All Of The Following Determine Blood Flow Resistance Except:

May 3, 2023 bd calling

Blood pressure is a product of:
A) Stroke volume and heart rate
B) Heart rate and total peripheral resistance
C) Cardiac output and total peripheral resistance
D) Stroke volume and total peripheral resistance

2. The inherent rhythmicity or beating of the heart is approximately how many beats per minute?
A) 65 beats
B) 100 beats
C) 75 beats
D) 50 beats

3. True or false? The heart rapidly "turns on" in exercise by decreased parasympathetic and increased stimulating input from the brain's central command.
A) True
B) False

A. True

6. In what situation does the Bohr effect exert almost no effect on pulmonary capillary blood?
A) When PO2 ranges between 20 and 50 mm Hg
B) During maximal exercise
C) At normal alveolar PO2 levels
D) The Bohr effect always significantly affects pulmonary capillary blood

12. During bouts of exercise, there is a shunting of blood toward active tissues, though certain areas cannot be compromised. Which of the following areas would not be able to compromise their supply?
A) Small intestines and skin
B) Skin and kidneys
C) Heart and skin
D) Heart and brain

13. Identify the false statement regarding carbon dioxide transport.
A) Carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma.
B) Carbon dioxide is combined with hemoglobin.
C) Carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate.
D) Carbon dioxide is in solution with chloride.

14. Which of the following factors will improve a muscle's metabolic capacity?
A) Increasing size and number of mitochondria, augmenting aerobic enzyme activity
B) Decreasing size and number of mitochondria, augmenting aerobic enzyme activity
C) Increasing size and number of mitochondria, diminishing aerobic enzyme activity
D) Decreasing size and number of mitochondria, diminishing aerobic enzyme activity

17. Which of the following are also referred to as "resistance vessels" because they dramatically alter their internal diameter to rapidly regulate blood flow to the periphery?
A) Aortas
B) Arterioles
C) Arteries
D) Veins

18. A chronotropic effect causes the heart to:
A) Increase its force of contraction
B) Decrease its rate of beating
C) Increase its rate of beating
D) Decrease its force of contraction

19. Venous return is enhanced by all of the following except:
A) Alternate compression and relaxation of the veins
B) The flap-like valves spaced at short intervals within the veins
C) The one-way action of the veins
D) A lower blood pressure

21. The opening of dormant capillaries in exercise does all of the following except:
A) Increase total muscle blood flow
B) Deliver a large blood volume with only a minimal increase in blood flow velocity
C) Decrease heart rate
D) Increase the effective surface for gas and nutrient exchange

22. Increasing the end-diastolic volume of the heart will not cause which of the following?
A) Stretching of the myocardium
B) Decreasing strength of the contraction
C) Increasing strength of the contraction
D) Increasing volume of blood ejected during systole

23. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps blood into the aorta for distribution throughout the body in which of the following?
A) Systemic circulation
B) Pulmonary circulation
C) Arterioles
D) Myocardium

26. Which of the following physiologic mechanisms do not increase the heart's stroke volume during exercise?
A) Enhanced cardiac filling in diastole, followed by more forceful systolic contraction
B) Normal ventricular filling with subsequent forceful ejection and emptying during systole
C) Expanded blood volume and reduced resistance to blood flow in peripheral tissues
D) Enhanced cardiac filling in diastole, followed by less forceful systolic contraction

29. Cardiac output is a product of which of the following variables?
A) Heart rate and a-vo2 difference
B) Stroke volume and heart rate
C) Heart rate and blood flow
D) VO2max and heart rate

30. True or false? Diastolic blood pressure provides an estimate of the work of the heart and the force that blood exerts against the arterial walls.
A) True
B) False

B. False

31. The force exerted by blood against the arterial walls during the cardiac cycle represents:
A) Pulse rate
B) Mean arterial pressure
C) Systolic blood pressure
D) Diastolic blood pressure

35. Endurance athletes achieve higher cardiac outputs through large increases in which variable of the cardiac output formula?
A) Stroke volume
B) Heart rate
C) VO2max
D) Blood pressure

36. During low- to moderate-intensity exercise, heart rate is increased by:
A) Activation of parasympathetic stimulation
B) Inhibition of sympathetic stimulation
C) Inhibition of parasympathetic stimulation
D) Activation of sympathetic stimulation

37. What does the arteriovenous oxygen difference describe?
A) The difference in oxygen content in the blood pre- and post-exercise
B) The difference in oxygen content between arterial blood and mixed-venous blood
C) The range of oxygen content in blood from forced exhale to inhaled deep breath
D) The amount of oxygen attached to hemoglobin immediately preceding a breath

39. True or false? Decreased tissue oxygen supply serves as a potent local stimulus for vasodilation in skeletal and cardiac muscle.
A) True
B) False

A. True

42. All of the following determine blood flow resistance except:
A) Heart rate
B) Blood thickness or viscosity
C) Length of the conducting tube
D) Blood vessel radius

43. The Frank-Starling law of the heart associates decreased pre-load volumes with increased contractions of the heart.
A) True
B) False

