JKO Joint Staff Alcohol and Substance Abuse Prevention

COCAINE

Which of the following drug(s) is NOT considered "date rape" drug?

STEROIDS

Which of the following is NOT considered a hallucinogen?

ALL OF THE ANSWERS
-high blood pressure
-heart failure
-dehydration
-seizures

Physiological effects while under the influence of MDMA/Ecstasy are?

INDEGESTION

Physical effects of marijuana include all of the following except?

12 OZ BEER, 5 OZ WINE, 1.5 OZ DISTILLED SPIRITS

A standard drink of alcohol is considered to be?

ALCOHOL

Which of the following drugs do Service members most abuse?

MARIJUANA

THC is the active ingredients in?

ALL OF THE ANSWER
-facial rash
-death
-brain damage
-hand tremors

Inhalant abuse can cause?

HUFFING

Inhalant abuse is referred to as?

VITAMINS

Which of the following drugs is NOT one of the most abused prescription medications?

Physiological effects while under the influence of MDMA/Ecstasy are?

All ( Dehydration, High blood pressure, Heart failure, Seizures)

Inhalant abuse can cause?

All (Brain damage, Hand tremors, Facial rash, Death )

Which of the following drug(s) is NOT considered a "date rape" drug?

Cocaine

Inhalant abuse is referred to as?

Huffing

Which of the following drugs do Service members most abuse?

Alcohol

Which of the following drugs is NOT one of the most abused prescription medications?

Vitamins

THC is the active ingredient in?

Marijuana

Which of the following is NOT considered a hallucinogen?

Steroids

A standard drink of alcohol is considered to be?

12 oz beer, 5 oz wine, 1.5 distilled spirits

Physical effects of marijuana include all of the following except?

Indigestion

Physiological effects while under the influence of MDMA/Ecstasy are? (Lesson 4: Club Drugs, page 3 of 13)

* High blood pressure
* Heart Failure
* All of the Answers
* Dehydration
* Seizures

All of the Answers

Pre-Test 02
Inhalant abuse can cause? (Lesson 5: Inhalants, page 4, 5 of 8)

* Facial rash
* Death
* Brain damage
* All of the Answers
* Hand tremors

All of the Answers

Pre-Test 03
Physical effects of marijuana include of of the following except? (Lesson 3: Marijuana, page 3 of 9)

* Coughing
* Indigestion
* Increased appetite
* Temporary impairment of motor functions

Indigestion

Pre-Test 04
Inhalant abuse is referred to as? (Lesson 5: Inhalants, page 2 of 8)

* Smoking
* Snorting
* Gluing
* Huffing

Huffing

Pre-Test 05
THC is the active ingredient in? (Lesson 3: Marijuana, page 3 of 9)

* Morphine
* Alcohol
* Marijuana
* Aspirin

Marijuana

Pre-Test 06
Which of the following drug(s) is NOT considered a "date rape" drug? (Lesson 4: Club Drugs, page 11 of 13)

* Cocaine
* Ketamine
* Rohypnol
* GHB

Cocaine

Pre-Test 07
Which of the following is NOT considered a hallucinogen? (Lesson 4: Club Drugs, page 8, 9, 10, of 13)

* PCP
* LSD
* Methamphetamine
* Steroids

Steroids

Pre-Test 08
Which of the following drugs is NOT one of the most abused prescription medications? (Lesson 1: Prescription Abuse, page 3, 4, 5, of 11)

* Painkillers
* Vitamins
* Stimulants
* Sedatives

Vitamins

Pre-Test 09
Which of the following drugs do Servicemembers most abuse? (Lesson 2: Alcohol, page 1 of 12)

*Cocaine
* Marijuana
* Alcohol
* Amphetamines

Alcohol

Pre-Test 10
A Standard drink of alcohol is considered to be? (Lesson 2: Alcohol page 2 of 12)

* 12 oz beer, 5 oz wine, 3 oz distilled spirits
* 32 oz beer, 6 oz wine, 3 oz distilled spirits
* 12 oz beer, 5 oz wine, 1.5 oz distilled spirits
* 8 oz beer, 4 oz wine, 1.5 oz distilled spirits

12 oz beer, 5 oz wine, 1.5 oz distilled spirits

Prescription Medication Abuse - Who is using Prescription Medications (PM)?

Per CDC (Center for Disease Control and Prevention) 2011

47.9% uses at least one prescription drug in the past month

21.4% uses three or more prescriptions drugs in the past month

10.5% uses five or more prescription drugs in the past month

Prescription Medication Abuse - What is PM Abuse?

Prescription Medication is the 3rd largest problem behind alcohol and marijuana abuse

The use of a prescription medication in a way not intended by the prescribing doctor.

Prescription Drug abuse includes everything from taking a friend's prescription painkiller for your backache to snorting group-up pills to get high

Prescription Medication Abuse - Reasons for PM Abuse

* To feel good or get high

* To be safe - it's a false belief that prescription drugs are safer than street drugs

* To relax or relieve tension

* To be legal - it's a mistaken thought that taking prescription drugs without a prescription is legal

* To experiment

* To feed an addiction

* To be accepted by peers (peer pressure) or to be social

Prescription Medication Abuse - Commonly abused drugs

* Opioid painkillers, such as oxycodone (OxyContin) and those containing hydrocodone (Vicodin)

* Sedatives and tranquilizers, such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan)

* Stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin), that are used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and sleep disorders.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Opioids, What are they?

Commonly prescribed because of their effective analgesic, or pain-relieving properties

Medications that fall within this class - referred to as prescription narcotics - include morphine (e.g., Kadian, Avinza), codeine, oxycodone (e.g., OxyContin, Percodan, Percocet), and related drugs. Morphine, for example, is often used before and after surgical procedures to alleviate severe pain. Codeine, on the other hand, is often prescribed for mild pain.

in addition to their pain-relieving properties, some of these drugs - codeine and diphenoxylate (Lomotil), for example, can be used to relieve coughs and diarrhea.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Opioids, What are their effects?

Opioids act on the brain and body by attaching to specific proteins called opioid receptors, which are found in the brain, spinal cord, and gastrointestinal tract. When these drugs attach to certain opioid receptors, they can block the perception of pain.

Opioids can produce drowsiness, nausea, constipation and respiratory depression. opioid drugs also can induce euphoria by affecting the brain regions that mediate what we perceive as pleasure.

This feeling is often intensified for those who abuse opioids when administered by routes other than those recommended. For example, OxyContin often is snorted or injected to enhance its euphoric effects, while at the same time increasing the risk for serious medical consequences, such as opioid overdose.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Opioids, possible consequences of abuse.

Taken as directed, opioids can be used to manage pain effectively. Many studies have shown that the properly managed, short-term medical use of opioid analgesic drugs is safe and rarely causes addiction.

Withdrawal symptoms include restlessness, muscle and bone pain, insomnia, diarrhea, vomiting, cold flashes with goose bumps, and involuntary leg movements.

Long-term use of opioids can lead to physical dependence and addiction. Taking a large single dose of an opioid could cause severe respiratory depressing that can lead to death.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Depressants, What are they?

CNS depressants, sometimes referred to as sedatives and tranquilizers, are substances that can slow normal brain function. Because of this property, some CNS depressants are useful in the treatment of anxiety and sleep disorders. Among the medications that are commonly prescribed for these purposes are the following:

Barbiturates: such as mephobarbital (Mebaral) and pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal), are used to treat anxiety, tension, and sleep disorders

Benzodiazepines: such as diazepam (Valium), chlordiazepoxide HCI (Librium), and alprazolam (Xanax), are prescribed to treat anxiety, acute stress reactions, and panic attacks. The more sedating benzodiazepines, such as triazolam (Halcion) and estazolam (ProSom) are prescribed for short-term treatment of sleep disorders. Usually, benzodiazepines are not prescribed for long-term use.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Depressants, What are their effects?

Most act on the brain by affecting the neurotransmitter gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA). Neurotransmitters are brain chemicals that facilitate communication between brain cells. GABA works by decreasing brain activity.

It is through their ability to increase GABA activity that they produce a drowsy or calming effect that is beneficial to those suffering from anxiety or sleep disorders.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Depressants, Possible consequences of abuse

Despite their many beneficial effects, barbiturates and benzodiazepines have the potential for abuse and should be used only as prescribed.

if one uses these drugs long term, the body will develop tolerance for the drugs, and larger doses will be needed to achieve the same initial effects.

Continued used can lead to physical dependence and - when use is reduced or stopped - withdrawal. Because all CNS depressants work by slowing the brain's activity, when an individual stops taking them, the brain's activity can rebound and race out of control, potentially leading to seizures and other harmful consequences.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Depressants, Withdrawal Symptoms

nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, Fever, Rapid heartbeat (tachycardia), Headaches, heart palpitations, Anxiety, Hallucinations

Memory loss, Depression, Dizziness, Insomnia, Personality changes, Restlessness or irritability

Sensitivity to sound or light, Confusion, Panic attacks, Sweating, Seizures, Tension

Prescription Medication Abuse - Stimulants, What are they?

Stimulants are a class of psychoactive drugs that increase activity in the brain. These drugs can temporarily elevate alertness, mood, and awareness.

Prescription stimulants were used historically to treat asthma, obesity, neurological disorders, and a variety of other ailments, before their potential for abuse and addiction became apparent.

Medically, they are now prescribed for only a few health conditions, including narcolepsy, attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, and short-term treatment of obesity.

Drugs that are classed as stimulants include; caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, amphetamines, and prescription medications (Ritalin, Adderall, Dexedrine, etc.)

Prescription Medication Abuse - Stimulants, What are their effects?

Stimulants, such as dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine and Adderall) and methylphenidate (Ritalin and Concerta), have chemical structures similar to a family of key brain neurotransmitters called monoamines, which include norepinephrine and dopamine.

Stimulants enhance the effects of these chemicals in the brain. Stimulants also increase blood pressure and heart rate, constrict blood vessels, increase blood glucose, and open up the pathways of the respiratory system.

The increase in dopamine is associated with a senses of euphoria that can accompany the use of these drugs.

Prescription Medication Abuse - Stimulants, Possible consequences of abuse

As with other drugs of abuse, it is possible for individuals to become dependent upon or addicted to many stimulants.

Repeated use of some stimulants over a short period can lead to feelings of hostility or paranoia

Taking high doses of a stimulant may result in dangerously high body temperature and an irregular heartbeat.

There is also the potential for cardiovascular failure or lethal seizures.

Alcohol - Things to Consider

* Alcohol is a CNS depressant
* Alcohol is considered to be a gateway drug to other drug use
* People who drink alcohol are more prone to divorce and suicide than the rest of the population
* Alcohol is the most abused drug by soldiers

Alcohol - Use Statistics

* Nearly 14 million Americans meet diagnostic criteria for Alcohol Use Stats disorders
* Approximately

Physical effects of marijuana include all of the following except? (Lesson 3: Marijuana, page 3 of 9)

* Coughing
* Indigestion
* Increased appetite
* Temporary impairment of motor functions

Indigestion

JKO Joint Staff Counterintelligence Awareness and Reporting

select all that apply. counterintelligence (CI) pre- and post-foreign travel briefs support you by providing:

_ defensive actions needed to defeat threats
_ information on local and regional threat environments
_ reportable activity guidelines
_ travel area intelligence and security practices and procedures

communicating information about the national defense to injure the U.S. or give advantage to a foreign nation is called:

espionage

it is acceptable to discuss sensitive information such as travel plans in taxis, buses, or other public transportation while traveling in foreign countries.

false

terrorist organizations are considered foreign intelligence entities by the U.S..

true

unclassified information can be collected to produce information that, when put together, would be considered classified.

true

all requests to transport media back to the U.S. on behalf of a foreign country must be reported to your counterintelligence representative.

true

foreign adversary use of social networking services causes which of the following concerns?

all of the answers are correct

select all that apply. human intelligence (HUMINT) targeting methods include which of the following?

_ relationship building
_ elicitation
_ cold pitching
_passive collection

a foreign power activity or knowledge that is inconsistent with the expected norms that suggest prior foreign knowledge of U.S. national security information, processes or capabilities is defined as:

anomaly

what percentage of information collected is unclassified?

80 - 85%

impairment of a signals intelligence collection platform or an unexplained compromise of U.S. intelligence operations are examles of:

an anomaly

the internet and social networking services have allowed:

all of the above

elicitation can be best described as a guided conversation with a concealed purpose.

true

espionage is described as:

the act of obtaining transmitting, communication or receiving information about the national defense with the intent, or reason to believe, that the information may be used to the injury of the U.S. or to the advantage of any foreign nation

information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations or persons, or international terrorist activities, but not including personnel, physical, document or communications security programs is the definition:

counterintelligence

modus operandi of foreign intelligence entities regarding physical surveillance can be conducted at work, home and hotels.

true

when traveling overseas do not attempt to connect to government networks using cyber café due to the possibility of foreign intelligence entities, cyber criminals and hackers accessing your wireless gadgets.

true

although not all encompassing per DoDD 5240.06 which of the following must be reported to your counterintelligence representative:

all of the answers are correct

ailure to report Foreign Intelligence Entity (FIE) threats may result in?

1. Judicial punishment.

2. Administration.

Which of the followings terms is defined as the act of obtaining , delivering, transmitting, communicating, or receiving national defense-related information with the intent to harm the United States or to provide advantage to any foreign nation?

Espionage.

Which of the following terms include foreign intelligences and security services and international terrorists and is defined as any known or suspected foreign organization, person, or group (public, private, or governmental) that conducts intelligence activities to acquire U.S. information, block, or impair U.S. Intelligence collection, influence U.S. policy, or disrupt U.S. system and programs?

Foreign Intelligence Entity (FIE).

Bradley Manning and Edward Snowden are examples of which of the following categories?

Insider threat.

The Defense Logistics Agency relies on you to protect national security by reporting any behavior that you observe that may be related to a potential compromise of sensitive information?

True.

Foreign Intelligence Entities collect information to do what? Select all that apply.

1. Defeat our objectives.

2. Advance their interest.

3. Manipulate

Some methods of operation or "MO" frequently used by Foreign Intelligence Entities to collect information include which of the following. Select all that apply.

1. Solicitation of services.

2. Elicitation.

3. Marketing.

Obtaining information under the guise of a social or professional conversation, when the subject remains unwitting of the collector's goal is known by which of the following term?

Elicitation.

Elicitation is an effective method of collection because of which of the following reasons?

People underestimate the value of information.

Which of the following is NOT an internal cyber threat to DLA?

Complex passwords.

Which of the following terms identify information gathered and activities conducted to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt, or protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations, or person's, or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities?

Counterintelligence.

Select all that apply. Counterintelligence (CI) pre- and post-foreign travel briefs support you by providing (Course Introduction, Page 3)

Information on local and regional threat environments (correct)
Travel area intelligence and security practices and procedures (correct)
Reportable activity guidelines (correct)
Defensive actions needed to defeat threats (correct)

2) Communicating information about the national defense to injure the U.S. or give advantage to a foreign nation is called (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities (FIE), Page 4)

Espionage (correct)

3) It is acceptable to discuss sensitive information such as travel plans in taxis, buses, or other public transportation while traveling in foreign countries. (Lesson 4: Traveling in a Foreign Country, Page 3)

False (correct)

Terrorist organizations are considered Foreign Intelligence Entities by the U.S. (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 1)

True (correct)

) Unclassified information can be collected to produce information that, when put together, would be considered classified. (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 3)

true

All requests to transport media back to the U.S. on behalf of a foreign country must be reported to your Counterintelligence representative. (Lesson 5: Reporting Requirements, Page 1)

true

Foreign adversary use of social networking services causes which of the following concerns? (Select the best answer) (Lesson 3: Internet and Social Networking Services, Page 3)

All of the answers are correct (correct)
Risk of exposure is low because cyber operations can be carried out remotely and with a high degree of anonymity
Foreign adversaries can conduct cyber operations to collect intelligence or degrade the effectiveness of our technologies
Cyber operations can be conducted relatively cheaply and easily, offering high returns with a low degree of risk

8) Human intelligence (HUMINT) targeting methods include which of the following? Select all that apply. (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 8)

Relationship building (correct)
Cold Pitching (correct)
Passive collection (correct)
Elicitation (correct)

9) A foreign power activity or knowledge that is inconsistent with the expected norms that suggest prior foreign knowledge of U.S national security information, processes or capabilities is defined as (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 10)

Anomaly

What percentage of information collected is unclassified? (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 3

80-85%

) Impairment of a Signals Intelligence collection platform or an unexplained compromise of U.S. Intelligence Operations are examples of (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 10)

anomaly

The Internet and social networking services have allowed (Lesson 3: Internet and Social Networking Services, Page 2)

Relative anonymity and safety for hackers
Information about an individual to be obtained which allow the FIE to understand their targets weaknesses, like and dislikes before their first meeting
Organizations to oversee operations more globally with less of a physical presence

All of the above (correct)

Elicitation can be best described as a guided conversation with a concealed purpose. (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 8)

True (correct)

Espionage is described as (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities (FIE), Page 4)

The act of obtaining transmitting, communication, or receiving information about the national defense with the intent, or reason to believe, that the information may be used to the injury of the U.S. or to the advantage of any foreign nation (correct)

Information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations or persons, or international terrorist activities, but not including personnel, physical, document or communications security programs is the definition (Course Introduction, Page 3)

counterintelligence

Modus Operandi of Foreign Intelligence Entities regarding Physical Surveillance can be conducted at work, home and Hotels. (Lesson 1: Foreign Intelligence Entities, Page 2)

true

When traveling overseas do not attempt to connect to government networks using cyber cafe due to the possiblity of foreign intelligence entities, cyber criminals and hackers accessing your wireless gadgets. (Lesson 4: Traveling in a Foreign Country, Page 1)

true

Although not all encompassing per DoDD 5240.06 which of the following must be reported to your Counterintelligence representative (Lesson 5: Reporting Requirements. Page 2):

Close and continuing associations with foreign nationals
Contact with an individual who is known or suspected of being associated with a foreign intelligence or security organization
Visits to foreign diplomatic facilities that are unexplained or inconsistent with an individual' official duties
Attempts to obtain classified or sensitive information by an individual not authorized to receive such information

All of the answers are correct (correct)

JKO Joint Staff Annual Ethics Training

You are asked to sell tickets to subordinates in the workplace for a fundraising event sponsored by a nonprofit organization that helps military spouses. May you sell the tickets?

No, this fundraising event has not been authorized, and it is not a fundraiser among the members of your organization for the benefit of the members of your organization.

Based your current official position, you were invited by a non-profit organization to an event that will be attended by 1,000. Of the 1,000 attendees, approximately 20 percent will be from the Department of Defense; 30 percent will be from the Legislative Branch; 40 percent will be representatives from academia; and 10 percent will be members of industry. The event will allow you to exchange ideas and views among the invited guests. The event is also scheduled to occur in the evening so you will attend the event on your own time. The value of this gift of free attendance is approximately $75 per person. Are you allowed to accept the gift of free attendance?

Yes, this event is a widely attended gathering, and before I attended the event, I coordinated with my ethics counselor and received written authorization to accept this gift.

You work officially with a contractor whom you otherwise do not know. The contractor invites your supervisor and you to dinner at a hotel on Pennsylvania Avenue, a block from the White House. The contractor does not invite anyone else. The cost of each meal is valued at $21.00. May the supervisor and you accept the offer?

No, an employee may not accept a gift from a prohibited source that exceeds $20.00. Also, the gift was offered because of your and your supervisor's official positions.

May a retired E-6 accept a salary from a company owned and controlled by the Government of France?

Yes, provided the retired military member obtains the approval from his/her Service Secretary and the Secretary of state before accepting the salary.

While employed by the Federal government, you were involved in approving a contract for audio/visual equipment. When you left the Federal government, you started working for that contractor and on the same contract. At the completion of work, the Government had paid approximately $6 million for $841,000 worth of equipment. Is your employment with the contractor acceptable?

No, this is a violation of a post-government employment restriction that is also a criminal statute (18 U.S.C. Section 207) because you participated personally and substantially in this contract while you were a government employee.

As a gesture of thanks, a retailer gave you a briefcase after you, using your Government credit card, had purchased office supplies from the retailer. Can you accept the briefcase?

No, because acceptance violates the general ban of accepting gifts from persons who do business or seek to do business with the employee's agency.

You have decided that it is time to retire from the Federal Service and are talking with two contracting companies that currently have contracts within your Directorate about possible job opportunities. Is there anything special you should do?

Yes, you should disqualify yourself from any official participation concerning these contracts and any particular matter that has a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of entities with whom you are discussing future employment.

JKO Joint Staff Operations Security (OPSEC)

Work related information posted to social networking sites or discussed in public may create ___________ that can be exploited by the unauthorized recipient.
-Threats
-Indicators
-Vulnerabilities
-Risk

-Vulnerabilities

Which is not an example of an OPSEC countermeasure?
-Make indicators seem unimportant.
-Minimize predictable patterns.
-Protecting critical information.
-Sudden change to a predictable routine.

-Sudden change to a predictable routine.

Match the five-step OPSEC process with the action associated with the step.
a) This step identifies the information that must be protected and why it needs to be protected.
b) Identifies who the unauthorized recipient is, the intentions of the unauthorized recipient, and the unauthorized recipient's capabilities.
c) Identifies the actions that need to be taken to protect critical information.
d) Identifies the impact to the mission if the unauthorized recipient exploits a vulnerability and the overall impact of the unauthorized recipient learning our critical information.
e) Identifies the weaknesses the unauthorized recipient can exploit to uncover critical information.

A - Identify critical information
B - Analyze threats
D - Analyze vulnerabilities
C - Assess risks
E - Apply countermeasures

What is OPSEC? (Select all that apply)
-Part of everyone's job - including yours.
-Only applies to work and is not applicable to my personal life.
-A process, not a set of rules.
-A method for denying an adversary access to our critical information.

-Part of everyone's job - including yours.
-A process, not a set of rules.
-A method for denying an adversary access to our critical information.

____________ are like pieces of a puzzle an adversary uses to reveal a picture of our operations.
-Threats
-Questions
-Critical information
-Indicators

-Indicators

The following should be considered when assessing risk. (Select all that apply)
-The consequences of your actions.
-What's the cost of avoiding risk?
-Will something you do or say provide an indicator to the adversary.
-How will an adversary benefit from the indicator?
-What's the effect on the mission?

-The consequences of your actions.
-What's the cost of avoiding risk?
-Will something you do or say provide an indicator to the adversary.
-How will an adversary benefit from the indicator?
-What's the effect on the mission?

____________ are like pieces of a puzzle an unauthorized recipient uses to reveal a picture of our operations.
-Critical information
-Questions
-Indicators
-Threats

-Indicators

JKO Joint Operational Access Concept (JOAC)

Which of the following is a key area-denial capability?

a,b, and c

Which of these is a trend that promises to complicate the challenge of opposed access for U.S. joint forces?

a, c, and d

Which of the following is a key antiaccess capability?

all of the above

which of the following best describes the JOAC solution?

Cross-Domain Synergy

True or False? A2/AD strategies focus on preventing/disrupting the joint force from getting to the fight and disrupting freedom of action within the operational area.

True

The JOAC Operational Access Precepts must be applied:

b,c and d

True or False? Space and cyberspace are now essential to all joint force projection, both for the support they provide to operations in the other domains and as operational domains in their own right when directed.

True

True or False? The JOAC Operational Access Precepts, coupled with the central idea of Cross-Domain Synergy, provide a description of how joint forces will operate to gain access in the face of armed opposition.

True`

Which statement is true regarding the scope of the JOAC?

All of the Above

Which of the following is a factor contributing to the changing U.S. Defense posture?

All of the Above

1. Who approved the JOAC with the following description? "The Joint Operational Access Concept (JOAC) describes in broad terms my vision for how joint forces will operate in response to emerging antiaccess and area-denial security challenges...future enemies, both states and nonstates, see the adoption of antiaccess/area-denial strategies against the United States as a favorable course of action..."

The Secretary of Defense

Which of the following can be used to shape conditions prior to armed conflict? Select all that apply.

All answers are correct

Which of the following is a key area-denial capability?

All of the above

not special

JOAC Problem Statement: The essential problem for future joint forces is to be able to project military force into an operational area and sustain it in the face of armed opposition when which of these trends apply?

all of the above

The JOAC describes principles that when applied in design, planning and execution to a given set of conditions will describe how joint forces would achieve operational access. The term for these principles is:

JOAC Precepts

a) Those actions and capabilities, usually long-range, designed to prevent an opposing force from entering an operational area.
b) The ability to project military force into an operational area with sufficient freedom of action to accomplish the mission.
c) The unhindered national use of the global commons and select sovereign territory, waters, airspace and cyberspace, achieved by projecting all the elements of national power.
d) The complementary vice merely additive employment of capabilities in different domains such that each enhances the effectiveness and compensates for the vulnerabilities of the others-to establish superiority in some combination of domains that will provide the freedom of action required by the mission.
e) Those actions and capabilities, usually of shorter range, designed not to keep an opposing force out, but to limit its freedom of action within the operational area.
f) Areas of air, sea, space, and cyberspace that belong to no one state. Access to the global commons is vital to U.S. national interests, both as an end in itself and as a means to projecting military force into hostile territory.

Operational Access a b c d e f

Assured Access a b c d e f

Antiaccess (A2) a b c d e f
Area-Denial (AD) a b c d e f
Cross-Domain Synergy a b c d e f
Global Commons

The Purpose of JOAC is to describe how a future joint force will overcome opposed access challenges. Which of the following IS NOT a method for JOAC to guide force development?

Providing specific Joint Force Commander guidance regardless of the situation

(wrong) establishing

Future enemies, both states and nonstates, will see the adoption of an antiaccess/area-denial strategy against the United States as a favorable course of action. Which of the following is a common element of A2/AD strategies?

Attacking U.S. forward bases, whether by missiles, special operations units, or irregular forces to include the use of weapons of mass destruction.

Which of the following is a key antiaccess capability?

(wrong) All of the above

Which of the following is an attribute of the JOAC application of Cross-Domain Synergy?

All of the above

Which are identified as contributing to the trend of a changing U.S. overseas defense Posture?

Decreased support

severely contracting

U.S. garrisons on foreign soil

which of the following are true of the space and cyberspace domains?

gaining and maintaining
space and cyberspace operations

JKO Strategic Planning Three: Population Health Improvement and Social Marketing

What is the foundation of health improvement?

All of the above

Which population health factor relates to new skills that individuals, communities, or organizations need before a behavior can be carried out?

Enabling factor

What is the most widely used method of qualitative research in community health assessments?

Focus groups

What determinant of health focuses on changes to behaviors such as substance abuse, diet, and physical activity?

Individual Behaviors

What determinant of health affects individual and population health at the local, state, and federal level?

Policy Making

Which measures the extent to which a program has caused the intended short-term changes in the target population?

Impact

What approach uses business techniques to influence a target audience to voluntarily accept, reject, modify, or abandon a health-related behavior?

Social marketing

Which factor is concerned with knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, or values that exist prior to engagement of health-related behaviors?

Predisposing factor

What type of evaluation measures the extent to which a program has caused the intended long-term changes in the target population?

Outcome evaluation

What is the first step in the Population Health Improvement Model?

Identify the population

What is the first step in social marketing?

Conduct a situation analysis

What report or model is commonly used in planning health promotion activities?

The Precede-Proceed Model

JKO Quality Management Two: Patient Safety

What is the most common cause of a sentinel event?

Lack of communication

Which of the following underlying causes of medical errors is described as the lack of effective "hand off" of work (e.g., transfer of medical information about a patient)?

Poor process or system design

What is the most important question you can ask when analyzing a quality or patient safety issue?

Why did the problem occur?

Which of the following is an example of lack of fail-safe methods?

Nurses not individually verifying the "five rights" of administering medications: right drug, dose, route, time and patient

What percentage of medical errors is not reported?

50-90%

patient was admitted for preterm labor, screened by RN #1 and examined by a physician. The physician gave RN #2 a verbal order for 4 gm bolus/2 gm maintenance MgSO4. RN #2 placed a large bag of MgSO4 on the IV pole and programmed the IV pump; she started the MgSO4 bolus and then was called away. Later the IV pump alarm went off and RN #1 started a second bolus. The patient complained of feeling sick but this was not addressed; the FHT alarm also was not addressed, which occurred around the time of change of shift. The physician was concerned about his order being lost during the change of shift, so he repeated the order to oncoming RN #3 but did not tell her that it was a repeat order. RN #3 gave a third bolus. Shortly after, the RNs realized that the patient had received three separate doses of 4 Gm MgSO4. All three nurses and the physician immediately went to check on the patient, and the physician ordered a stop to the MgSO4 and obtained a magnesium level. On receiving a report describing these facts, the Director of Quality Management determined that this was a sentinel event, and an interdisciplinary team was set up to look at this occurrence. In reviewing the facts of the case, what would be the major cause of the medication error?

Poor communication

Which of the following is an example of a solution to address a lack of communication?

Team building

A patient was admitted for preterm labor, screened by RN #1 and examined by a physician. The physician gave RN #2 a verbal order for 4 gm bolus/2 gm maintenance MgSO4. RN #2 placed a large bag of MgSO4 on the IV pole and programmed the IV pump; she started the MgSO4 bolus and then was called away. Later the IV pump alarm went off and RN #1 started a second bolus. The patient complained of feeling sick but this was not addressed; the FHT alarm also was not addressed, which occurred around the time of change of shift. The physician was concerned about his order being lost during the change of shift, so he repeated the order to oncoming RN #3 but did not tell her that it was a repeat order. RN #3 gave a third bolus. Shortly after, the RNs realized that the patient had received three separate doses of 4 Gm MgSO4. All three nurses and the physician immediately went to check on the patient, and the physician ordered a stop to the MgSO4 and obtained a magnesium level. On receiving a report describing these facts, the Director of Quality Management determined that this was a sentinel event, and an interdisciplinary team was set up to look at this occurrence. As a leader, what would you advise the team to do as a first step in conducting their RCA for the medication error?

Map out what happened

A patient was admitted for preterm labor, screened by RN #1 and examined by a physician. The physician gave RN #2 a verbal order for 4 gm bolus/2 gm maintenance MgSO4. RN #2 placed a large bag of MgSO4 on the IV pole and programmed the IV pump; she started the MgSO4 bolus and then was called away. Later the IV pump alarm went off and RN #1 started a second bolus. The patient complained of feeling sick but this was not addressed; the FHT alarm also was not addressed, which occurred around the time of change of shift. The physician was concerned about his order being lost during the change of shift, so he repeated the order to oncoming RN #3 but did not tell her that it was a repeat order. RN #3 gave a third bolus. Shortly after, the RNs realized that the patient had received three separate doses of 4 Gm MgSO4. All three nurses and the physician immediately went to check on the patient, and the physician ordered a stop to the MgSO4 and obtained a magnesium level. On receiving a report describing these facts, the Director of Quality Management determined that this was a sentinel event, and an interdisciplinary team was set up to look at this occurrence. After the RCA has been completed, what would contribute the most to organizational effectiveness?

Documentation and distribution of lessons learned

A patient was admitted for preterm labor, screened by RN #1 and examined by a physician. The physician gave RN #2 a verbal order for 4 gm bolus/2 gm maintenance MgSO4. RN #2 placed a large bag of MgSO4 on the IV pole and programmed the IV pump; she started the MgSO4 bolus and then was called away. Later the IV pump alarm went off and RN #1 started a second bolus. The patient complained of feeling sick but this was not addressed; the FHT alarm also was not addressed, which occurred around the time of change of shift. The physician was concerned about his order being lost during the change of shift, so he repeated the order to oncoming RN #3 but did not tell her that it was a repeat order. RN #3 gave a third bolus. Shortly after, the RNs realized that the patient had received three separate doses of 4 Gm MgSO4. All three nurses and the physician immediately went to check on the patient, and the physician ordered a stop to the MgSO4 and obtained a magnesium level. On receiving a report describing these facts, the Director of Quality Management determined that this was a sentinel event, and an interdisciplinary team was set up to look at this occurrence. In reviewing the facts of this case, what is the major implication for leadership?

Building a team to ensure the coordination of care

A patient is having shoulder arthroscopy under general anesthesia. The patient has been prepped, placed on the operating table, and Valium has already been given to the patient to relax him prior to surgery. Right before general anesthesia is to be administered, what should the operating team consider doing?

Calling a 'time out' to verify the surgical site and that this is the right patient

A patient was admitted for preterm labor, screened by RN #1 and examined by a physician. The physician gave RN #2 a verbal order for 4 gm bolus/2 gm maintenance MgSO4. RN #2 placed a large bag of MgSO4 on the IV pole and programmed the IV pump; she started the MgSO4 bolus and then was called away. Later the IV pump alarm went off and RN #1 started a second bolus. The patient complained of feeling sick but this was not addressed; the FHT alarm also was not addressed, which occurred around the time of change of shift. The physician was concerned about his order being lost during the change of shift, so he repeated the order to oncoming RN #3 but did not tell her that it was a repeat order. RN #3 gave a third bolus. Shortly after, the RNs realized that the patient had received three separate doses of 4 Gm MgSO4. All three nurses and the physician immediately went to check on the patient, and the physician ordered a stop to the MgSO4 and obtained a magnesium level. On receiving a report describing these facts, the Director of Quality Management determined that this was a sentinel event, and an interdisciplinary team was set up to look at this occurrence. What mechanism or approach would you advise the team to take?

Root-cause analysis (RCA)

JKO Outcomes Measurement Three: Outcomes Management and Research

Outcomes Research

The study of success of interventions in clinical practice

"Was a treatment effective?"

"Which treatment is most effective?"

Biomedical Model

Cause & Effect

- Focuses on a linear relationship b/w pathology and the resulting impairment.

Historically healthcare was measured through:

Morbidity
Mortality
Length of Stay
Re-admission

Rehabilitation outcomes were measured through changes in:

Impairments
Pathologies

The Disablement Model

An expansion of the biomedical model applied to a border perspective of PT
- Pathology, Impairment, Functional Limitation, Disability

Impairment

Anatomical, physiological, or psychological abnormalities

Functional Limitation

Inability to perform an activity in a manner considered to be normal

Disability

Limitation in performance of activities within socially defined roles

Pathology

Interference with normal bodily processes or structures

Outcome Measures

- Cost-effectiveness
- Questionnaires (measures satisfaction, participation, physical function, QoL, etc)
- Physical Measures
- Activity-based
- Impairment-based

International Classification of Functioning Disability and Health (ICF)

Health condition -> Body Functions & Structures, Activity, Participation -> Contextual factors -> Environ. factors & Personal Factors

Example of Outcome Measures

- Cost-effectiveness
- Questionnaires to measure pt satisfaction and preferences
- Physical Fitness, Activity Based, Impairment-based

Physical Measures

Physiological Measures

- Vo2 Max, Rockport walk test, 6 minute walk

Activity Based

Functional test, Daily Tasks

- 5 time sit to stand, timed up and go, Functional Independence Measure (FIM)

Impairment Based

Outcome measures
- ROM, Muscle Strenth, modified Ashworth (spasticity)

JKO National Disaster Medical System One: Overview

What plan, program, or system provides a comprehensive all-hazards approach to managing domestic incidents?

A: National Disaster Medical System

B: Defense Support to Civil Authorities program

C: Federal Response Plan

D: National Response Framework

D

The NDMS organizational element that determines overall policy and program guidance for the NDMS is the:

A: Federal Coordinating Center Coordination
Working Group

B: Senior Policy Group

C: Directorate Staff

D: Operations Center

B

When supporting the DSCA program, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is responsible for:

A: Serve as the Defense Domestic Crisis Manager

B: Establishing the necessary policies and procedures to ensure the appropriate personnel are trained to execute DSCA plans

C: Establishing DoD policy governing DSCA

D: Identifying available resources for support in response to DSCA requests, and release related orders when approved

D

What organizational element is responsible for day-to-day coordination of planning and operations in NDMS patient reception areas?

A: Emergency Support Functions

B: Federal Coordinating Centers

C: NDMS Operations Support Center

D: Disaster Medical Assistance Teams

B

Who is the principle approval authority for the activation of the DSCA program?

A: The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

B: The HHS Office of Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response (ASPR)

C: The Department of the Army

D: The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Homeland Defense and Global Security (ASD(HD&GS))

D

What plan, program, or system provides medical support when state and local resources are overwhelmed as a result of a disaster?

A: National Response Framework

B: Defense Support to Civil Authorities

C: National Disaster Medical System

D: Federal Response Plan

B

What agency or office would activate the National Disaster Medical System (NDMS) in the event of a catastrophic disaster within the U.S.?

A: Department of Homeland Security

B: Army Surgeon General's Office

C: Department of Health and Human Services

D: The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs

not D

True or False: The primary mechanism for the provision of federal assistance under the NRF is through 15 ESFs.

T

A group of professional and para-professional medical personnel (supported by a cadre of logistical and administrative staff) designed to provide medical care during a disaster or other event are referred to as:

A: Disaster Medical Assistance Teams

B: Public Health Preparedness Teams

C: Disaster Coordination Teams

D: Definitive Medical Care Teams

A

True or False: The National Response Framework (NRF) allows first responders, decision makers, and supporting entities to provide a unified national response.

T

Who is responsible for coordinating DSCA policy with other Federal departments and agencies, State agencies, and the DoD Components?

A: Assistant Secretary of Defense for Homeland Defense and Global Security (ASD(HD&GS))

B: Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USD(P))

C: Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

D: Secretaries of the Military Departments

B

Which agency is the primary lead agency for ESF #8 (Public Health and Medical Services) of the NRF?

A: HHS
B: DHS
C: FEMA
D: DoD

A

True or False: DSCA is initiated by a request for DoD assistance from a civilian agency or is ordered by the President or Secretary of Defense.

T

JKO Medical Readiness Training

True or False: Conducting a debriefing with all players involved is a guideline for medical readiness exercises.

T

Which of the following is most critical to the success of a medical readiness training program?

Leadership

True or False: Direct caregivers should be given the highest priority for training and receipt of protective equipment, vaccinations, prophylactic antibiotics, chemical antidotes, and other protective measures.

T

What plan, program, or system outlines or provides medical support by the military when state and local resources are overwhelmed as a result of a disaster?

Defense Support of Civil Authorities

A critical component of the DSCA program is the:

...

The standards of which organizations should be included in the healthcare organization's Emergency Management Plan (EMP)?

The Joint Commission (TJC)

Which of the following is deployed upon activation of the Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA) Program?

Special Medical Augmentation Response Teams (SMARTs)

Which of the following is an element of a written medical readiness training program?

Assessment of skills/competencies

It is recommended that healthcare organization view disaster preparedness as:

An ongoing, continuous cycle

How frequently should the healthcare organization test its Emergency Management Plan (EMP)?

Semi-annually

True or False: Establishing general goals is a guideline for medical readiness exercises or drills.

F

What is the ability of the healthcare organization to quickly expand to meet an increased demand for medical care?

Surge capacity

1) Which medical readiness program or agency uses civilian medical facilities to augment care by the DoD medical system?

National Disaster Medical System (NDMS)

JKO Lean Six Sigma and Balanced Scorecards

Statistically, what does Six Sigma refer to?

Process mapping

What Six Sigma tool visualizes how things get done?

Process mapping

In what range do experts estimate for the amount of waste in organizations?

30-60%

The balanced scorecard should be closely aligned with which one of the following?

Organizational strategy

What is the first step in the Six Sigma process

Define the problem

What type of Six Sigma belt often manages their own departments?

Green belt

What is the foundation or basis of the balanced scorecard?

Strategy

What is a lean management principle and the foundation for continuous improvement?

Standardize whenever possible

What tool is best for examining results over time?

Flow chart <<< Wrong answer

Process map <<< Wrong Answer

Which approach is best for eliminating defects?

Six Sigma

What is the first step in the development of a balanced scorecard?

Develop an executable business strategy

The average length of patient stay would most likely be under which type of indicator in a balanced scorecard?

Financial

What management strategy focuses on the driving out of waste?

Lean management/thinking

In a lean 5S process to organize workspace, which step is done last?

Shine/scrub <<< Wrong Answer

Which of the following statements is false?

The primary purpose of Six Sigma is to reduce waste

JKO Leadership: Resilience, Wellness, and Cooperation

Which stress reduction technique is most effective in nearly every stressful situation, particularly if time is limited due to work or operational requirements?

Deep breathing

True or False: Conducting a warm hand-off of patients who are in or out processing and that require ongoing medical and/or behavioral healthcare is a guideline used to facilitate resilience.

True

Which of the following is a responsibility of leaders as it pertains to resilience?

Have zero tolerance for harassment and discrimination with respect to seeking behavioral health services

True or False: Those suffering from a stress-related disorder sometimes suffer from both harassment and discrimination.

True

True or False: Leaders are responsible for establishing an open, trusting environment where individuals feel free to seek help and discuss issues with their leaders and behavioral health professionals.

True

Which one of the following is true about stress?

Seventy-five percent of employees believed that workers have more on-the-job stress than a generation ago

Which stress reduction technique reduces stress and allows you to have more time to do what is needed?

Time management

True or False: Poor work performance is a possible consequence of untreated post-traumatic stress disorder?

True

Which method to improve coordination is used to arrange for and coordinate patient care among providers?

Case management

JKO Leadership Eight: Coaching, Counseling, and Mentoring

Which is NOT one of the five basic coaching skills?

Telling employees what is required

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of an "I" message?

General

After choosing a mentor, what would be the next step in the mentoring cycle?

Set expectations

During which phase of the mentoring cycle would written "ground rules" for the mentoring relationship be established?

Set expectations

What is the continuous process of ensuring that your staff does their current job well?

Coaching

What is most important with respect to mentorship meetings?

Ensuring regular meetings occur

Extensive delegation and not micro-managing are usually done with coaching what type of employee?

Superstars

Which one of the following statements is false?

The coach focuses on constructive feedback

Which of the following is NOT a guideline or tip for mentees?

Accepting feedback x

What is the first step in preparing for a counseling session?

Assess any organizational or managerial factors which could have affected performance

Of the following phrases, what should be said first in a counseling session?

"I asked you here to discuss"

Which one of the following is NOT a key consideration in counseling employees?

Value judgments

Which mistake in mentorship addresses the need for the mentor to guide the thought process of the protege?

Using mentoring as a disciplinary tool x
Pick the wrong person x

Which one of the following is NOT an appropriate mentoring behavior?

Having mentees work through problems alone

JKO Leadership Five: Valuing Diversity and Culture

The diversity management competency of people management is helpful because it allows a manager to:

Balance effective utilization of individual skills to achieve team goals

How does structured dialogue support a diverse environment?

It provides an environment where different groups can discuss difficult topics

The diversity management skill listening enables a manager to:

Respect and appreciate different communicate styles

When employees are sensitive to the use of language and the effects of stereotyping, they are demonstrating the characteristic of:

Mutual respect

The first step to create an environment of openness and trust is:

Self-awareness

Which is one of the primary dimensions of diversity?

Age

Obtaining feedback is a guideline in overcoming prejudice and stereotyping.

True

Which guideline for practicing dialogue considers how well you are listening to others?

Listening

A manager can diffuse a conflict situation by:

Establishing boundaries by asking for cooperation

When developing others to manage diversity, it is important for a leader to:

Lead by example and model desired behavior

When diversity is managed:

Employees enjoy coming to work in a supportive environment

The first step in overcoming prejudice is:

Taking responsibility

When promoting an environment that supports continuous learning, a manager is demonstrating the diversity competency of:

Developing self and others

JKO Labor Relations Two: Applications

Mr. Philips has been assigned the task of planning supervisory training sessions for the hospital's management team. On the agenda are key topics that should be covered during these sessions. They include motivation, teambuilding, problem solving, and:

Communication and listening skills

Which is one of the top three reasons for unionization?

Supervision

Which is most critical in meetings with union representatives?

Discussion of organizational changes

Which is most important with respect to Management by Wandering Around (MBWA)?

Input from employees on problems

As a seasoned HCMO manager, your goals are to promote positive relationships with employees and create a strong organizational culture. Of the following management strategies, which one would be inappropriate in achieving the above-stated goals?

Asking employees to verbalize their grievances x

What would be the most likely source of dissatisfaction of employees, causing them to form a union?

Poor communication with management

You are interested in promoting stronger management-employee relationships. Which of the following relationship-building techniques would have the most impact?

Conducting a supervisory development program

During a management training session, you were asked by one of the workshop leaders to elaborate on the basic management technique called Management By Wandering Around (MBWA). Which of the following is not part of MBWA?

Quietly observing employees work

As head of the HCMO management team, you decide to hold a teambuilding session to address dissatisfaction with working relationships, as well as to deal with any confusion about roles, goals, and job responsibilities. Who is the best person you should ask to conduct the initial teambuilding seminar?

External facilitator

One of the alternative dispute resolution techniques is mediation, particularly to resolve management and union differences. What is the primary advantage of using this technique?

It allows the participants to retain control over the decision

The term, "working to rule," is frequently used to describe employees who only do exactly what a rule requires or only what management explicitly asks them to do. This may be viewed as a type of passive-aggressive behavior where employees attempt to "get back" at management for something that they felt was unfair or unreasonable. If this were happening in your office or organization, what would be the most appropriate management action to take?

Try Management By Wandering Around (MBWA)

Aside from conducting surveys, focus groups, and meetings, what other method has proven effective in enhancing management-labor relations?

Monthly newsletter to keep employees up-to-date

Ms. Susan Jones is an administrative assistant for Mr. Bob Weiss, Director of Materials Management. Ms. Jones can be characterized as a good worker, knows her job, and completes the work she is assigned. She shows up for work on time. However, when she arrives, it is precisely at 8:00 am. It then takes her another 30 minutes, or more, to get settled. This is driving Mr. Weiss crazy as he wants the office operational at precisely 8:00 a.m. He gives Ms. Jones a list of rules about the operation of the office. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way of handling this situation:

Mr. Weiss should have had a meeting with Ms. Jones to more fully discuss the rules

Ms. Rupert has over 15 years of nursing experience, and has received a promotion to act as the Chief Nurse Executive (CNE) at the hospital. One of her first mandates is to improve labor relations with the nurses union. Of the following approaches, which one has not been proven to be effective in boosting morale and retaining employees?

Use of focus groups for information-gathering x

JKO Labor Relations One: Principles

What is the first formal step to unionization?

Defining the bargaining unit

Mrs. Union represents the union at MHS Hospital. She is compiling a list of people with appropriate skills and experience to build a negotiating team for the union. Who would she most likely include on her list?

Union attorney

Effective labor negotiations are based on strategies that are:

Objective and honest

Of the following, which statement does not describe the law requirements of the Labor Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley Act) of 1947?

This law oversees elections that determine whether or not employees will be represented by a union

Which one of the following is usually a successful bargaining strategy?

"Posturing" to sell the contract to union members and management

Which is a key consideration in preparing for a union negotiation?

Assume your opponent has a realistic understanding of what can be gained through the negotiation x

During negotiations, the union president makes a request for voluntary bargaining items to be included in the contract agreement. As outlined by the National Labor Relations Act of 1935, which of the following items is considered to be voluntary?

Benefits for retirees (e.g., health plan)

To guarantee that management retains its critical prerogatives, what should you do?

Include an employer rights clause in the labor contract

Which of the following is part of the grievance administration process?

Review of the grievance decision by the HCMO's legal counsel (JAG) x

Which one of the following is out of sequence with respect to the formation of a union?

Union recruits

Which of the following is one of the "set aside" management rights per court rulings?

Work qualifications

As an experienced HCMO manager and negotiator in labor relations, you are asked to share your "pearls of wisdom" with new and upcoming junior managers in the art of the negotiation process. Which of the following "pearls" would you cast aside in your talk?

Approach negotiations as a test of strength or a power struggle

The union wants to bargain on personnel policies such as discharge, lay-offs, and discipline. What should you do?

Include it as an agenda item for bargaining

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

False

JKO Information Management Two: Issues and Challenges

Which of the following knowledge management strategies rapidly generates specialized information from in-house experts for a clearly defined purpose?

Knowledge harvesting

Which of the following is an example of organizational integration?

Changing business and workflow processes to incorporate information management requirements and applications

Knowledge management promotes a learning culture by encouraging meaningful relationships, fostering innovation, creativity, and improvisation, and promoting a deep respect for learning.

true

Which of the following knowledge management challenges reminds us that quantity of knowledge does not equal quality?

Knowledge overload

An organization that supports a learning culture gains insight and understanding from experiences and is willing to incorporate the knowledge gained from both successes and failures.

True

What knowledge management strategy would you use to create situations that bring like-minded people together in a stimulating, knowledge-focused environment?

Foster "social" opportunities

Which is one of the major components of data protection?

User education

During which phase of the change management process do you document how information is currently processed, catalogued, and shared?

Phase 1: Assessment

Which of the following is an example of tacit information?

Intuition

What is the basic, original intent of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?

To provide standards for the electronic transmission of health information

Your community has heard that the system will result in an electronic medical record. Given this, you have decided to provide information to your community. In developing your information materials, on what issue or issues would you focus?

Both privacy and use of information without consent

To be truly effective, information management initiatives must be integrated into daily administrative, operational, and quality improvement activities. This can be accomplished by:

Creating a change management team to oversee the implementation process

JKO Group Dynamics Two: Applications

Which of the following are purposes of the parking lot? Select all that apply.

-Recognizing ideas as future agenda items
-Keeping the group on track

Which of the following is included in an agenda to allocate time to identify ideas and opportunities?

What will you say about the decision we made here today when you return to your unit?

Elaborator and clarifier are examples of which one of the following roles?

Task-oriented

Which of the following is a core facilitation practice or behavior?

Staying on track

During a meeting, who should approve agenda changes?

Leader

Which of the following describes the role of the consensus tester?

Sends up a "trial balloon" to test a conclusion

Which is a component of an intervention statement?

Redirecting the person's behavior

What questions may you want to ask yourself before interrupting critical group deliberations? Select all that apply.

-Is the problem serious enough to warrant an intervention?
-Might it be resolved by itself?

True or False: The 'fish-bowl' is a last-resort technique to break up an impasse in a group.

True

The methods and procedures used to keep the discussion going and on track are referred to as what group activity role?

Process

The most important core facilitation practice or behavior of a facilitator is:

Ask Questions

JKO Financial Management Four: Business Case Analysis

Which one of the following statements is false?

In the development of organizational plans, business plans should be developed first

Which one of the following is not a major component of a business plan?

***Risk analysis
*** Demand analysis

Which one of the following plans is developed first?

***Strategic plan

What classification of the portfolio matrix is characterized by steady stream of current revenue?

Cash cow

What is usually NOT included in the pro forma of the business plan?

Risk analysis

Which one of the following would not be included in a summary document for a business plan?

Marketing plan

What is the basis for the business plan?

Strategic plan

Which one of the following tools would be most appropriate for deciding on a new "big ticket" medical equipment purchase?

***Portfolio analysis

In addition to a list of tasks and time-frames for completion, what is next most critical in implementing the business plan?

Defining responsibilities

Which one of the following plans is developed last?

Financial plan

What should be used when an HCMO is considering a major new service or product line?

Business plan

What would be the most appropriate action to take in the maturity phase of the product life cycle model?

Enhance the product or develop new product lines

Which of the following is not one of the major factors to consider in a "make vs. buy" decision?

Competitor actions

Which of the following is not one of the four keys to the successful implementation of plans?

Have the right people with the right skills

What would be the most appropriate action to take in the growth phase of the product life cycle model?

Add staff, equipment, and information systems support

JKO Financial Management One: Concepts and Regulations

What is the primary source of funding for HCMOs?

Operations and maintenance (O&M)

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

Financial accounting focuses on the internal uses of accounting information for decision making

What category of workload measures considers the complexity or resource consumption of a group of patients?

Case-mix measures

Which one of the following is NOT a major component of a business plan or case analysis?

****Demand analysis
****Financial analysis

When must an MEPRS report be submitted?

Within 60 days from the end of the reported month x

What measures are primarily used in monitoring performance and comparing facilities?

Weighted workload measures

What is used to report revenues and expenses of the organization over a period of time?

Income statement

Which is usually viewed as the most comprehensive financial management function or activity?

Comptrollership

Which of the following would be of most concern in reviewing an income statement?

Unusual operating losses

Which function is primarily done to support decision making and continuous improvement?

Managerial accounting

Which one of the following is NOT a criterion for quantitative measures or metrics?

General definition

What specific concept or mechanism focuses on the internal uses of accounting information for decision making?

****Controllership
****Financial management
****Financial accounting

What is the basic purpose of the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System (MEPRS)?

To provide a uniform system of healthcare cost management

What specific concept or mechanism focuses on the internal uses of accounting information for decision making?

Managerial accounting

What is the inpatient classification scheme that relates various patient characteristics to length of stay (LOS) and amount of resources consumed?

Diagnostic-related groups (DRGs)