronization Matrix Technique & Sketch Note Technique

What are the inputs for COA Comparison?

1. war Game Results, 2. Evaluation Criteria, 3. Updated Running Estimates, 4. Updated Assumptions"

What are the outputs for COA Comparison?

1. Evaluated COA, 2. Recommended COA, 3. COA Selection rationale, 4.Updated Running Estimates , 5. Updated Assumptions"

What are the three sub-steps for COA Comparison?

1. Conduct Advantages and Disadvantages Analysis, 2. Compare COAs, 3. Conduct a COA Decision Brief"

What are the inputs for COA Approval?

Updated Running Estimates, Evaluated COA, Recommended COA, Updated Assumptions"

What are the outputs for COA Approval?

CDR selected COA and any modifications, Refined CDR's Intent, CCIR, and EEFI, Updated Assumptions, WARNO #3"

When does the CDR select a COA?

After the decision brief

What does the CDR provide after selecting a COA?

Final Planning Guidance, Updates to CDR's Guidance, CCIR, EEFI, Priorities of Resources, Acceptable Risk Guidance, WARNO Guidance"

What does WARNO #3 contain?

Mission, CDR's Intent, Updated CCIR and EEFI, Concept of Operations, AO Overview, Principle Tasks assigned to subordinate units, Preparation and Rehearsal Instructions, Final Time-line"

What are the inputs for Orders Production?

CDR's selected COA with any modifications, Refined CDR's Intent, CCIR, and EEFI, Updated Assumptions"

What are the outputs for Orders Production?

Operations Order (OPORD)

What are the three types of orders?

"Operations Order (OPORD), Fragmentary Order (FRAGO) Warning Order (WARNO)"

What is the five paragraph format for orders?

1. Situation, 2. Mission, 3. Execution, 4. Sustainment, 5. Command and Signal

What is order of supplements to an order?

"Annexes, Appendixes, Tabs, Exhibits

During what step of MDMP are Fire Support Tasks developed?

Receipt of Mission / Mission Analysis

Where do FSTs originate?

"-Directives from higher HQ, CDR's Guidance, Fire Support Planning Guidance, Scheme of Fires"

How many essential elements of an FST are there?

What are the essential elements of an FST?

Task, Purpose, Execution, Assessment"

What is the acronym used to specify the execution of the FST?

T T L O D A C

Define TTLODAC:

Target Number/Type, Trigger, Location, Observer, Delivery System, Attack Guidance / # of iterations, Communications Networks"

What additional information may be inclusive in the execution portion of the FST?

Priority, Allocation, Restriction / FSCM, Positioning Guidance",

What is a FAT?

Field Artillery Task

Define FAT:

FATs are generated from the Field Artillery associated requirements defined in the maneuver-oriented FSTs and are Tasks the FA must accomplish to achieve an FST"

What are the essential elements of a FAT?

"Task, Purpose, Method, Effects"

What are the three doctrinal types of operations?

Decisive, Sustaining, Shaping

What is collaborative planning?

Collaborative planning is commanders, subordinate commanders, staffs, and other partners sharing information, knowledge, perceptions, ideas, and concepts regardless of physical location throughout the planning process.

What is parallel planning?

Parallel planning is two or more echelons planning for the same operation sharing information sequentially through warning orders from the higher headquarters prior to the higher headquarters publishing their operation plan or operation order.

The commander practices the Art of War and the battle staff engage in the Science of War.

Where can instructions on conducting MDMP in a time constrained environment be found?

FM 6 9-196 through 9-1999

Define: military decision-making process

An iterative planning methodology to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operation plan or order (ADP 5-0).

What are the seven steps of the MDMP process?

Step 1 - Receipt of Mission
Step 2 - Mission Analysis
Step 3 - Course of Action Development
Step 4 - Course of Action Analysis (War Game)
Step 5 - Course of Action Comparison
Step 6 - Course of Action Approval
Step 7 - Orders Production

What is the key input to receipt of mission?

initiate the MDMP upon receipt or in anticipation of a mission.

What processing events take place upon receipt of mission?

Alerts all participants of the pending planning requirements, enabling them to determine the amount of time available for planning and preparation and decide on a planning approach, including guidance on using Army design methodology and how to abbreviate the MDMP, if required. When commanders identify a new mission, commanders and staffs perform the actions and produce the expected key outputs.

Upon receipt of mission, staff will begin to gather tools that will include but not be limited to the following assets.

Appropriate publications, including ADRP 1-02.
All documents related to the mission and area of operations, including the higher headquarters'
OPLAN and OPORD, maps and terrain products, and operational graphics.
Higher headquarters and other organizations' intelligence and assessment products.
Estimates and products of other military and civilian agencies and organizations.
Both their own and the higher headquarters' SOPs.
Current running estimates.
Any Army design methodology products.

Upon receipt of mission, staff will start their running estimates that will focus on what?

The status of friendly units and resources and key civil considerations that affect each functional area. Running estimates not only compile critical facts and assumptions from the perspective of each staff section, but also include information from other staff sections and other military and civilian organizations.

When conducting an initial assessment what factors do the commander and staff take into consideration?

Time and resources available to plan, prepare, and begin execution of an operation.

How does an initial assessment help the commander?

It assists the command in determining the following:
The time needed to plan and prepare for the mission for both headquarters and subordinate units.
Guidance on conducting the Army design methodology and abbreviating the MDMP, if
required.
Which outside agencies and organizations to contact and incorporate into the planning process.
The staff's experience, cohesiveness, and level of rest or stress.

How much time is allocated to subordinate units to conduct their individual planning and preparation?

As a rule, commanders allocate a minimum of two-thirds of available time for subordinate units to conduct their planning and preparation. This leaves one-third of the time for commanders and their staffs to do their planning. The 1/3 and 2/3 rule.

What does the commander's initial guidance include?

Initial time allocations.
A decision to initiate Army design methodology or go straight into the MDMP.
How to abbreviate the MDMP, if required.
Necessary coordination to exchange liaison officers.
Authorized movements and initiation of information collection.
Collaborative planning times and locations.
Initial information requirements.
Additional staff tasks.

What is the last task in receipt of mission?

Issue the WARNORD

The command and staff conduct mission analysis to answer what?

The commander and staff conduct mission analysis to better understand the situation and problem, and identify what the command must accomplish, when and where it must be done, and most importantly why—the purpose of the operation.

When performing analysis on higher headquarters' plan or order staff seeks to understand what?

The higher headquarters'—
Commander's intent.
Mission.
Concept of operations.
Available assets.
Timeline.
The missions of adjacent, supporting, and supported units and their relationships to the higher
headquarters' plan.
The missions or goals of unified action partners that work in the operational areas.
Their assigned area of operations.

What is Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB)?

The systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, and civil
considerations in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations.

When conducting mission analysis in what capacity does the intelligence staff contribute?

Intelligence staff, along with the other staff elements, will use IPB to develop detailed threat COA
models, which depict a COA available to the threat. The threat COA models provide a basis for formulating
friendly COAs and completing the intelligence estimate.

What are the outputs of the intelligence staff mission analysis?

Initial priority intelligence requirements (PIRs),
the production of a complete modified combined obstacles overlay, a list of high value targets, and
unrefined event templates and matrices. IPB should provide an understanding of the threat's center of
gravity, which then can be exploited by friendly forces.

Define specified tasks

A task specifically assigned to a unit by its higher headquarters.

Define implied tasks

A task that must be performed to accomplish a specified task or mission but is not stated in the higher headquarters' order.

Define be-prepared mission

A mission assigned to a unit that might be
executed.

Define on-order mission

A mission to be executed at an unspecified time.

Define essential task

A specified or implied task that must be executed to accomplish the mission.

Define constraint

A restriction placed on the command by a higher command. A constraint dictates an action or inaction,
thus restricting the freedom of action of a subordinate commander.

What are examples of constraints?

The operation overlay, for example, may contain a restrictive fire line or a no fire area. It may also be based on resource limitations within the command, such as organic fuel transport capacity, or physical characteristics of the operational environment, such as the number of vehicles that can cross a bridge in a specified time.

When identifying facts and assumptions, where do assumptions come from?

In the absence of facts, the commander and staff consider assumptions from their higher headquarters. They then develop their own assumptions necessary for continued planning.

Is it appropriate for staff to allow assumptions to continue in perpetuity?

No. Staff wants to replace assumptions with facts at the earliest opportunity.

Define Risk management

The process of identifying, assessing, and controlling risks arising from operational factors and making decisions that balance risk cost with mission benefits (JP 3-0).

Who is responsible with integrating risk management into the MDMP?

The chief of protection (or operations staff officer [S-3] in units without a protection cell) in coordination with the safety officer integrates risk management into the MDMP. All staff sections integrate risk management for hazards within their functional areas.

Why do commanders designate CCIRs?

To inform the staff and subordinates what information
they deem essential for making decisions.

CCIR fall into two categories. What are those categories?

1. Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR)
2. Friendly Force Information Requirements (FFIRs)

What does PIR identify for the commander?

Information about the enemy and other aspects of the operational environment that the commander considers most important. All staff sections may recommend information about civil considerations as PIRs.

What does FFIR identify for the commander?

Information the commander and staff need to understand the status of friendly force and
supporting capabilities.

What does the initial information collection plan set into motion?

Reconnaissance, surveillance, and intelligence operations

What factors does the operations officer consider when developing the initial information collection plan?

Requirements for collection assets in subsequent missions.
The time available to develop and refine the initial information collection plan.
The risk the commander is willing to accept if information collection missions are begun before
the information collection plan is fully integrated into the scheme of maneuver.
Insertion and extraction methods for reconnaissance, security, surveillance, and intelligence
collection assets.
Contingencies for inclement weather to ensure coverage of key named areas of interest or target
areas of interest.
The communications plan for transmission of reports from assets to command posts.
The inclusion of collection asset locations and movements into the fire support plan.
The reconnaissance handover with higher or subordinate echelons.
The sustainment support.
Legal support requirements.

What is a theme?

A unifying or dominant idea or image that expresses the purpose for military action. Themes tie to objectives, lines of effort, and end state conditions. They are overarching and apply to capabilities of public affairs, military information support operations, and Soldier and leader engagements.

What is a message?

A verbal, written, or electronic communication that supports a theme focused on a specific actor or the public and in support of a specific action (task). Units transmit themes and messages to those actors or the public whose perceptions, attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors matter to the success of an operation.

How does staff assist the commander in developing a proposed problem statement?

Compares the current situation to the desired end state.
Brainstorms and lists issues that impede the commander from achieving the desired end state.

Define mission statement

A short sentence or paragraph that describes the
organization's essential task(s), purpose, and action containing the elements of who, what, when, where,
and why (JP 5-0).

What are the five elements of a mission statement?

Who will execute the operation (unit or organization)?
What is the unit's essential task (tactical mission task)?
When will the operation begin (by time or event) or what is the duration of the operation?
Where will the operation occur (area of operations, objective, grid coordinates)?
Why will the force conduct the operations (for what purpose)?

What is a mission analysis briefing?

A briefing that informs the commander of the results of the staff's analysis of the situation. It helps the commander understand, visualize, and describe the operation.

What is the preferred outline of a mission analysis briefing?

Mission and commander's intent of the headquarters two echelons up.
Mission, commander's intent, and concept of operations of the headquarters one echelon up.
A proposed problem statement.
A proposed mission statement.
Review of the commander's initial guidance.
Initial IPB products, including civil considerations that impact the conduct of operations.
Specified, implied, and essential tasks.
Pertinent facts and assumptions.
Constraints.
Forces available and resource shortfalls.
Initial risk assessment.
Proposed themes and messages.
Proposed CCIRs and EEFIs.
Initial information collection plan.
Recommended timeline.
Recommended collaborative planning sessions.
Proposed evaluation criteria.

What is commander's intent?

The commander's intent is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to the staff, and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the commander's desired results without further orders, even when the operation does not unfold as planned.

Define operational approach

A description of the broad actions the force must take to transform current conditions into those desired at end state (JP 5-0).

What does the initial planning guidance outline?

Specific COAs the commander desires the staff to look at as well as rules out any COAs the commander will not accept. That clear guidance allows the staff to develop several COAs without wasting effort on things that the commander will not consider.

When does staff issue subordinating units the WARNORD?

Immediately after the commander gives the planning guidance.

A WARNORD must contain the following elements at a minimum:

The approved mission statement.
The commander's intent.
Changes to task organization.
The unit area of operations (sketch, overlay, or some other description).
CCIRs and EEFIs.
Risk guidance.
Priorities by warfighting functions.
Military deception guidance.
Essential stability tasks.
Initial information collection plan.
Specific priorities.
Updated operational timeline.
Movements.

What screening criteria do planners use to validate COAs?

Feasible. The COA can accomplish the mission within the established time, space, and resource

limitations.

Acceptable. The COA must balance cost and risk with the advantage gained.

Suitable. The COA can accomplish the mission within the commander's intent and planning

guidance.

Distinguishable. Each COA must differ significantly from the others (such as scheme of

maneuver, lines of effort, phasing, use of the reserve, and task organization).

Complete. A COA must incorporate— How the decisive operation leads to mission accomplishment. How shaping operations create and preserve conditions for success of the decisive operation

or effort. How sustaining operations enable shaping and decisive operations or efforts. How to account for offensive, defensive, and stability or defense support of civil authorities tasks. Tasks to be performed and conditions to be achieved.

Define Combat Power

The total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit or formation can apply at a given time.

How do planners assess combat power?

They make a rough estimate of force ratios of maneuver
units two levels below their echelon. They then compare friendly strengths against enemy weaknesses, and vice versa, for each element of combat power. From these comparisons, they may deduce particular vulnerabilities for each force that may be exploited or may need protection.

What insight do planners gain from analyzing force ratios and comparing force strength and weaknesses?

Friendly capabilities that pertain to the operation.
The types of operations possible from both friendly and enemy perspectives.
How and where the enemy may be vulnerable.
How and where friendly forces are vulnerable.
Additional resources needed to execute the mission.
How to allocate existing resources.

Do planners develop and recommend COAs based solely on mathematical analysis of force ratios?

No. Assessing combat power requires assessing both tangible and intangible factors, such as morale and levels of training.

What are the three operational frameworks?

Deep-close-security.
Main and supporting effort.
Decisive-shaping-sustaining.

What are minimum historical planning ratios that planners use as a starting point?

An initial concept of operations will include but not be limited to the following:

The purpose of the operation.
A statement of where the commander will accept risk.
Identification of critical friendly events and transitions between phases (if the operation is
phased).
Designation of the reserve, including its location and composition.
Information collection activities.
Essential stability tasks.
Identification of maneuver options that may develop during an operation.
Assignment of subordinate areas of operations.
Scheme of fires.
Themes, messages, and means of delivery.
Military deception operations (on a need to know basis).
Key control measures.
Designate the operational framework for this operation: deep-close-security, main and
supporting effort, or decisive-shaping-sustaining.
Designation of the decisive operation, along with its task and purpose, linked to how it supports
the higher headquarters' concept.

Planners will develop lines of effort based on the commander's planning guidance by...?

Confirming end state conditions from the initial commander's intent and planning guidance.
Determining and describing each line of effort.
Identifying objectives (intermediate goals) and determining tasks along each line of effort.

A COA statement and sketch covers what?

who (generic task organization), what (tasks), when, where, and why (purpose) for each

subordinate unit.

What generic forces and control measures does a COA sketch include?

The unit and subordinate unit boundaries.
Unit movement formations (but not subordinate unit formations).
The line of departure or line of contact and phase lines, if used.
Information collection graphics.
Ground and air axes of advance.
Assembly areas, battle positions, strong points, engagement areas, and objectives.
Obstacle control measures and tactical mission graphics.
Fire support coordination and airspace coordinating measures.
Main effort.
Location of command posts and critical communications nodes.
Known or templated enemy locations.
Population concentrations.

What does a COA briefing include?

An updated IPB (if there are significant changes).
As many threat COAs as necessary (or specified by the commander). At a minimum the most
likely and most dangerous threat COAs must be developed.
The approved problem statement and mission statement.
The commander's and higher commander's intents.
COA statements and sketches, including lines of effort if used.
The rationale for each COA,

When briefing the rational for a COA it must include?

Considerations that might affect enemy COAs.
Critical events for each COA.
Deductions resulting from the relative combat power analysis.
The reason units are arrayed as shown on the sketch. (See ADRP 1-02 for doctrine on COA
sketches.)
The reason the staff used the selected control measures.
The impact on civilians.
How the COA accounts for minimum essential stability tasks.
New facts and new or updated assumptions.
Refined COA evaluation criteria.

What is the objective of COA analysis?

1. Appraises the quality of each COA
2. Uncovers potential execution problems, decisions, and contingencies
3. Influences how commanders and staffs understand a problem
4. May require the planning process to restart

What is the simplest form of COA analysis (War-gaming)?

The manual method, often using a tabletop approach with blowups of matrixes and templates.

How should each critical event with a COA be War-gamed?

COA analysis should be conducted by using the action, reaction, and counteraction methods of friendly and enemy forces interaction

What tools must staff have available prior to starting COA?

Running estimates.
Threat templates and models.
Civil considerations overlays, databases, and data files.
Modified combined obstacle overlays and terrain effects matrices.
A recording method.
Completed COAs, including graphics.
A means to post or display enemy and friendly unit symbols and other organizations.
A map of the area of operations.

Define: critical event

An event that directly influences mission accomplishment. These events include events that trigger significant actions or decisions (such as commitment of an enemy reserve), complicated actions requiring detailed study (such as a passage of lines), and essential tasks.

Define: decision point

A point in space or time the commander or staff anticipates making a key decision concerning a specific course of action

What are the three recommended wargaming methods?

belt, avenue-in-depth, and box

Define: Mission Command

The exercise of authority and direction by the commander using mission orders to
enable disciplined initiative within the commander's intent to empower agile and adaptive leaders in the
conduct of unified land operations (ADP 6-0).

Define: mission command warfighting function

The related tasks and systems that develop and integrate those activities enabling a commander to balance the art of command and the science of control in order to integrate the other warfighting functions (ADRP 3-0).

When does the belt method of wargaming work best?

When conducting offensive and defensive tasks on terrain divided into well-defined cross-compartments, during phased operations (such as gap crossings, air assaults, or airborne operations), or when the enemy is
deployed in clearly defined belts or echelons. Belts can be adjacent to or overlap each other.

If time is constrained, how many belts is the commander likely to have in the COA?

Three

What is the definition of MDMP?

Military Decision Making Process: Iterative planning methodology that integrates the activities of the CDR, staff and subordinates headquarters, & other partners to understand the situation & mission; develop COAs, decide on a COA that best accomplishes the mission & produce an operation plan or order for execution.

What are the 7 steps of MDMP, and how many substeps?
RM-DACA-O

1. Receipt of Mission (6)
2. Mission Analysis (19)
3. COA devlopment (8)
4. COA Analysis (8)
5. COA Comparison (3)
6. COA Approval
7. Orders Production

What are the 6 sub-steps of Receipt of Mission?
AGUC-II

1. Alert Staff & other key Parties
2. Gather Tools
3. Update Running estimates
4. Conduct initial assessment
5. Issue CDR's initial guidance
6. Issue the WARNO #1

What are the first 8 sub steps to mission analysis?

1. Analyze higher HQ order
2. Perform initial IBP
3. Determine specific, implied and essential tasks
4. Review available assets & ID resource shortfalls
5. Determine constraints
6. ID critical facts & develop assumptions
7. Risk management
8. Develop CCIR & EEFI

What are the 9-19 sub steps to mission analysis?

9. Develop Initial ISR tools
10. Develop initial recon and surveillance plan
11. Update plan for the use of available time
12. Develop initial themes & messages
13. Develop a proposed problem statement
14. Develop a proposed mission statement
15. Present the mission analysis briefing
16. Develop & issue initial CDR intent
17. Develop & issue initial planning guidance
18. Develop COA evaluation criteria
19. Issue a WARNO (#2)

What are the 8 sub-steps of COA development?

1. Gather tools
2. List all friendly forces
3. List assumptions
4. Know critical events & decision points
5. Select war gaming method
6. Select a technique to record & display results
7. War-game the operations & assess the results
8. Conduct a war-gaming brief (optional)

What are the 3 sub-steps of COA Comparison?

1. Conduct advantages and disadvantages analysis
2. Compare courses of action
3. Conduct a course of action decision breifing

What are the two common trends in the outputs of MDMP?

1. Identify Assumptions
2. Update running estimates

What are the 9 effective staff characteristics?

1. Competence
2. Initiative
3. Creativity
4. Flexibility
5. Loyalty
6. Confidence
7. Team player
8. Effective manager
9. Effective Communicator

Which step is the most important in the MDMP process?

Mission Analysis

What are the outputs of mission analysis?

1. Approved problem statement
2. Approved mission statement
3. Initial CDR intent
4. Initial CCIR/EEFI
5. Updated IPB products
6. Updated running estimates
7. Assumptions
8. Resource shortfalls
9. Updated Operational Themes
10. COA evaluation criteria
11. WARNO #2

What is a running estimate?

Continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine if the current operations is proceeding according to the CDR's intent & if planned future operations are supportable.

In the running estimate what are updated continuously when new information arises?

1. Facts
2. Assumptions
3. Friendly force status
4. Enemy activities and capabilities
5. Civil considerations
6. conclusions and recommendations

The CDRS intent consists of what parts?

1. Purpose
2. Key Tasks
3. End state

What is the Task organization?

Temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a particular mission

What is constraint?

Place on a CDR by a higher command (CMD); dictates action or inaction, thus restricting the freedom of action of a subordinate CDR.

What is a specified task?

A task specifically assigned to a unit by a higher HQ.

What is an implied task?

A task that must be preformed to accomplish a specified task or mission but is not stated in higher HQ's orders.

What is an essential task?

A specified or implied tasks that must be executed to accomplish the mission.

Plans and orders are based on?

Facts and assumptions

What is a fact?

A statement of truth or a statement thought to be true at the time.

What is an Assumption?

a supposition on the current situation or a presupposition on the future course of events, either or both assumed to be true in absence of positive proof, necessary to enable the CDR in the process of planning to complete an estimate of the situation and make a decision on the COA.

What are the two types of risk?

1. Tactical Risk: deals with the enemy or adversary.
2. Accidental Risk: Includes Friendly Forces, Civilians, Environment.

What is an Information Theme ?

unifying or dominant idea or image that express purpose for military action

How much time is allotted to the Higher HQ for planning? How much for subordinate units?

1/3 of total time ; 2/3 of total time

What tasks are outlined in the Mission Statement?
What tasks are outlined in the Mission Statement?

Essential Tasks

What type of criteria is developed in the Mission Analysis?

Evaluation Criteria

COA development's purpose is what?

To solve identified problems

What is the key output of COA development?

COA statement & sketches

Solid COA does what three things?

1. Allows Sequels
2. Employs latitude at lower levels
3. Allows flexibility for unforeseen events

What is combat power?

the total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit/formation can apply at a given time.

What three types of operations do we use?

decisive, shaping, and sustaining

How are COA statements expressed? COA sketches?

Brief narrative / picture or graphic

What are the two forms of War-Gaming? Briefly describe each.

1. Manual Method - Analog (tabletop)
2. Modern Method - Digital (computer)

What is the role playing method used in War-Gaming?

Action, reaction and counteraction

Action is held or acted by whom?

Whoever has the initiative.

What is the key input to COA Comparison?

War-gaming (advantages & disadvantages analysis) results & Evaluation Criteria

What steps are WARNOs produced in MDMP?

1. Receipt of Mission
2. Mission Analysis
3. COA Approval

What are the types of orders?

1. Operations Order (OPORD)
2. Fragmentary Order (FRAGO)
3. Warning Order (WARNO)

What are the 5 paragraphs of an Order?

Situation
Mission
Execution
Sustainment
Command and Signal

What are the Targeting Officers duties ISO order production?

Produce Hardcopy TSM
Produce HPTL, AGM, TSS for inclusion in the order
Assist in the production of Annex D

What is a Branch?

a contingency plan or COA for changing the mission, disposition, orientation or direction of movement of the force to aid in the success of the current operation, based on anticipated events, opportunities, or disruptions caused by the enemy.

What is a sequal

A major operation that follows the current major operations; Are based on the possible outcomes associated wit the current operation.

What type of operation must be developed, at a minimum, when generating options?

Decisive Operations

Within which substep of COA Analysis is War Gaming?

Substep 7.

What is substep 5 of COA Analysis?

Select a war-gaming method.

What is the most important output of COA Development?

COA statements and sketches.

War-gaming is focused on what?

Critical events

What is war-gaming?

A disciplined process, with rules and steps that attempt to visualize the flow of the operation, given the force's strengths and dispositions, enemy's capabilities and possible COAs, impact and requirements of civilians in the AO, and other aspects of the situation.

What does COA Analysis do?

COA analysis enables commanders and staffs to identify difficulties or coordination problems as well as probable consequences of planned actions for each COA being considered.

What is COA comparison?

An objective process to evaluate COAs independently and against set evaluation criteria approved by the commander and staff.

What are the two techniques commonly used to record and display COA Analysis results?

The synchronization matrix technique
The sketch note technique

What is a decision point?

A decision point is a point in space and time when the commander or staff anticipates making a key decision concerning a specific course of action (JP 5-0).

What are Critical events?

Events that trigger significant actions or decisions (such as commitment of an enemy reserve), complicated actions requiring detailed study (such as a passage of lines), and essential tasks.

What are the three wargaming techniques, and how are the applied to stability operations?

Belt: Objectives are in a selected slice across all lines of effort.
Box: A specific objective along a line of effort.
Avenue-in-depth: Objectives are in one line of effort.

What is a shaping operation?

A shaping operation is an operation at any echelon that creates and preserves conditions for the success of the decisive operation

What is a decisive operation?

An operation that directly accomplish the mission.

What is a sustaining operation?

An operation at any echelon that enables shaping and decisive operations by generating and maintaining combat power.

How are friendly and enemy forces war-gamed?

Using the action, reaction, and counteraction method.

What is a tactical mission task?

A specific activity performed by a unit while executing a form of tactical operation or form of maneuver. It may be expressed as either an action by a friendly force or effects on an enemy force (FM 7-15).

What go into running estimates?

Facts.
Assumptions.
Friendly force status.
Enemy activities and capabilities.
Civil considerations.
Conclusions and recommendations.

What is parallel planning?

Parallel planning is two or more echelons planning for the same operation nearly simultaneously.

What is collaborative planning?

Collaborative planning is the real-time interaction among commanders and staffs at two or more echelons developing plans for a particular operation.

What is a fact?

A fact is a statement of truth or a statement thought to be true at the time.

What is an assumption?

An assumption is a supposition on the current situation or a presupposition on the future course of events, either or both assumed to be true in the absence of positive proof, necessary to enable the commander in the process of planning to complete an estimate of the situation and make a decision on the course of action (JP 1-02).

How many substeps are in Mission Analysis?

What is an information message?

A verbal, written, or electronic communications that supports an information theme focused on a specific actor or the public and in support of a specific action (task).

What are the Military Aspects of Terrain (OAKOC)?

1. Observation & fields of fire
2. Avenues of approach
3. Key terrian
4. Obstacles
5. Cover and Concealment

What are the military aspects of weather? (WATCH-VP)

1. Wind
2. Atmospheric Pressure
3. Temperature
4. Cloud Cover
5. Humidity
6. Visibility
7. Precipitation

What are the steps of IPB (D2ED)?

1. Define the operational environment
2. Describe the environmental effects on operations
3. Evaluate the threat
4. Determine threat courses of action

What are the Civil Considerations (ASCOPE)?

1. Areas
2. Structures
3. Capabilities
4. Organizations
5. People
6. Events

What is a Commander's Critical Information Requirement (CCIR)?

An information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely decision making. It includes two key elements; Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR) and Friendly Force Information Requirements (FFIR).

What is a Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR)?

An intelligence requirement, stated by the commander as a priority for intelligence support, which the commander needs to support decision making and to understand the area of interest or the threat.

What is a Friendly Force Information Requirements (FFIR)?

Information the commander and staff need about the forces available for the operation. This includes personnel, maintenance, supply, ammunition, and petroleum, oils, and lubricants (POL) status, and experience and leadership capabilities.

What are Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFIs)?

They identify those elements of friendly force information that, if compromised, would jeopardize mission success. They have the same importance as CCIRs and must be approved by the commander.

What is the definition of IPB?

A systematic process for analysing and visualiyzing portions of the Mission Variables, including threat, terrain, weather, and civil considerations, in a specific area of interest and for a specific mission. It is a continuous process that updates running estimates and supports MDMP.

MDMP focuses on which set of variables?

Mission variables (METT-TC)

What is the definition of Running Estimate?

A running estimate is the continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine if the current operation is proceeding according to the commander's intent and if planned future operations are supportable (ADP 5-0).

What are the Army command relationships?

1. Organic
2. Assigned
3. Attached
4. Opcon
5. Tacon

What are the Army support relationships?

1. Direct Support
2. Reinforcing
3. General support-reinforcing
4. General support

What is the definition of task organization?

A task organization is a temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a particular mission (ADRP 5-0).

What is a specified task?

a task specifically assigned to a unit by its higher headquarters.

What is an implied task?

a task that must be performed to accomplish a specified task or mission but is not stated in the higher headquarters' order.

What is an essential task?

a specified or implied task that must be executed to accomplish the mission.

What are constraints?

A constraint is a restriction placed on the command by a higher command. A constraint dictates an action or inaction,thus restricting the freedom of action of a subordinate commander.

What are Evaluation Criteria?

Evaluation criteria are standards the commander and staff will later use to measure the relative effectiveness and efficiency of one COA relative to other COAs.

What are Screening Criteria? What are the five criteria for COAs?

FASDC

What is "F" in FASDC

Feasible: accomplish the mission within the established time, space, and resource limitations.

What is "A" in FASDC

Acceptable: balance cost and risk with the advantage gained.

What is "S" in FASDC

Suitable: accomplish the mission within the CDR's intent and planning guidance.

What is "D" in FASDC

Distinguishable: differ significantly from others.

What is "C" in FASDC

Complete: Incorporates: decisive, shaping and sustaining operations; offensive, defensive and stability tasks, and tasks to be performed and conditions to be achieved.

FEMA IS-215 Unified Federal Review Advisor Training: An Overview of the UFR Process Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. Which of the following does not help to expedite EHP review for disaster recovery projects?
A. Sharing data among agencies
B. Formalizing issue elevation and resolution processes and procedures
C. Training staff involved in disaster recovery on EHP review best practices
D. Using proprietary data

2. The ESA Matrix can be used to quickly assess species impacts.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. The FEMA Prototype Programmatic Agreement for Section 106 of the NHPA allows agencies to expedite consultation for activities with limited potential to affect historic properties.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

4. Which of the following formalizes UFR roles and responsibilities among 11 departments and agencies?
A. UFR MOU
B. Applicant Guide
C. UFR Webpage
D. Disaster-Specific MOU

5. The UFR Memorandum of Understanding establishes:
A. Roles of federal agencies to the UFR Process
B. Responsibilities of federal agencies to the UFR Process
C. Commitments of federal agencies to the UFR Process
D. All of the above

6. All of the following tools and mechanisms may be developed and used prior to a disaster occuring except:
A. Data Sharing Agreement
B. UFR MOU
C. Prototype Programmatic Agreement
D. Disaster-Specific MOU

7. The UFR Process changes EHP requirements.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

8. Which of the following is a benefit of the UFR Process?
A. Expedites EHP reviews
B. Improves consistency among federal agency EHP reviews
C. Encourages agencies to share data and project information
D. All of the above

9. The UFR Advisor is a field position whose main responsibility is interagency coordination across federal agencies.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

10. Which is not a true statement about the NDRF:
A. The NDRF provides recovery support to disaster-impacted tribes, states, and local jurisdictions
B. Six Recovery Support Functions (RSFs) support the NDRF and can be activated, as needed
C. The NDRF establishes roles and responsibilities of recovery coordinators and other stakeholders
D. The UFR Process does not integrate with the NRDF and must be implemented separately

11. The Tools and Mechanisms are not implemented during multiple phases of disaster recovery.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

12. The FEMA EHP Advisor implements the Tools and Mechanisms if the UFR Advisor is not activated.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

13. Which is a responsibility of the UFR Advisor:
A. Coordinate with disaster recovery leadership on disaster-specific needs
B. Complete EHP reviews and approve projects
C. Draft agency policies for disaster management
D. Decide whether a disaster will benefit from the UFR Process

14. The UFR Advisor will engage with:
A. National UFR Coordinator
B. FEMA REOs
C. EHP Advisor
D. All of the above

15. Which of the following describes the UFR Process, the Tools and Mechanisms, and common EHP requirements that apply to disaster recovery projects?
A. Agency POC List
B. Disaster-Specific MOU
C. Applicant Guide
D. Data Sharing Agreement

16. The National UFR Coordinator provides guidance on implementing the UFR Process to the UFR Advisor.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

17. The UFR Process will:
A. Expedite disaster recovery projects
B. Enhance consistency in EHP review processes across federal agencies
C. Assist federal and state agencies in better leveraging their resources and tools
D. All of the above

18. The UFR Memorandum of Understanding does not include:
A. Definitions for terms used in conjunction with the UFR Process to provide a common understanding
B. Changes to EHP requirements
C. Authorities of the agencies involved to enter into the UFR Process
D. Issue elevation procedures

19. The UFR Advisor does not:
A. Serve as the interagency coordinator for EHP compliance for disaster recovery projects
B. Identify opportunities for EHP efficiencies
C. Complete EHP reviews
D. Update and seek guidance from the FEMA Regional Environmental Officer (REO)

20. The Disaster-Specific MOU does not address which of the following?
A. Consultation timelines
B. Changing EHP requirements
C. Agency roles and responsibilities
D. Meeting coordination

21. The Sandy Recovery Improvement Act (SRIA) of 2013 is the primary source of the UFR Process statutory authority.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

FEMA IS-212.b Introduction to Unified Hazard Mitigation Assistance (HMA) Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. With your understanding of the definition of mitigation, which of the following is true:
A. Mitigation projects create safer communities and saves money through lower post-disaster rebuilding/replacement costs.
B. Mitigation funding can be used to improve a community’s response and recovery programs.
C. No mitigation project can eliminate 100% of future risk.
D. Mitigation projects seek to provide a short-term impact on hazard risk.

2. During the Application Review phase of the Federal award life cycle, all approvable grant applications are awarded.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. Which of the following is NOT a process in the HMA Federal award life cycle?
A. Federal Award
B. Risk Assessment
C. Activity Implementation
D. Federal Award Closeout

4. Which processes are conducted during he Application Development phase of the Federal award life cycle?
A. Develop the Cost Estimate.
B. Develop the Scope of Work.
C. Develop the Work Schedule.
D. All of the above.

5. All HMA grant programs provide funding after a Federally-declared disaster.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

6. All HMA grant applications must include a Scope of Work, Schedule, and Cost Estimate, and must be cost-effective, technically feasible, and comply with Environmental and Historic Preservation requirements.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

7. Which statement about how mitigation projects provide value is true?
A. A report by the Congressional Budget Office showed that on average, future losses were reduced by about $3 for every dollar spent on mitigation projects.
B. A 2005 Loss Avoidance Study completed by the Multihazard Mitigation Council Study found that an investment of $3.5 billion saved $14 billion.
C. Mitigation projects reduce post-disaster disruption and allow quicker rebuilding.
D. All of the above.

8. Mitigation project types must be outlined in the mitigation plan.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

9. Mitigation capabilities include community-wide risk reduction projects that protect against natural hazards.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

10. The difference between a benefit-cost analysis (BCA) and a Loss Avoidance Study (LAS) is:
A. There is no difference because a BCA and LAS are the same.
B. A BCA and LAS are the same thing, except that one is an analysis and the other is a report.
C. BCA demonstrates the cost-effectiveness of FEMA’s mitigation programs, while an LAS analyzes hazard risk.
D. A BCA is completed during the grant application phase for a proposed mitigation measure, while an LAS is completed after a project has been tested by the hazard event it was designed for.

11. Which of the following is NOT part of the mitigation planning process?
A. Planning Process Description
B. Mitigation Strategy
C. Activity Identification
D. Plan Adoption Process

12. After a Federal award is issued, mitigation project and planning activities must be implemented in accordance with Federal award requirements.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

13. FEMA-approved State, Indian Tribal, and Local Hazard Mitigation Plans are valid for:
A. Five years.
B. Three years.
C. Ten years.
D. It depends on other plans that the mitigation plan is linked to.

14. The first step in the mitigation process is:
A. Securing local cost-share funding.
B. Searching for a project manager.
C. Hazard mitigation planning.
D. Selecting which projects you want to implement.

15. Which HMA program has a goal to reduce or eliminate claims made against the National Flood Insurance Program?
A. Flood Mitigation Assistance Program (FMA)
B. Pre-Disaster Mitigation Program (PDM)
C. Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (HMGP)
D. Hazard Mitigation Assistance Program (HMAP)

16. The two electronic application systems used for the HMA grant programs are:
A. Mitigation Application Grant Processing System (MAGPS) and MitApp
B. MitApp and iMit
C. Electronic Grants Management System (eGrants) and HMGP System
D. FEMAMit and FEMA-Hazard Mitigation Grant Process (FEMA-HMGP)

17. Which HMA program provides Federal awards for all hazards mitigation planning and the implementation of mitigation projects for a variety of hazards prior to a disaster event?
A. Flood Mitigation Assistance Program (FMA)
B. Pre-Disaster Mitigation Program (PDM)
C. Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (HMGP)
D. Hazard Mitigation Assistance Program (HMAP)

FEMA IS-100.SCA: Introduction to the Incident Command System for Schools Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. Which incident facility is the location where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting to be assigned?:
A. Base
B. Staging Area
C. Camp
D. Incident Command Post

2. Expansion of incidents may require the delegation of authority for the performance of Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration functions. The people who perform these four management functions are designated as the:
A. Deputy Staff.
B. General Staff.
C. Director Staff.
D. Command Staff.

3. Which Command Staff position serves as the conduit between internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event?
A. Public Information Officer
B. Safety Officer
C. Liaison Officer
D. Resource Officer

4. After check-in, you should:
A. Locate your incident supervisor and obtain your initial briefing
B. Report to the command post.
C. Determine your return mode of transportation.
D. Arrange for personal supplies needed for the incident.

5. Which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources?
A. Finance/Administration Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Logistics Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

6. Which position is the only one that is always staffed in ICS applications?
A. Operations Section Chief
B. Safety Officer
C. Incident Commander
D. Public Information Officer

7. There is no correlation between the ICS organization and the administrative structure of any single jurisdiction or agency, such as a school. This is deliberate because:
A. Every incident or event requires that different management functions be performed.
B. It avoids confusion over whom you should take direction from.
C. On small incidents and events, one person, the Incident Commander, may accomplish all five management functions.
D. In ICS, the person at the top of the organization can act with less political pressure.

8. The ability to communicate within ICS is absolutely critical. To ensure efficient, clear communication, ICS requires the use of:
A. Agency-specific codes.
B. Technical language.
C. Common terminology.
D. Radio codes.

9. Which incident facility would be equipped and staffed to provide food, water, sleeping areas, and sanitary services for Search and Rescue Teams assigned to a school incident?
A. Incident Command Post
B. Staging Area
C. Camp
D. Helibase

10. At each level of the ICS organization, individuals in positions of primary responsibility have
distinct titles. Using specific ICS position titles serves three important purposes:

The use of distinct titles allows for filling ICS positions with the most qualified individuals rather than by rank.
Standard position titles are useful when requesting qualified personnel.
___________________________________________________

A. Titles provide a common standard for all responders.
B. Prestige associated with certain titles helps to motivate responders.
C. Position titles allow for proper reimbursement of personnel.
D. Position titles help to maintain the normal lines of authority within agencies.

11. ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?
A. The planning and operation of the Central City High School annual Spring Celebration, including a parade and fair.
B. The oversight of the annual fiscal budget for the Brownsville Library, including the procurement of new books.
C. The oversight of safety issues associated with Mrs. Butler’s 10th grade chemistry class throughout the school year.
D. The management of nursing staff at the City General Hospital during weekend shifts.

12. Which General Staff position manages costs related to the incident, and provides accounting, procurement, time recording, and cost analyses?
A. Finance/Administration Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Logistics Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

13. Every incident must have a verbal or written Incident Action Plan. The purpose of this plan is to provide all incident supervisory personnel with direction for::
A. Taking actions based on the objectives identified in the plan during the operational period.
B. Obtaining and maintaining essential personnel, equipment, and supplies.
C. Maintaining documentation and tracking resources assigned to the incident.
D. Monitoring the number of resources that report to any one supervisor.

14. Designers of the system recognized early that ICS must:

Meet the needs of incidents of any kind or size.
Provide logistical and administrative support to ensure that operational staff can meettactical objectives.
Be cost effective by avoiding duplication of efforts.
___________________________________________________

A. Require that a minimum number of personnel be deployed to perform administrative and logistics functions.
B. Compensate for incident response failures likely to result from a lack of resources.
C. Use certified emergency responders to serve as incident commanders and section chiefs.
D. Allow personnel from a variety of agencies to meld rapidly into a common management structure.

15. Which incident facility is positioned outside of the present and potential hazard area, but close enough to the incident to maintain command?
A. Base
B. Staging Area
C. Camp
D. Incident Command Post

16. A football field is used as a take off and landing location for helicopters following a tornado at a school. This ICS facility is a:
A. Helispot.
B. Staging Area.
C. Camp.
D. Incident Command Post.

17. Which Command Staff position serves as the primary contact for supporting agencies assigned to an incident?
A. Public Information Officer
B. Safety Officer
C. Liaison Officer
D. Resource Officer

18. A basic ICS principle is that the first Incident Commander is responsible until the:
A. Command is transferred to a more qualified responder.
B. Event or incident has demobilized.
C. Next operational period has begun.
D. Authority is delegated to another person.

19. Which of the following would you expect to see in an Incident Action Plan?
A. Detailed cost estimates for implementing the proposed activities.
B. A schematic showing all communication equipment in use at the incident.
C. Measurable tactical operations to be achieved within the specified period.
D. Long term mitigation strategies.

20. Which General Staff position prepares and documents the Incident Action Plan, collects and evaluates information, maintains resource status, and maintains documentation for incident records?
A. Finance/Administration Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Logistics Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

21. Check-in officially logs you in at the incident. The check-in process and information help to:

Ensure personnel accountability.
Track resources.
Prepare personnel for assignments and reassignments.
Organize the demobilization process.
___________________________________________________

A. Determine procedures for reimbursing your headquarters.
B. Locate personnel in case of an emergency.
C. Identify purchasing authority and procedures.
D. Determine how food and lodging will be provided.

22. Depending upon the size and type of incident or event, it may be necessary for the Incident Commander to designate personnel to provide public information, safety, and liaison services for the entire organization. In ICS, these personnel make up the:
A. Deputy Staff.
B. General Staff.
C. Director Staff.
D. Command Staff.

23. One ICS principle relates to the supervisory structure of the organization and pertains to the number of individuals or resources one incident supervisor can manage effectively. This operating guideline is referred to as:
A. Delegation of authority.
B. Unity of command.
C. Span of control.
D. Form follows function.

24. Which Command Staff position monitors safety conditions and develops measures for assuring the safety of all assigned personnel?
A. Public Information Officer
B. Safety Officer
C. Liaison Officer
D. Resource Officer

25. Which General Staff position is responsible for ensuring that assigned incident personnel are fed and have communications, medical support, and transportation as needed to meet the operational objectives?
A. Finance/Administration Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Logistics Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

FEMA IS-100 PWB Introduction to the Incident Command System (ICS 100) for Public Works Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. Which of the following terms refers to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident?
A. Unity of Command
B. Span of control
C. Form follows function
D. Delegation of authority

2. Homeland Security Directive 5 (HSPD-5) requires Federal departments and agencies to:
A. Establish metrics that will measure whether communities are using the proper amounts of resources when responding to incidents.
B. Make adoption of NIMS by State, tribal, and local organizations a condition for Federal preparedness assistance (through grants, contracts, and other activities).
C. Establish standardized organizational structures for communities to use in response to natural, technological, and manmade incidents.
D. Test and credential response personnel to ensure they have acquired the competencies needed to implement the Incident Command System.

3. Select the TRUE statement below.
A. The agency executive determines the size and structure of the on-scene ICS organization based on resources.
B. The ICS organization expands and contracts based on a formula using the projected number of hours for stabilizing the incident.
C. The Incident Commander has the discretion to fill only those functions or positions necessary to meet incident objectives.
D. When ICS is used, the four Sections (Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration) will always be activated and filled.

4. For effective span of control, there is a recommended ratio of one supervisor to:
A. Twenty subordinates.
B. Five subordinates.
C. Ten subordinates.
D. One subordinate.

5. Which action is INCONSISTENT with ICS chain of command principles?
A. After the Planning Section Chief assembles the Incident Action Plan, it must be approved by the Incident Commander.
B. Members from one strike team warn the members of a second strike team about hazardous road conditions ahead.
C. Requests for additional resources are being communicated from the Task Force Leader to the Operations Section Chief.
D. The on-scene Public Information Officer is being assigned tasks by both the agency executive’s press secretary and the Incident Commander.

6. Select the FALSE statement below.
A. The Incident Commander has the discretion to expand and contract in a flexible manner.
B. The ICS organizational structure is determined based on the incident objectives and resource requirements.
C. The Incident Commander must fill all Command Staff functions (Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, and Liaison Officer) for every incident.
D. The ICS organization develops in a top-down, modular fashion that is based on the size and complexity of the incident.

7. The Incident Command System (ICS) is:
A. Most applicable to the management of complex incidents that extend over many hours or days.
B. A relatively new approach created based on the lessons learned from the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
C. A military system used in domestic incidents to ensure command and control of Federal resources.
D. A standardized approach to incident management that is applicable for use in all hazards.

8. TRUE OR FALSE: The ICS organizational structure established within the first operational period must be used throughout the lifecycle of the incident.
A. True
B. False

9. All of the following are true, EXCEPT:
A. NIMS requires that the Incident Command System (ICS) be activated as a last resort during domestic incidents.
B. NIMS is a core set of concepts, principles, and terminology for incident command and multiagency coordination.
C. NIMS is a consistent, nationwide approach for all levels of government to work effectively and efficiently together.
D. NIMS was called for in Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5 (HSPD-5) in February of 2003.

10. Select the most compelling reason below to reduce the span of control ratio to 1:3.
A. During the first operational period when incident objectives are being established.
B. When resources from several different jurisdictions are deployed.
C. When hazardous tactical operations are being performed.
D. During demobilization when additional supervisors are available.

11. TRUE OR FALSE: OSHA rule 1910.120 requires all organizations that handle hazardous materials to use ICS.
A. True
B. False

12. TRUE OR FALSE: To ensure consistency, all incidents will have someone assigned to assume each Command and General Staff position (Officers and Section Chiefs).
A. True
B. False

13. A school district is applying for Federal preparedness funds. What is required?
A. The day-to-day school structure needs to be reorganized into a Command and General Staff structure.
B. The school district must adopt NIMS.
C. The school must add an Emergency Manager to its full-time staff.
D. The principal must be certified as an Incident Commander.

14. What is the correct term for the ICS principle that all personnel report only to one ICS supervisor?
A. Supervision of Command
B. Unity of Command
C. Supervisory Command
D. Unified Command

15. What does unity of command mean?
A. Personnel report to only one ICS supervisor.
B. Tactical direction is provided by the agency executive.
C. Responders receive assignments only from a superior within their home agency.
D. There is only one Incident Commander per incident.

16. Span of control refers to:
A. The number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident.
B. An orderly line of authority that exists within the ranks of the incident management organization.
C. The process of moving the responsibility for incident command from one Incident Commander to another.
D. The act of directing, ordering, or controlling by virtue of explicit statutory, regulatory, or delegated authority.

17. When communicating, ICS requires the use of:
A. Technical language.
B. Agency-specific codes.
C. Radio codes.
D. Plain English.

18. TRUE OR FALSE: The Incident Command System (ICS) can be used to manage planned events, such as evacuation drills and festivals, in addition to actual incidents.
A. True
B. False

19. Select the FALSE statement below about the Incident Command System (ICS).
A. ICS has been used to manage both emergency and nonemergency situations by both government and private’sector organizations.
B. ICS is a standardized, all-hazards incident management approach that is used throughout the lifecycle of an incident.
C. ICS is primarily a standardized organizational structure (chart) that is used in an identical fashion for every incident.
D. ICS could be used to manage a large sporting event or a visit from a foreign dignitary.

20. Select the factor below that is a primary consideration in determine the span of control ratio.
A. Public perception
B. Costs
C. Supervisory expertise
D. Safety

21. TRUE OR FALSE: Resource management includes processes for reimbursing for resources and maintaining a resource inventory.
A. True
B. False

22. Select the FALSE statement below.
A. Chain of command requires that all task assignments and direction come from the individual’s supervisor at the incident scene.
B. Chain of command avoids confusion by requiring that orders flow from supervisors.
C. Chain of command restricts personnel to communicating or sharing information outside their organizational units.
D. Chain of command allows an Incident Commander to direct and control the actions of all personnel under his or her supervision.

23. Command is:
A. Assumed by the individual who is the highest ranking person on the scene regardless of experience or training level.
B. Based on the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident.
C. The ability to control information exchange within and across organizations involved in an incident.
D. Directing, ordering, or controlling by virtue of explicit statutory, regulatory, or delegated authority.

24. The Incident Command System (ICS) is a viable application in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:
A. A hazardous materials release after a train derailment.
B. A hostage situation at a local financial institution.
C. The oversight of a jurisdiction’s annual budget.
D. The planning and operation of a local festival.

25. The ability to communicate within ICS is absolutely critical. To ensure efficient, clear communication, ICS requires the use of:
A. Technical language.
B. Common terminology.
C. Radio codes.
D. Agency-specific codes.

FEMA IS-100 LEB Introduction to the Incident Command System (ICS 100) for Law Enforcement Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. What type of command creates a single ICS structure with a built-in process for an effective and responsible multijurisdictional or multiagency approach?
A. Multiple Command
B. Area Command
C. Mutual Command
D. Unified Command

2. Which General Staff position manages costs related to the incident, and provides accounting, procurement, time recording, and cost analyses?
A. Finance/Administration Section Chief
B. Logistics Section Chief
C. Planning Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

3. You are a Group Supervisor working in a Branch within the Operations Section. Who is your immediate supervisor?
A. Branch Executive Officer
B. Branch Chief
C. Branch Director
D. Branch Leader

4. Which Section is responsible for providing communication planning and resources?
A. Finance/Administration Section
B. Operations Section
C. Logistics Section
D. Planning Section

5. You are working on editing and assembling the Incident Action Plan for the next operational period. Where are you working?
A. Operations Section
B. Logistics Section
C. Planning Section
D. Finance/Administration Section

6. You are working at establishing a computer network and communications support for incident personnel. Where are you working?
A. Operations Section
B. Planning Section
C. Finance/Administration Section
D. Logistics Section

7. The major activities of the Logistics Section include:
A. Setting up and maintaining incident facilities.
B. Preparing and documenting Incident Action Plans.
C. Compensating for injury or damage to property.
D. Developing plans for demobilization of resources.

8. When implemented properly, Unified Command:
A. Requires the establishment of separate Operations Sections comprised of responders from each jurisdiction or agency.
B. Involves the development of multiple Incident Action Plans under the direction of each Incident Commander.
C. Is managed away from the incident scene at an Emergency Operations Center or other facility.
D. Enables agencies with different legal, geographic, and functional responsibilities to coordinate, plan, and interact effectively.

9. Which of the following Sections is responsible for providing medical services to incident personnel?
A. Finance/Administration Section
B. Operations Section
C. Planning Section
D. Logistics Section

10. My Section supports the incident response by overseeing contracting for needed supplies and services that are not already available. Who am I?
A. Operations Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Logistics Section Chief
D. Finance/Administration Section Chief

11. The Incident Command depends on me to make sure that all incident personnel have the supplies, equipment, and support they need. Who am I?
A. Operations Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Finance/Administration Section Chief
D. Logistics Section Chief

12. Which Section is responsible for ensuring that incident personnel have needed transportation, supplies, and equipment?
A. Finance/Administration Section
B. Operations Section
C. Logistics Section
D. Planning Section

13. Incident Commanders within the Unified Command do all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Work together to establish resource ordering procedures.
B. Concur on the selection of the General Staff Section Chiefs.
C. Communicate to make joint decisions and speak as one voice.
D. Form multiple command structures if disagreements arise.

14. Which individual or entity is responsible for conducting long-range and/or contingency planning?
A. Incident Commander
B. Planning Section
C. Agency Executive
D. Logistics Section

15. Within the Operations Section, a Director supervises each:
A. Unit.
B. Group.
C. Branch.
D. Division.

16. Which Section Chief is responsible for ensuring that assigned incident personnel are fed and have communications, medical support, and transportation as needed to meet the operational objectives?
A. Finance/Administration Section Chief
B. Logistics Section Chief
C. Planning Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

17. You are arranging for medical examinations for incident response personnel. Where are you working?
A. Operations Section
B. Logistics Section
C. Finance/Administration Section
D. Planning Section

18. Which Section Chief is responsible for recording personnel time, maintaining vendor contracts, administering compensation and claims, and conducting an overall cost analysis for the incident?
A. Operations Section Chief
B. Planning Section Chief
C. Finance/Administration Section Chief
D. Logistics Section Chief

19. The Finance/Administration Section may staff four Units:

Procurement Unit
Cost Unit
Compensation/Claims Unit
___________________________________________________

A. Documentation Unit
B. Medical Unit
C. Time Unit
D. Administration Unit

20. TRUE OR FALSE: Under a Unified Command, there are multiple Incident Commanders who work together to establish the incident objectives.
A. True
B. False

21. The major activities of the Finance/Administration Section include:
A. Setting up food services for responders.
B. Collecting and evaluating incident intelligence.
C. Maintaining documentation for reimbursements.
D. Developing plans for demobilization of resources.

22. What is the correct name of the ICS application used when there are multiple Incident Commanders, each representing a jurisdiction, agency, or department that has responsibility for some aspect of the incident?
A. Mutual Command
B. Unified Command
C. Area Command
D. Multiple Command

23. There is a need to organize Groups and Divisions to ensure appropriate levels of span of control. The Groups and Divisions can be organized into:
A. Units.
B. Companies.
C. Branches.
D. Regiments.

24. The Incident Commander depends on the Logistics Section Chief to:
A. Direct tactical activities to achieve the incident objectives.
B. Interface with representatives from assisting and coordinating agencies.
C. Provide facilities, services, and material support for the incident.
D. Develop the Incident Action Plan.

25. Which of the following Sections is responsible for providing communication planning and resources?
A. Finance/Administration Section
B. Logistics Section
C. Planning Section
D. Operations Section

FEMA IS-100 HCB Introduction to the Incident Command System (ICS 100) for Healthcare/Hospitals Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. TRUE OR FALSE: The analysis and sharing of information and intelligence are an important component of ICS.
A. True
B. False

2. Select the FALSE statement below.
A. Agency executives may assign additional resources that have not yet been requested by the Incident Commander.
B. Supervisors are responsible for recording and reporting changes in resource status.
C. The Incident Commander may request assistance from the Emergency Operations Center to acquire needed resources.
D. Resource management should include procedures for recovering and demobilizing resources.

3. The Logistics Section Chief is responsible for all of the following activities, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Setting up and maintaining incident facilities.
B. Setting up food services.
C. Providing communication planning and resources.
D. Directing tactical activities to achieve the incident objectives.

4. The Incident Command System (ICS) is a viable application in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:
A. The oversight of a jurisdiction’s annual budget.
B. A hostage situation at a local financial institution.
C. The planning and operation of a local festival.
D. A hazardous materials release after a train derailment.

5. Members of the Command Staff are referred to as:
A. Chiefs.
B. Deputies
C. Officers.
D. Directors.

6. When communicating, ICS requires that responders DO NOT use:
A. Agency or radio codes.
B. Clear text.
C. Plain English.
D. Common terminology.

7. TRUE OR FALSE: All incidents require some form of recordkeeping. Requirements vary depending upon the agencies involved and the nature of the incident.
A. True
B. False

8. In ICS, the term ‘resources’ refers to all of the following items, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Personnel.
B. Funding.
C. Equipment.
D. Supplies.

9. All of the following are Command Staff positions, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Safety Officer.
B. HazMat Officer.
C. Liaison Officer.
D. Public Information Officer.

10. When completing ICS records or documents, you should follow all of the below guidelines, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Create your own unique reporting formats.
B. Print or type all entries.
C. Fill in all blanks by using N/A as appropriate.
D. Enter the date and time on all forms and records.

11. The Incident Command System (ICS) is:
A. A military system used in domestic incidents to ensure command and control of Federal resources.
B. A relatively new approach created based on the lessons learned from the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
C. A standardized approach to incident management that is applicable for use in all hazards.
D. Most applicable to the management of complex incidents that extend over many hours or days.

12. The analysis and sharing of information and intelligence is an important component of ICS. All of the following are examples of operational information sources, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Weather forecasts.
B. Surveillance of disease outbreak.
C. Risk assessments.
D. Unsubstantiated media reports.

13. The Incident Commander depends on the Logistics Section Chief to:
A. Develop the Incident Action Plan.
B. Interface with representatives from assisting and coordinating agencies.
C. Direct tactical activities to achieve the incident objectives.
D. Provide facilities, services, and material support for the incident.

14. Select the FALSE statement below.
A. Chain of command restricts personnel to communicating or sharing information outside their organizational units.
B. Chain of command avoids confusion by requiring that orders flow from supervisors.
C. Chain of command allows an Incident Commander to direct and control the actions of all personnel under his or her supervision.
D. Chain of command requires that all task assignments and direction come from the individual’s supervisor at the incident scene.

15. Command is:
A. The ability to control information exchange within and across organizations involved in an incident.
B. Based on the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident.
C. Directing, ordering, or controlling by virtue of explicit statutory, regulatory, or delegated authority.
D. Assumed by the individual who is the highest ranking person on the scene regardless of experience or training level.

16. What does unity of command mean?
A. Responders receive assignments only from a superior within their home agency.
B. Tactical direction is provided by the agency executive.
C. There is only one Incident Commander per incident.
D. Personnel report to only one ICS supervisor.

17. Which action is INCONSISTENT with ICS chain of command principles?
A. Requests for additional resources are being communicated from the Task Force Leader to the Operations Section Chief.
B. Members from one strike team warn the members of a second strike team about hazardous road conditions ahead.
C. The on-scene Public Information Officer is being assigned tasks by both the agency executive’s press secretary and the Incident Commander.
D. After the Planning Section Chief assembles the Incident Action Plan, it must be approved by the Incident Commander.

18. Which of the following Sections is responsible for contract negotiation and monitoring?
A. Planning Section
B. Finance/Administration Section
C. Operations Section
D. Logistics Section

19. Which Section is responsible for developing plans for maintaining incident documentation?
A. Planning Section
B. Logistics Section
C. Operations Section
D. Finance/Administration Section

20. Select the FALSE statement below.
A. During an incident, the Liaison Officer is responsible for ensuring flow of communication within the ICS organization.
B. Prior to an incident, response partners should work together to ensure that communication equipment, procedures, and systems can operate together.
C. A common communications plan is essential for ensuring that personnel can communicate with one another during an incident.
D. Integrating communications can be as simple as making sure you have current phone numbers of all key players.

21. Select the FALSE statement below about completing ICS records or forms.
A. Fill in all blanks. Use N/A as appropriate.
B. Enter date and time on all forms and records. Use local time.
C. Print or type all entries.
D. Avoid using military 24-hour time.

22. Interoperability means:
A. Personnel from different jurisdictions can all perform the same tasks using the same protocols.
B. Communication equipment, procedures, and systems can operate together during a response.
C. Surrounding jurisdictions all purchase the same type of communications hardware and software.
D. A single plan is used to direct the tactical assignments with the Operations Section.

23. When communicating, ICS requires the use of:
A. Radio codes.
B. Agency-specific codes.
C. Plain English.
D. Technical language.

24. ICS facilitates the ability to communicate by using:
A. Common terminology.
B. Acronyms.
C. ICS-specific codes.
D. NIMS lexicon.

25. You are working to track the status of all resources assigned to the incident. What Section are you in?
A. Logistics Section
B. Planning Section
C. Operations Section
D. Finance/Administration Section

FEMA IS-100 FDA Introduction to Incident Command System (ICS 100) for Food and Drug Administration Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. To maintain span of control, the Incident Commander may establish the following four Sections: Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration. These four Sections constitute the:
A. General Staff.
B. Deputy Staff.
C. Director Staff.
D. Command Staff.

2. The purpose of the Incident Action Plan is to provide personnel with direction for:
A. Obtaining and maintaining essential personnel, equipment, and supplies.
B. Taking actions based on the objectives identified in the plan during the operational period.
C. Maintaining documentation and tracking resources assigned to the incident.
D. Monitoring the number of resources that report to any one supervisor.

3. What term means that all individuals have a designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of the incident?
A. Unity of command
B. Unified command
C. Singular command
D. Delegation of command

4. Which General Staff position is responsible for conducting tactical operations, developing the tactical objectives and organization, and directing all tactical resources?
A. Planning Section Chief
B. Finance/Administration Section Chief
C. Logistics Section Chief
D. Operations Section Chief

5. Which of the following is the organization that supports (and does not command) the on-scene response during an escalating incident?
A. Staging Area
B. Emergency Operations Center
C. Incident Command Post
D. Unified Command

6. The Incident Commander is responsible for all ICS management functions until he or she:
A. Demobilizes the incident or event.
B. Activates all five management functions.
C. Consults the Operations Section Chief.
D. Delegates the function to another person.

7. At each level of the ICS organization, individuals in positions of primary responsibility have distinct titles. Using specific ICS position titles serves three important purposes:

A. Prestige associated with certain titles helps to motivate responders.
B. Titles provide a common standard for all responders.
C. Distinct titles help clarify the activities undertaken by specific personnel.
D. Position titles help to maintain the normal lines of authority within agencies.

8. TRUE OR FALSE: The Incident Commander is selected primarily based on rank or grade.
A. True
B. False

9. TRUE OR FALSE: The ICS organizational structure develops in a modular fashion based on the size and complexity of the incident, as well as the specifics of the hazard environment created by the incident.
A. True
B. False

10. Which facility is established to coordinate all incident-related public information activities?
A. Joint Information Center
B. Communications Section
C. Outreach Branch
D. Media Support Group

11. The Incident Command System (ICS) is a standardized approach to incident management that:
A. Requires field operations to staff all positions within a common organizational chart used on every incident.
B. Establishes common processes for planning and managing resources.
C. Is applicable primarily when responding to natural disasters.
D. Allows for headquarters organizations to more effectively direct tactical field operations.

12. Transfer of command is defined as the process of:
A. Moving the responsibility for incident command from one Incident Commander to another.
B. Abiding by institutional policies and guidelines and any applicable rules and regulations.
C. Blending Incident Commanders from multiple responding agencies into an integrated, unified team.
D. Gathering, analyzing, and sharing incident-related information and intelligence.

13. Designers of the Incident Command System (ICS) recognized early that ICS must:

Meet the needs of incidents of any kind or size.
Provide logistical and administrative support to ensure that operational staff can meet tactical objectives.
Be cost effective by avoiding duplication of efforts.
___________________________________________________

A. Compensate for incident response failures likely to result from a lack of resources.
B. Require that a minimum number of personnel be deployed to perform administrative and logistics functions.
C. Use certified emergency responders to serve as Incident Commanders and Section Chiefs.
D. Allow personnel from a variety of agencies to meld rapidly into a common management structure.

14. Which of the following terms refers to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident?
A. Unity of command
B. Delegation of authority
C. Span of control
D. Form follows function

15. The Incident Commanders within the Unified Command:
A. Direct separate Operations Sections in order to execute tactics.
B. Make joint decisions and develop a single Incident Action Plan.
C. Establish separate objectives for directing their resources.
D. Are often located at their own Emergency Operations Centers.

16. When communicating, ICS requires that responders DO NOT use:
A. Common terminology.
B. Plain English.
C. Clear text.
D. Acronyms or jargon.

17. Which of the following Sections is responsible for tracking resources

and compiling the Incident Action Plan?
A. Finance/Administration Section
B. Planning Section
C. Operations Section
D. Logistics Section

18. The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is:
A. A physical location staffed with personnel trained for and authorized to represent their agency and/or discipline.
B. A core set of concepts, principles, and terminology for incident command and multiagency coordination.
C. The act of directing, ordering, or controlling by virtue of explicit statutory, regulatory, or delegated authority.
D. An orderly line of authority that exists within the ranks of the incident management organization.

19. Which Section would you go to obtain communications equipment or transportation?
A. Planning Section
B. Finance/Administration Section
C. Logistics Section
D. Operations Section

20. Depending upon the size and type of incident or event, it may be necessary for the Incident Commander to designate personnel to provide public information, safety, and liaison services for the entire organization. In ICS, these personnel make up the:
A. General Staff.
B. Deputy Staff.
C. Director Staff.
D. Command Staff.

FEMA IS-62.b: The Homeland Security Geospatial Concept-of-Operations (GeoCONOPS) In Use Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS provides a common framework toward achieving national preparedness through networking.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

2. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS aims to reduce redundancy and ensure efficient access to geospatial information for incident management.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. The GeoCONOPS has been adopted into federal doctrine through its inclusion in which document?
A. Federal Interagency Operational Plan
B. National Preparedness Goal (PPD-8)
C. Incident Command System (ICS)

4. In addition to its inclusion in the PPD-8, the GeoCONOPS has been carefully aligned to which federal doctrine?
A. Emergency Support Function (ESF)
B. National Incident Management Systems (NIMS)
C. Incident Command System (ICS)
D. National Response Framework (NRF)
E. All of the above

5. The GeoCONOPS has been adopted into federal doctrine through its inclusion in which document?
A. Federal Interagency Operational Plan
B. National Preparedness Goal (PPD-8)
C. Incident Command System (ICS)

6. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS supports Homeland security and national preparedness missions with coordination mechanisms to facilitate geospatial information sharing.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

7. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS is a product of the entire geospatial community for all hazards and all threats.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

8. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS aims to reduce redundancy and ensure efficient access to geospatial information for incident management.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

9. Which entity guides the development of the GeoCONOPS?
A. The Federal Doctrine Oversight Agency
B. The Geospatial Professional Association
C. The GeoCONOPS Management Team
D. The Geospatial Interagency Oversight Team

10. How does the GeoCONOPS’ alignment to federal doctrine benefit the geospatial community?
A. Broadens access and visibility of the GeoCONOPS effort by other missions using geospatial information for decision support
B. Allows situational awareness for understanding location, context, and inter-dependencies necessary for effective integration and information sharing
C. Provides the necessary overlapping information to tie together all federal doctrine
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

11. Which entity guides the development of the GeoCONOPS?
A. The Federal Doctrine Oversight Agency
B. The Geospatial Professional Association
C. The GeoCONOPS Management Team
D. The Geospatial Interagency Oversight Team

12. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS provides a common framework toward achieving national preparedness through networking.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

FEMA IS-61.b The Homeland Security Geospatial Concept-of-Operations (GeoCONOPS) In Depth Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. Which part of the mission life cycle is the period of greatest uncertainty due to the lack of accurate information from the field and the large number of questions and requests for information?
A. Prevention
B. Mitigation
C. Response
D. Recovery
E. Protection

2. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS provides formal guidance for the conduct of geospatial support.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. What does the GeoCONOPS enable users to do?
A. Disover and leverage geospatial resources
B. Facilitate geospatial information and resource sharing and coordination
C. Find geospatial resources, capabilities, tradecraft, and best practices
D. All of the above

4. Which part of the mission lifecycle implies a state of readiness to minimize the impacts of a disastrous event on life and property?
A. Prevention
B. Mitigation
C. Response
D. Recovery
E. Protection

5. In addition to its inclusion in the PPD-8, the GeoCONOPS has been carefully aligned to which federal doctrine?
A. Emergency Support Function (ESF)
B. National Incident Management Systems (NIMS)
C. Incident Command System (ICS)
D. National Response Framework (NRF)
E. All of the above

6. Why is a GeoCONOPS needed?
A. To support the DHS mandate to document the organization principles of the geospatial community
B. To make available geospatial information and capabilities that strengthen national security and resilience
C. To eliminate the occurrences of terrorism, cyber attacks, pandemics, and natural disasters
D. To define and develop the mission lifecycle

7. The GeoCONOPS has been adopted into federal doctrine through its includion in which document?
A. National Preparedness Goal (PPD-8)
B. Incident Command System (ICS)
C. Federal Interagency Operational Plan

8. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS facilitates geospatial resources sharing and promotes best practices.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

9. How does the GeoCONOPS’ alignment to federal doctrine benefit the geospatial community?
A. Improves communication between federal and state/local entities
B. Ensures that federally derived information reaches front-line mission staff in a timely fashion
C. Directs focus to operational technologies that are proven to address mission requirements
D. Improves coordination by documenting mission information that will be available to the community
E. All of the above

10. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS’ alignment with federal doctrine causes duplication of effort in the geospatial community.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

11. Which part of the mission life cycle is vital to the prevention of reoccurring and foreseen losses as a result of natural and man-made disaster events?
A. Prevention
B. Mitigation
C. Response
D. Recovery
E. Protection

12. Which part of the mission lifecycle addresses capabilities to safeguard against acts of terrorism and man-made or natural?
A. Prevention
B. Mitigation
C. Response
D. Recovery
E. Protection

FEMA IS-60.b The Homeland Security Geospatial Concept-of-Operations (GeoCONOPS) for Planners and Decision Makers Answers

December 4, 2022 Dwayne Morise

1. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS’ alignment with federal doctrine causes duplication of effort in the geospatial community.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

2. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS aims to reduce redundancy and ensure efficient access to geospatial information for incident management.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. The GeoCONOPS has been adopted into federal doctrine through its inclusion in which document?
A. National Preparedness Goal (PPD-8)
B. Incident Command System (ICS)
C. Federal Interagency Operational Plan

4. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS is a product of the entire geospatial community for all hazards and all threats.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

5. How does the GeoCONOPS’ alignment to federal doctrine benefit the geospatial community?
A. Broadens access and visibility of the GeoCONOPS effort by other missions using geospatial information for decision support
B. Allows situational awareness for understanding location, context, and inter-dependencies necessary for effective integration and information sharing
C. Provides the necessary overlapping information to tie together all federal doctrine
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

6. Which of the following does the GeoCONOPS reference to prepare for specific types of incidents that pose the greatest risk to the nation’s security?
A. GeoPlatform
B. Geospatial Information Infrastructure
C. National Preparedness Planning
D. All of the above

7. The GeoCONOPS supports which of the following Homeland Security Missions?
A. Prevent terrorism, enhance security, and ensure resilience to disasters
B. Secure and manage our borders
C. Enforce and administer immigration laws
D. Safeguard and secure cyberspace
E. All of the above

8. In addition to its inclusion in the PPD-8, the GeoCONOPS has been carefully aligned to which federal doctrine?
A. Emergency Support Function (ESF)
B. National Incident Management Systems (NIMS)
C. Incident Command System (ICS)
D. National Response Framework (NRF)
E. All of the above

9. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS provides a common framework toward achieving national preparedness through networking.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

10. How does the GeoCONOPS help the geospatial community?
A. It provides a source for trusted geospatial data
B. It provides a source for geospatial best practices
C. It provides sources for geospatial capabilities and tradecraft
D. It provides identification of missions and stakeholders
E. All of the above

11. Is this statement true or false? The GeoCONOPS supports Homeland security and national preparedness missions with coordination mechanisims to facilitate geospatial information sharing.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

12. Which entity guides the development of the GeoCONOPS?
A. The GeoCONOPS Management Team
B. The Geospatial Interagency Oversight Team
C. The Federal Doctrine Oversight Agency
D. The Geospatial Professional Association