B. False

45. Which of the following does not increase the heart's stroke volume?
A) Enhanced cardiac filling and ejection
B) Neurohormonal influence
C) Training adaptations that expand blood volume
D) Training adaptations that increase resistance to blood flow

46. Which of the following is least likely to affect hemoglobin's oxygen-binding affinity?
A) Acidity
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Temperature
D) Enzyme saturation

47. What in the blood serves to augment the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity?
A) Enzymes
B) Hemoglobin
C) Plasma
D) Carbon dioxide

49. At rest, in muscle tissue, only one of every 30 to 40 of what type of blood vessel remains open?
A) Capillaries
B) Veins
C) Arteries
D) Arterioles

1. Which of the following are not muscle proteins?
A) A and Z protein
B) C and M protein
C) Actin and myosin
D) α-actinin and nebulin

3. Which receptors react rapidly to changes in arterial blood pressure?
A) Baroreceptors
B) Chemoreceptors
C) α-receptors
D) Sensory receptors

4. Skeletal muscle is composed of all of the following except:
A) Enzymes
B) High-energy phosphates
C) Minerals
D) Hormones

5. True or false? A muscle strengthens when trained near its current maximal force-generating capacity.
A) True
B) False

A. True

6. Aerobic training increases blood flow to skeletal muscles during maximal exercise because of all of the following except:
A) Larger maximal cardiac output
B) Greater capillarization of muscle
C) Fewer type I fibers
D) Reduced flow to nonactive tissues

7. _________________ muscle contraction occurs when external resistance exceeds muscle force and the muscle lengthens while developing tension.
A) Concentric
B) Eccentric
C) Isotonic
D) Isometric

8. Which type of muscle fiber exhibits fast shortening speed and a moderately well-developed capacity for energy transfer from both aerobic and anaerobic sources?
A) I
B) IIa
C) IIx
D) No fiber type has those characteristics

9. Which of these consists of the basic repeating unit between two Z lines and makes up the functional unit of the skeletal muscle?
A) Z band
B) Myofibril
C) Filament
D) Sarcomere

11. True of false? Trained persons perform submaximal exercise with a lower cardiac output than untrained persons.
A) True
B) False

A. True

15. True or false? A motor unit can exert a force gradation.
A) True
B) False

B. False

16. True or false? A motor unit consists of an α-motor neuron and all of the specific muscle fibers it innervates.
A) True
B) False

A. True

22. According to Henneman's size principle:
A) Large motor units are recruited for high-force, long-duration (endurance) tasks.
B) Small motor units are recruited first.
C) Large motor axons are recruited for fine (low-force) tasks.
D) Small α-motor neurons are reserved for supramaximal force output.

23. __________ inhibits actin and myosin interaction and thus prevents their permanent bonding.
A) Titin
B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Troponin
D) Tropomyosin

27. A fast motor unit capable of producing high force with little fatigue resistance would primarily have what muscle fiber type?
A) Slow oxidative
B) Fast oxidative glycolytic
C) Slow glycolytic
D) Fast glycolytic

28. Which is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds bundles of fibers?
A) Epimysium
B) Periosteum
C) Perimysium
D) Tropomyosin

29. Physiologic changes associated with aerobic training include increases in all of the following except:
A) Heart volume
B) Muscle capillarization
C) Mitochondria
D) Reaction time

36. Which system runs perpendicular to the myofibril and functions as a microtransportation network to spread the action potential from the fiber's outer membrane inward to deeper regions of the cell?
A) Intracellular cytoskeleton system
B) T-tubule system
C) Calcium delivery system
D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

37. True or false? Without ATP, the myosin crossbridges and actin remain attached and do not separate.
A) True
B) False

A. True

38. True of false? Endurance training increases maximal heart rate, and thus cardiac output.
A) True
B) False

B. False

39. What is the term used to describe the amount of oxygen extracted from the blood?
A) v-a change
B) a-vo2 difference
C) V/A ratio
D) Oximetry

43. ________________ is the neurotransmitter responsible for depolarizing the sarcolemma.
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dopamine

45. During the power stroke phase of muscle contraction this (these) molecule(s) is (are) bound to myosin:
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) ADP + Pi
D) Pi

12 cranial nerves

1. I Olfactory (Smell)

2. II Optic (Sight)

3. III Oculomotor (Moves eyelid and eyeball and adjusts the pupil and lens of the eye)

4. IV Trochlear (Moves eyeballs)

5. V Trigeminal (Facial muscles incl. chewing; Facial sensations)

6. VI Abducens (Moves eyeballs)

7. VII Facial (Taste, tears, saliva, facial expressions)

8. VIII Vestibulocochlear (Auditory)

9. IX Glossopharyngeal (Swallowing, saliva, taste)

10. X Vagus (Control of PNS e.g. smooth muscles of GI tract)

11. XI Accessory (Moving head & shoulders, swallowing)

12. XII Hypoglossal (Tongue muscles - speech & swallowing)

What are the sections of the spinal nerves and how many pairs of nerves are in each?

31 PAIRS TOTAL

8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccyx