Oxygen Is Attached To _______.
Oxygen is attached to _______.
a. an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
b. a calcium atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
c. a calcium atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin
d. an iron atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin
a. an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is evaluated using _______.
a. hematocrit measurements and cholesterol measurements
b. hemoglobin measurements
c. hematocrit measurements
d. hematocrit measurements and hemoglobin measurements
e. cholesterol measurements
d. hematocrit measurements and hemoglobin measurements
Release of which of the following hormones results in higher levels of erythrocytes?
erythropoietin
testosterone and erythropoietin
estrogen
estrogen and erythropoietin
testosterone
testosterone and erythropoietin
Which type of anemia is a genetic disorder resulting in abnormally shaped erythrocytes?
aplastic anemia
sickle cell anemia
pernicious anemia
polycythemia
sickle cell anemia
The blood sample from which of the following had the highest hematocrit?
a healthy female living in Boston
a healthy male living in Boston
a healthy male living in Denver
a healthy female living in Denver
a healthy male living in Denver
The blood sample(s) from which of the following displayed polycythemia?
a. a healthy male living in Denver
b. a healthy female living in Denver and a healthy male living in Denver
c. a healthy female living in Denver
d. a healthy male living in Boston and a healthy male living in Denver
e. a healthy male living in Boston
b. a healthy female living in Denver and a healthy male living in Denver
The hematocrit for the female with iron-deficiency anemia was _______.
a. below normal
b. above normal
c. normal
d. above normal and indicative of polycythemia
e. indicative of polycythemia
a. below normal
Which of the samples are from patients that suffer from a condition in which insufficient oxygen is transported to the body's cells?
samples 1 and 3
samples 1 and 2
samples 3 and 4
samples 5 and 6
samples 5 and 6
Which of the following would indicate a worsening of the disease?
a. decreased ESR with angina
b. increased ESR with rheumatoid arthritis
c. decreased ESR with acute appendicitis
d. decreased ESR with pelvic inflammatory disease
b. increased ESR with rheumatoid arthritis
Rouleaux formation is characterized by _______.
an increase in ESR
a decrease in ESR
a decrease in ESR and a decrease in fibrinogen production
an increase in ESR and a decrease in fibrinogen production
a decrease in fibrinogen production
an increase in ESR
ESR is useful in distinguishing between _______.
a. rheumatoid arthritis and bone cancer
b. angina and a myocardial infarction as well as acute appendicitis and ruptured ectopic pregnancy
c. acute appendicitis and ruptured ectopic pregnancy
d. angina and a myocardial infarction
e. All of the above are correct.
b.
Erythrocyte sedimentation relies upon _______.
filtration
blood pressure
gravity
centrifugation
gravity
The tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach is called the ________.
trachea
esophagus
small intestine
oral canal
esophagus
This GI tract organ stores food temporarily, and continues the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
oral cavity
small intestine
stomach
esophagus
stomach
The tube that leaves the stomach (and is the first part of the small intestine) is called the ________.
duodenum
This GI tract organ acts like a drying oven. It absorbs water from its contents, and consolidates and propels the unusable components of food toward elimination from the body.
large intestine
The lining of the alimentary canal is a ________.
mucous membrane
This enzyme, produced by the salivary glands, digests carbohydrates.
salivary amylase
This fat-digesting enzyme does the major work of digesting fats in the small intestine.
lipase
Emulsifies fat, keeping tiny fat droplets suspended in the aqueous contents of the gut
bile
Which type of movement in the GI system propels food along the entire alimentary canal?
peristalsis
enamel
what is number 1?
dentin
what is number 2?
gingiva
what is number 3?
cementum
what is number 4?
root canal
what is number 5?
periodontal ligament
what is number 6?
crown
what is number 7?
neck
what is number 8?
root
what is number 9?
Fats, in the presence of litmus (that indicates pH of the solution), are shown to be digested ________.
when the solution in the test tube turns pink (acidic)
The protein-digesting enzyme that works in the stomach is ________.
pepsin
The GI organ that is the major site of nutrient absorption is the ________.
small intestine
This enzyme, which digests carbohydrates, is found in saliva and in the small intestine.
amylase
This accessory organ of the digestive system makes digestive enzymes that act upon all of the major food types.
pancreas
The digestive function of the liver is to ________.
produce bile
The heart is located in a subdivision of the thorax called the ________
mediastinum
How many heart valves are there?
4
They lie between the atria and the ventricular chambers on each side of the heart.
Mitral and Tricuspid valves
They enforce a one-way blood flow through the heart, operate passively (no active contraction required), and separate atria from ventricles, and ventricles from the large arteries that leave them.
heart valves
Which side of the heart receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs?
right
The pulmonary trunk and arteries are color-coded ________ on models and in pictures, because they carry ________ blood.
blue, deoxygenated
In the coronary circulation oxygenated blood is provided to the heart muscle by the ________.
right and left coronary arteries
Cardiac muscle tissue ________.
is striated, like skeletal muscle tissue
In sequential order, the components of the intrinsic conduction system, beginning at the SA node, are ________.
Av node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
The QRS complex is associated with ________.
Depolarization of the ventricles
Name the ridged bundles of muscle found projecting inside the right atrium.
Pectinate muscles
Papillary muscles
Intercalated discs
Trabeculae carneae
pectinate muscles
Identify the right atrioventricular valve.
Pulmonary valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Bicuspid valve
Tricuspid valve
tricuspid valve
Identify the valve located at the exit of the right ventricle.
Aortic semilunar valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid valve
pulmonary semilunar valve
The moderator band is found on both the right and left side of the heart.
True
False
false
Oxygenated blood flows through the right side of the heart.
False
True
false
Identify the most muscular chamber.
Right atrium
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
left ventricle
Name the inner lining of the heart.
Endocardium
Pericardium
Epicardium
Myocardium
endocardium
Identify the valve found between the left atrium and left ventricle.
Bicuspid (mitral) valve
What heart chamber pushes blood through the aortic semilunar valve?
Right atrium
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
left ventricle
Name the needle like ridges of muscle lining the ventricles.
Papillary muscles
Trabeculae carneae
Chordae tendineae
Pectinate muscles
Trabeculae carneae
What fibrous structure functions to anchor the atrioventricular valves in a closed position?
Papillary muscle
Chordae tendineae
Trabeculae carneae
Moderator band
chordae tendineae
Blood on the right never mixes with blood on the left, once the heart is fully developed.
False
True
true
Identify the ear like flaps that are attached to the top chambers of the heart.
Auricle
Atrium
Coronary sinus
Pectinate muscles
auricle
The first branch off the arch of the aorta is the brachiocephalic artery in both the sheep and the human.
False
True
true
Which chamber of the heart exits into the pulmonary trunk?
Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
right ventricle
What is the function of the coronary circulation?
Provide a blood supply to the heart
What is the ligamentum arteriosum?
a remanent of the ductus arteriosus
(The ductus arteriosus is a fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta.)
Blood arriving in the right atrium has just come from the ________.
right ventricle
aorta
left atrium
venae cavae and coronary sinus
venae cavae and coronary sinus
Blood has just been discharged into the pulmonary trunk: from which chamber did it exit?
right ventricle
** ASK CALLIE bc i Dont get it *
These vessels carry oxygenated blood.
venae cavae and pulmonary veins
aorta and pulmonary veins
aorta and pulmonary trunk
venae cavae and pulmonary artery
aorta and pulmonary veins
What is the name of the circuit that supplies blood to the brain, heart, and gastrointestinal tract?
systemic circulation
________ is/are found in the ventricles, and attach the flaps of the AV valves to papillary muscle.
chordae tendineae
Bradycardia describes a heart rate of ________.
less than 60 beats/minute
Ventricular fibrillation is ________.
a. slow, strong ventricular contractions
b. rapid, uncoordinated ventricular contractions
c. fluttering of the atria
d. strong, rhythmic atrial contractions
b. rapid, uncoordinated ventricular contractions
The inferior vena cava drains the ________.
abdomen
abdomen and lower extremities
head and upper extremities
thorax
abdomen and lower extremities
In a microscopic field showing an artery and its corresponding vein, you can easily distinguish the two because ________.
a. veins have thinner walls and are irregular in shape
b. arteries are round and larger than veins
c. veins are round and have thicker walls
d. arteries have a larger internal opening than veins
a.
There are two brachiocephalic veins and ________ brachiocephalic artery (or arteries).
1
Arteries that supply the intestines arise from the aorta. Veins that drain the intestines ________.
a. empty into the hepatic veins
b. enter the inferior vena cava directly
c. join to form the common intestinal vein that enters the vena cava
d. ultimately drain into the hepatic portal vein
d.
Which of the following had the fastest sedimentation rate?
a. the individual with sickle cell anemia
b. the individual with angina pectoris
c. the healthy individual
d. the individual suffering a myocardial infarction
d.
Which sample did NOT settle at all in one hour?
a. the healthy individual
b. the individual suffering a myocardial infarction
c. the individual with angina pectoris
d. the individual with sickle cell anemia
d.
In comparing the sedimentation rate for the individual with angina pectoris with that of the healthy individual, which of the following statements is true?
a. The sedimentation rate was greater for the individual with angina pectoris.
b. The sedimentation rate was greater for the healthy individual.
c. The sedimentation rates were the same for both individuals.
d. The sedimentation rate was not measured for the individual with angina pectoris.
c.
Which of the following explains the result for the individual with sickle cell anemia?
a. The lack of iron in the red blood cells allowed them the settle faster.
b. The shape of the red blood cells allowed them to settle faster.
c. The shape of the red blood cells prevented them from settling.
d. The lack of iron prevented the red blood cells from settling.
c. The shape of the red blood cells prevented them from settling.
Each hemoglobin molecule can carry ______________ oxygen molecule(s).
one
three
four
two
four
Which of the following does NOT result in an increase in hemoglobin levels?
congestive heart failure
polycythemia
living at high altitudes
hyperthyroidism
hyperthyroidism
has oxygen attached to the iron atom
Oxyhemoglobin
Which of the following individuals had the highest hemoglobin level?
the healthy female
the healthy male
the male with polycythemia
the female Olympic athlete
the female Olympic athlete
Which of the following blood samples did NOT have a normal ratio of PCV to Hb?
?
a. the male with polycythemia
b.the female with iron-deficiency anemia and the healthy female
c. the female with iron-deficiency anemia
d. the female with iron-deficiency anemia and the male with polycythemia
e.the healthy female
c. the female with iron-deficiency anemia
Which of the following individuals had the highest hemoglobin level?
the healthy female
the healthy male
the male with polycythemia
the female Olympic athlete
the female Olympic athlete
Which of the following describes the blood sample for the female Olympic athlete?
Her hemoglobin level and her hematocrit were above normal.
A person with type O blood has _______.
neither A nor B agglutinogens
neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins
O agglutinins
O antigens
neither A nor B agglutinogens
With respect to ABO and Rh blood groups, there are __________ different blood types.
eight
A person with type AB blood has _______.
A and B antigens and neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies.
A person with A+ blood has _______.
a. the A antigen on the surface of the red blood cells
b. Rh antigen on the surface of the red blood cells
c. anti-B antibodies
d.all of the above
d. all of the above
Which blood sample contained the universal recipient?
sample 5
Which of the following terms can be used interchangeably?
antigen and agglutinin
agglutinogen and agglutinin
antigen and antibody
antigen and agglutinogen
antigen and agglutinogen
Blood type A- would give which of the following results?
a. agglutination with anti-A antibodies and agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies
b. agglutination with anti-B antibodies
c. agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies and agglutination with anti-B antibodies
d. agglutination with anti-A antibodies
e. agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies
d.
Which of the blood samples tested could donate to a person with type A+ blood?
samples 1 and 4
LDLs contain?
cholesterol and protein
In the activity for blood cholesterol we measured?
total blood cholesterol
Hypercholesterolemia is linked to _______.
low levels of serotonin
The cholesterol determination is _______.
enzymatic and colorimetric
Which of the following were disposed of in the biohazardous waste disposal?
the alcohol wipe, the lancet, and the cholesterol strip
Which patient sample(s) tested in the elevated range?
sample 2
Which patient sample(s) tested in the desirable range?
sample 1 and 3
Which patient sample(s) tested in the borderline elevated range?
sample 4
The autorhythmicity of cardiac pacemaker cells is made possible by the reduced permeability of _______.
potassium
The repolarization of cardiac muscle is due to _______.
potassium exiting the cell
The total refractory period of cardiac muscle _______.
is longer than the total refractory period for skeletal muscle
Skeletal muscle is capable of which of the following?
wave summation and fused tetanus
Delivering single shocks in succession to stimulate the frog heart _______.
did not increase the height of the ventricular systole wave
The doublet that results with more frequent stimulation of the frog heart represents _______.
an extrasystole and an extra contraction of the ventricles
When the ventricles beat rapidly in succession, _______.
a compensatory pause followed
When multiple stimuli were applied at 20 stimuli/sec, _______.
extrasystoles were produced
The effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart is to _______.
increase the heart rate and increase the force of contraction
Which branch of the autonomic nervous system dominates after a large meal?
the parasympathetic branch
The sinoatrial node is located _______.
in the right atrial wall of the human heart
Excessive vagal stimulation of the heart will result in _______.
a decrease in heart rate and, eventually, a temporary cessation of the heartbeat
When vagus nerve stimulation was applied to the frog heart, _______.
the heart rate slowed and eventually stopped
What part of your tracing illustrates vagal escape?
the part where the heart resumed beating
Research shows that in the absence of neural and hormonal influences, the SA node generates action potentials at a frequency of about 100 times per minute. However, the resting heart rate is about 70 beats per minute. What would the approximate heart rate be if the vagus nerve were severed?
about 100 beats per minute
about 100 beats per minute
the SA node
Organisms that have temperature fluctuations that coincide with the external temperature and lack internal homeostatic temperature regulatory mechanisms are?
poikilothermic
Which part of the human body regulates temperature?
hypothalamus
Heat-releasing mechanisms include which of the following?
vasodilation and sweating
For the frog heart, temperature and heart rate are _______.
directly proportional
If the human heart were experiencing hyperthermia, what do you think would be the effect on the heart rate? (elevated body temperatures)
the heart rate would increase
what does ringers solution contain?
cations, anions and electrolytes
Which of the following affect heart rate through the use of a cAMP (second messenger) system?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine
epinephrine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine and norepinephrine
Which of the following decreases the rate of depolarization in the heart?
acetylcholine
The sinoatrial node has receptors for _______.
acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine
An adrenergic drug that worked in opposition to epinephrine would _______.
be an antagonist and decrease heart rate
Muscarine is a poison found in poisonous mushrooms. Muscarine binds to acetylcholine receptors and mimics its action. Which of the following describes the effect of muscarine?
Like pilocarpine, it decreases the heart rate.
Beta blockers are used to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). Which receptors do you think are being blocked?
muscarinic
nicotinic
alpha-adrenergic
beta-adrenergic
With respect to heart rate, which of the following worked in opposition to each other?
digitalis and atropine
With respect to heart rate, which of the following had the same effect?
digitalis and pilocarpine as well as atropine and epinephrine
When the cardiac muscle cell is at rest, the concentration of _____________ is greater on the outside of the cell.
sodium and calcium
Modifiers that affect the force of contraction of the heart are _______.
inotropic
The movement of _______________ into the cardiac muscle cell depolarizes the cardiac muscle cell.
sodium and calcium
Modifiers that affect heart rate are _______.
chronotropic
Which ion(s) at least initially lowered the frog heart rate in the activity you just performed?
potassium and sodium
What effect does potassium have on the resting membrane potential of the cardiac cell?
Increasing extracellular potassium causes the resting membrane potential to become more positive.
The cardiac cell plasma membrane is most permeable to _______________________.
potassium
Calcium channel blockers block the movement of calcium _______.
into the cell and decrease heart rate
A ___________________ drug increases the force of contraction of the heart.
positive inotropic