which of the foll

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Answer this question about "To Be of Use." Which of the following is an example of a simile in the poem? A "I love people who harness themselves" B "The work of the world is common as mud." C "I want to be with people who submerge / in the task" D "But the thing worth doing well done / has a shape that satisfies

Step 1

Result

maximum power requirements of a system at any given time

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

If one of the 12V rails required 150 and the second needed 350, how much wattage would the first rail get? in the space provided, enter only the numeric value

150

since you've determined that the power supply is a 700W dual rail, what does that make the maximum output power?

700

When you looked at the power cable connection point and On/Off switch on the back of the unit, what was different?

no voltage selector

when calculating the wattage for a power supply by estimating its needs, how much wattage would you allow for a fan?

What common household element can, over time, reduce airflow, insulate components, reduce heat exchange or even cause the system to hang or reboot?

dust

You have just upgraded your case fan. When installing it you notice that the old fan used 3 pins and that your new one has 4 pins. this isnt a problem because the intended fan header has four pins. What is the extra pin for?

fan control

What is another term for a passive heat sink?

fanless

What is the main obstacle to using passive heat sinks?

size

When considering the metals used in your processor cooler, which is the best overall choice?

copper with aluminum fins

Which of the choices provided would best utilize the slim design of the cooler in this image?

video card

Which would be the LEAST likely application for the heat sink in this image?

processor

The cooler in this image would be best suited as a ______ fan.

(red fan) chipset

The cooler in this image would be best suited as a _________fan.

(Zalman) processor

The cooler in this image would be best suited as a ______ fan.

processor (intel)

Active coolers require power for the fan. In most cases this is supplied by a motherboard component called a ___________.

header

Your CPU fan operates on which voltage?

+12V

You will see two types of fan headers for motherboards. There are 4-pin connector and 3-pin connector designs. Either will work, so what does the extra wire control?

Speed

the cooler in this image would be best suited as a __________ fan.

(dynex blue) case

The CPU cooler in this image uses several methods of heat dissipation. What are they? select the best answer from the choices provided.

all these choices are correct (heat pipes, fan, fins, copper)

The bottom of a CPU cooler is shown in this image. Why would copper be used here over the more widely seen aluminum?

better heat conductor

Looking at the motherboard in this image, you see the SYS_FAN connector. Will the connector support a 4 pin connector?

yes

You just purchased a CPU upgrade retail box set. This is a way for the manufacturer to guarantee that the fan and CPU are paired efficiently. When you examine the parts you see the ATX12V1 motherboard connector is white. the connector on your CPU is black. They have the same configuration otherwise. Is this a problem?

To know what size power supply you need, add up the wattage requirements of all components and add how much more?

30%

During the boot process, what are error messages printed on a black screen likely caused by?

POST error

What option should be selected on a voltage selector for a power supply being used in the United States?

115V

Some laptops contain a second battery. What is this battery called?

sheet battery

When troubleshooting, a clicking noise might indicate which of the following?

hard drive is failing

What type of cooler contains pipes filled with liquid that helps draw heat away from the CPU toward the fins on the cooler?

passive CPU cooler

How many beeps does startup UEFI/BIOS give to indicate a successful POST?

1 beep

Intel recommends a liquid cooling system for processors that use which Intel socket, which is typically used on high-end gaming computers?

LGA2011

What is the first step in the six-step model for computer troubleshooting?

interview the user

Which of the following is a round air duct that helps to pull and direct fresh air from outside the case to the cooler and processor?

chassis air guide

Which device in the computer case uses the least amount of wattage?

case fan

What is the approximate wattage rating of a motherboard, processor, memory, keyboard, and mouse?

200-300 watts

When the processor overheats and the system restarts, what type of error has occurred?

processor thermal trip errors

A short might occur if some component on the motherboard makes improper contact with the chassis. What is the most likely cause of this improper contact?

missing standoff

How many pins does the CPU fan header on a motherboard have?

4 pins

Good processor coolers maintain a temperature of what range?

90 -110 degrees

A cooler made of which of the following will do the best job of conducting heat?

copper

What term is used to describe each circuit provided by the power supply?

rail

Battery packs today use which of the following technologies?

lithium ion

What Windows utility can you use to test RAM?

Memory Diagnostics

For which processor does Intel recommend using a liquid cooling system?

LGA2011

You are working on a system that is displaying intermittent signs of a power problem. When you check the system there is no air blowing out of the power supply. What do you do?

get a new power supply

You have noticed over the past two days your phone is running hot. It's always on but never got hot before. What should you do first?

shut down then restart the phone

Your system crashes displaying a blue screen and a long error number. What is the common term for this condition?

BSOD

A user complains of a dead laptop battery. You want to check that the system is operational. You get his AC adapter and plug it in to the wall socket and then the PC. It doesn't boot. You remove the battery and the laptop boots. Your diagnosis?

bad battery

When calculating your power requirements the power supply should be rated ____ higher than your expected needs.

30%

You are checking a Molex drive power connector. In addition to the +12V what other voltage should be present?

+5V

You want to run the Windows memory Diagnostic from a Command Prompt. What command would you type?

msched

Which transmission characteristic is never fully achieved?

bandwidth

Which kind of multiplexing assigns slots to nodes according to priority and need?

STDM (statistical time division multiplexing)

What is the earliest twisted-pair cabling standard that meets the minimum requirements for 10GBase-T transmissions?

Cat 6a

Which kind of crosstalk occurs between wire pairs near the source of the signal?

What type of fiber cable problem is caused when pairing a 50-micron core cable with a 62.5-micron core cable?

Fiber type mismatch

Which fiber connector contains two strands of fiber in each ferrule?

MTRJ (Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack)

What kind of cable uses BNC connectors? Which connector is likely to be used by cable TV?

Coaxial cable, F-connector

Which part of a toner and probe kit emits an audible tone when it detects electrical activity on a wire pair?

tone locator

Suppose you're creating patch cables to be used in a government office. What color wire goes in the first pin?

white/green

Which of these categories of twisted-pair cable can support Gigabit Ethernet?

Cat 5e, Cat 6a, Cat 7

If you need to perform port scanning in your network, which of the following tool are you likely to use? [Choose all that apply].

Superscan
Angry IP Scanner

Why would a network administrator implement vulnerability scanning on a network?

to reveal vulnerabilities in the network

You are asked to perform an analysis on the network that will allow you to deduce information from patterns in communication. Which of the following types of analysis are you asked to perform?

Data traffic analysis

To troubleshoot a network problem, you are required to use a packet analyzer on a Unix based system. Which of the following command line interface commands will provide you with the required functionality?

tcpdump

You have been experiencing connectivity with various websites. The response time to open these websites is high. You tested the same websites from your home and could open them much faster. You assume that the slow access to the Websites might be due to high latency. Which of the given utility is likely to help you in finding the source that may be causing the latency issue?

Traceroute

the model of relationship development describes

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Students who work in small groups perform at higher intellectual levels. True or False?

True

The model of relationship development that describes people's relationship as changing based on important positive and negative events in their relationship is called the _____________ model.

Turning point model

Which of the following is NOT helpful in communicating ethically across cultures?

Relying on your beliefs as something to stand by

_____________ theory suggests that leaders are born with natural communication skills, personality characteristics, and physical characteristics that enable them to be better leaders.

Trait

We get to know people along two dimensions: breadth and depth. The theory that explains this process is known as _____ theory.

Social Penetration Theory

Secondary groups meet to ______________?

Solve Problems

The __________ approach to understanding intercultural communication emphasizes that things may exist as two opposing concepts simultaneously.

Dialect

According to uncertainty reduction theory, if we find someone desirable after initial attempts to reduce uncertainty, we are likely to back off and let them pursue us to determine reciprocal interest. True or False?

False

The theory that emphasizes tensions experienced between contradictory but connected interpersonal needs is called _________ theory.

Relational Dialectic

Culture defined

Totality of learned, shared symbols, language, values, and norms that distinguish one group of people from another

In-groups

Groups of people with which a person identifies

Out-groups

Groups of people with which a person does not identity

Individualistic cultures

People believe their primary responsibility is to themselves. (Responsible for yourself)

Collectivistic cultures

People believe their primary responsibility is to their families, communities, and employers. (Interested in groups success)

Low-context culture

People are expected to be direct and say what they mean. Direct, clear statements are valued

High-context culture

People are taught to speak in an indirect, inexplicit way. "Beat around the bush" or "talk around" the subject

Low-power distance

People believe that no one person or group should have excessive power. (Smaller distance)

High-power distance

Certain groups, such as the royal family of the members of the ruling political party, have much greater power than the average citizen. (Believe theres a significant difference within regular people)

Monochronic culture

People view time as a finite and tangible commodity. Save time, spend time, invest time, fill time, waste time, lose time, make time, "time is money"

Polychronic culture

People view time as fluid, holistic and infinite. Time is a never-ending river

Intensifying (Knapps stages)

Getting to know each other better

Integrating (Knapps stages)

Becoming joined at the hip

Bonding (Knapps stages)

Marriage, made of honor, best man

Healthiest ratio of positive to negative comments in a relationship

5:1

Gottman can predict divorce with _______ accuracy

90%

Contempt

sarcasm, cynicism, name-calling, eye-rolling, sheering, mockery, and hostile humor. Actions that convey disgust

Defensiveness example

"The problem isn't me, it's you."

Stonewalling

Ignoring your partner, being unresponsive to messages, not providing any feedback

Masculine culture

Ambition, achievement, acqusition of material good

Feminine culture

Nurturance, quality of life, service to others

Uncertainty avoidant cultures

People try to avoid situations that are unstructered, undear,or unpredictable. Drawn to familiarity, unlike taking risks, and tend to favor rules and laws.

Uncertainty accepting cultures

People are open to new situations and more accepting of people and ideas that are different from their own. "Live and let live."

Need to belong theory

Each of us is born with a drive to seek, form, maintain, and protect strong social relationships

4 main factors spark attraction

Appearance, proximity, similarity, complementarity

Uncertainty reduction theory

People find uncertainty to be unpleasant, so they are motivated to reduce their uncertainty by getting to know others. As uncertainty about a person decreases, liking for that person increases

Social exchange theory

People seek to maintain relationships in which their benefits outweigh the costs

Comparison level

A realistic expectation of what one wants and things are derives from a relationship

Comparison level of alternatives

As assessment of how much better or worse one's current relationship is that one's other options (start considering how else to spend your time)

Equity theory

A good relationship is one in which a persons ratio of costs and benefits is equal to his or her parents

Social penetration theory

The breadth and depth of self-disclosure help us learn about a person we're getting to know. Ex: The onion, trying to figure out the layers of people

Diaspora

Whole groups of people are displaced to new countries as they flee genocide or other untenable conditions or are taken forcefully against their will

Peacebuilding

Working toward stability in a region to prevent conflicts from escalating into war

Intercultural communication

Interactions between two people who are culturally different

Heterogeneous

Diverse

Border dwellers

People who live between cultures and often experience contradictory cultural patterns

Voluntary short-term travelers

People who are border dwellers by choice and for a limited time, such as study abroad students or corporate personnel

Voluntary long-term travelers

People who are border dwellers by choice and for an extended time, such as immigrants

Involuntary short-term travelers

People who are border dwellers not by choice and only for a limited time, such as refugees forced to move

4.5.8 manage devices

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

4.5.8_Manage_Devices

4.5.8 Manage Devices

Your Performance

Your Score: 4 of 4 (100%) Pass Status:

Pass

Elapsed Time:

1 minute 30 seconds

Required Score: 100%

Task Summary

Actions you were required to perform:

Safely remove the external hard driveShow Details

Connect the USB drive to the computer Update the network adapter driver Update the scanner driver

Explanation

In this lab, your task is to update the necessary drivers as follows:

Disconnect the external hard drive from the system. Be sure to use the correct procedure for removing the device.
Insert the USB drive in a free USB port. Verify that the system detects the device.
Update the driver for the network adapter using the driver on the USB drive.
Update the driver for the scanner by searching Windows Update for the new driver.

Complete this lab as follows:

Remove the external hard disk as follows:
1. On the monitor, select Click to view Windows 10 to enter the operating system view of the computer.
2. In the notification area, select ^ to show the hidden icons.
3. Select the removable device icon.
4. Select Eject USB DISK.
5. From the top navigation tabs, select Bench to switch to the hardware view to remove the external hard drive.
6. Above the external hard drive, select Back to switch to the back view of the hard drive.
7. Select the USB Type B 5-pin Mini Connector connected to the back of the external hard drive.
8. Drag the USB cable from the external hard drive and release the connector in the Workspace. This disconnects the cable while leaving the hard drive on the Workspace.
Connect the USB drive as follows:
1. Above the computer, select Back to switch to the back view of the computer.
2. On the Shelf, expand Storage Devices.
3. Drag the USB drive from the Shelf to the USB port on the back of the computer.
4. On the monitor, select Click to view Windows 10 to enter the operating system view of the computer.
Update the driver for the network adapter:
1. Right-click Start and select Device Manager to open Device Manager.
2. In Device Manager, expand Network adapters to update the network adapter driver.
3. Right-click Realtek 8169 and select Update Driver.
4. Select Browse my computer for driver software to use the driver on the USB drive.
5. Select Browse.
6. Select JumpDrive (E:).
7. Click OK.
8. Make sure Include subfolders is selected.
9. Select Next.
10. After the driver is installed, click Close.
Update the driver for the scanner:
1. Expand Imaging devices to update the scanner driver.
2. Right-click Mustek ScanExpress 1200 Pro and select Update driver.
3. Select Search automatically for updated driver software.
4. After the driver is installed, click Close.

2.1 3 Practice Looking at Colleges Online

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

pdf

2.1.3 Practice: Looking at Colleges Online Practice Assignment

College and Career Preparation II (2015) (S3445420) Daniel Smith

Points possible: 10 Date:

Visit the College Board website to do the College Matchmaker activity. Complete the following sections by placing a check mark in the boxes of your choice:
Fouryear versus twoyear colleges Public versus private
Size Setting

When you are done, click "See Results." Spend some time browsing through the results, and choose and list three colleges you are interested in. Then, write one sentence explaining what you like about each college. (4 points)
My first choice (which isnt on the list but in my head) would be UAA, university of alaska, I would have to pay relatively less money, i know how anchorage works so nothing would be new besides meeting new friends, and I love it here too much to leave.
My second choice would be University of southeast alaska, it’s cheap, it’s in alaska, its not a huge place which i like better
Third choice would be (to be honest just picked a random school because i never really thought about being out of alaska & i never liked being out of state) Northern state univiersity, for out of state residents its much cheaper than most, and it’s a small college
Browse through the list of colleges and click "See Profile" for each of the three colleges that you listed in your answer above. Using the profile, write down the name of each college and two things you learned about each college. (6 points)

University of alaska: it offers a variety of classes and its a large town with diversity

University of southeast alaska: primarily a commuter campus & surrounded by a lot of woods Northern state university: $10,000 financial aid, certification available for all degree programs

Office Green Operations & Training Risk Management Plan

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Data Science Exploration Financial Wellness

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Answer_Key___Financial_Wellness__Data_Science_Exploration__Post_Assessment

Answer Key for "Financial Wellness (Data Science Exploration) Post Assessment"

Generated on February 01, 2022

What do you need to write to create an automated process?

A correlation
A customer segmentation
An algorithm
An A/B test

In process improvement, an algorithm is commonly used to create

an automated process
An A/B test
Data mining
Sentiment analysis

Which is an example of an automated process?

When sentiment analysis tells you what customers think of a new service.
When a data analyst uses data mining.
When a data analyst reviews A/B testing results.
When a program sends messages to speciﬁc customers based on data.

A ﬁnancial institution wants to do A/B testing, with messages about linking checking and savings accounts. If their A group is customers who have both a checking and savings account, what should be their B group?

Former customers of the institution.
Customers who have high transactions.
Customers who have only checking or savings.
Customers who have more money in checking than savings.

A ﬁnancial institution did A/B testing, sending messages advertising a new type of savings account. Group A were customers who had few transactions per month.

Group B had many transactions per month. What are they trying to learn?

Whether customers with more savings are more likely to use the new type of savings account
Whether customers who make more transactions each month are more likely to use the new type of
savings account
Whether customers who use a new type of savings account are more likely to have more savings
Whether customers who use a new type of savings account are more likely to make more transactions each month

A ﬁnancial institution sent messages about strong ﬁnancial habits to two groups. Group A received the messages via email on a weekday morning. Group B received

the messages via the bank's app when they signed in. What was the institution trying to determine with their A/B testing?

The best method to reach their customers about ﬁnancial habits.
How many customers already had good ﬁnancial habits.
Whether a customer who used a banking app was likely to have strong ﬁnancial habits.
How many customers use email.

How can sentiment analysis be used to improve customer experience?

It can provide qualitative data about customers' preferences.
It can provide quantitative data about customers' preferences.
It can help automate processes for customers.
It can provide correlations between customers and types of products used.

What method can provide qualitative data about customers' experiences to help an organization improve?

Data mining
Customer segmentation
Correlation
Sentiment analysis

What kind of data can an institution gather from sentiment analysis to improve customer experience?

Quantitative data
Qualitative data
Data mining
Correlations

A ﬁnancial institution discovers a correlation between using an auto-transfer feature and better savings habits. How can they use that information to improve customer experience?

They can advertise their auto-transfer feature to people who aren't yet customers.
They can advertise checking accounts to their better saving customers.
They can suggest their auto-transfer feature to customers with lower savings.
They can suggest to customers with higher savings that they invest more.

A ﬁnancial institution discovers a positive correlation between poor budgeting skills and high debt. How can they use that information to improve their customer experience?

They can recommend their budgeting app to all customers.
They can recommend their budgeting app to new customers.
They can recommend their budgeting app to customers who have higher debt.
They can suggest to customers with higher debt that they use fewer credit cards.

A ﬁnancial institution discovers a positive correlation between better investment growth and diversiﬁcation. How can they use that information to improve their customer experience?

They can recommend that customers who have limited investments work with a ﬁnancial advisor to
diversify.
They can recommend to customers without investments that they start investing.
They can recommend to customers with diverse investments that they invest more.
They can recommend that new customers immediately start investing.

Why is data mining useful?

It is a way of grouping customers by characteristics.
It is a way to ﬁnd patterns in data.
It is a way to automate processes.
It is a way to gather sentiment analysis.

What does data mining help discover?

Patterns
Customer groups
How to automate processes
Sentiment analysis

What helps data scientists ﬁnd patterns in data?

Data cleaning
Automated processes
Customer surveys
Data mining

Data mining shows that when customers use a budgeting app, their savings are usually higher, their debt is usually lower, and they sometimes have student loans. What is correlated with using a budgeting app?

Higher savings
Higher debt
Higher savings, lower debt and student loans.
Higher savings and lower debt

Data mining shows that customers with many investments tend to have higher savings and customers with few investments tend to have lower savings. Various levels of debt were found across all types of investments. What is correlated with investments?

Diversiﬁcation
Savings
Debt
Savings and debt

Data mining shows that customers with high student loans tend to have credit card debt. They also tend to have low retirement accounts. What is correlated with student loans?

Credit card debt
retirement account balance
Credit card debt and retirement account balance
Nothing

What is customer segmentation?

The algorithm that allows an automated process.
The process of dividing a group of customers into smaller sub-groups, based on similarities within
the sub-groups.
The process of ﬁnding patterns within customer data.
The use of A/B testing to determine customer preferences.

What is the process of dividing a group of customers into smaller sub-groups, based on similarities within the sub-groups?

Customer segmentation
A/B testing
Sentiment analysis
Data mining

In customer segmentation, you divide groups of customers into smaller sub-groups based on

Preferences discovered during A/B testing
Sentiment analysis
Customer surveys
Similarities within the sub-groups

A ﬁnancial institution wants to know who is most likely to beneﬁt from a new type of savings account. Which is the best way to segment customers?

By what day they tend to use the institution's services.
By savings account usage and balance.
By how often they use the institution
By whether or not they invest

A ﬁnancial institution wants to know who is most likely to use their credit card. Which is the best way to segment customers?

By amount of debt
By number of credit cards
By amount of savings
By credit score

A ﬁnancial institution wants to know who is most likely to use an auto-transfer feature from checking to savings. Which is the best way to segment customers?

By savings account use
By checking account use
By both savings and checking account use
By amount of transactions each month

Which are common ﬁnancial obstacles faced by newly ﬁnancially independent adults?

Low savings accounts
High expenses to income ratio
Not enough savings and high expenses to income ratio
Too much money in retirement instead of savings

A high expenses to income ratio and low savings amount are

Common obstacles for newly ﬁnancially independent adults
Common obstacles for retired individuals
A sign of too much debt
A sign of ﬁnancial strength

Financial obstacles such as high expenses to income ratio and not enough savings can lead to

Low interest rates
High savings accounts
High credit score
Fewer ﬁnancial opportunities

A newly independent adult wants to increase the amount of money they have in their savings account. What should they consider?

Using a retirement match
Using auto-transfer from their checking to savings account
Diversifying their investments
Paying off their debt in full

A newly independent adult wants to grow their net worth faster. Which of these will help?

Consistently putting aside savings and having diversiﬁed investments
Putting more on credit instead of paying cash
Focusing on paying off all debt before saving
Putting more on credit instead of paying cash and consistently putting aside savings

A newly independent adult wants to decrease their debt. Which of these will help?

Use auto-transfer from checking to savings account
Use a retirement match
Spread purchases out over multiple credit cards
Use strategies to avoid emotional spending

Electronic Check In Terminals

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Exam_3_chapters_7__8__and_9

Check-In Check Out UNIT III EXAMINATION

(Chapters 7, 8, and 9)

Value 100 Points

T/F Questions: Enter either T for True or F for False. (Questions that are partially false should be marked False.) Value 1.5 point each.

F First-class hotels respond to every complaining guest with cash, comps or gifts, no matter how minor the complaint or how small the value of the settlement.
T The ethnic distribution (Caucasians, Blacks, Asians, etc.) of the lodging industry’s workforce is almost identical to the ethnic distribution of the American population.
T The authors define total quality management or customer service management as an attitude that has every employee acting like a concierge and thinking like a manager.
T The best quality guarantee is a specific one that has the hotel promising a specific act to be accomplished within specific guidelines (breakfast in 12 minutes) or else (no charge).
F For sheets to feel smooth and luxurious, the thread count must be less than 180 (80 threads in one direction; 100 in the other); otherwise they scratch.
T A Moment-of-Truth occurs when guest and staffer meet eyeball-to-eyeball; the one expecting service and the other delivering it.
F Because of the possibility of disease, family pets are allowed at only hotels that have been inspected and certified by local health departments as pet-friendly.
T Apologies are free so the hotel should offer as many as needed to soften a complaint.
T “Empowerment” is one of the major conflicts of employee-employer relationships: Unions demand it in contracts; management fights against it!
F To be accommodated on a “no-arrivals” day, a guest must have been overnight in the hotel on the previous day.
F As one would expect, RNA (Registered, Not Assigned) becomes more prevalent as the economic cycle dips.
F Q-ing (queuing) is the lodging industry’s professional jargon (term) for a guest who squiggles out of paying for the room by claiming either poor service or injury.
T “Front” is the tem given to the entire desk and reception areas of the hotel; some properties even include the lobby.
T Florida has no state income taxes which helps explain why Tampa and Miami, Florida have the nation’s highest room taxes.
F Heretofore hotels waited for a court order before releasing information about their guests; now – because of the anti-terrorism legislation – it can be done merely by a letter.
F Most hotels scatter tour group assignments to numerous floors throughout the hotel.
T Hotels do not enforce either time very stringently, but when they do, it is the check-out time, not the check-in time, that receives the most attention.
F Algorithms are among the newest amenity that up-to-date hotels are adding to their rooms and services.
F Only guests with light baggage, or no baggage at all, can be required to pay in advance for their accommodations.
F Recognizing the marketing and economic potential, American hotelkeepers have vigorously introduced environmental programs and lobbied for environmental legislation.
F The double room rate has always been twice the single rate; falling occupancies at the start of the new century forced management to reconsider this long-standing approach.
F Local governments that enact high lodging taxes on hotels room should expect to see a decline in tourist demand.
T Per diem room rates are established by federal, state and local governments and apply to government employees traveling on business for those political divisions
F The Ideal Average Room Rate is the average of the rates for the lowest tier of rooms in a hotel..
F It is unethical for hotel managers to telephone their own property to test departmental procedures and the courtesy of their staffs.
T “Discounting” rates is industry-approved because it takes place in an elastic market; “rate cutting” is industry-disapproved because it takes place in an inelastic market.
F Dynamic pricing allows the front desk to change the cost of the room upon check-in when the situation calls for it..
T High-demand days (New Year’s eve; Super Bowl, etc.) can be stretched to high-demand weekends or even 3-day affairs by requiring a minimum stay and refusing one-night reservations.
F Buying a good mattress, which has an 8-10 life, is poor management; better to buy a less expensive mattress and replace it more frequently.
T Two men sharing one room as part of a company seminar would need two registration cards; a married couple with children taking a three-bedroom suite would require just one registration card.
T Baggage-in/Baggage-out refers to the automatic charge that hotels levy on tour group baggage. 32. F Room rates have failed to keep up with inflation causing a fundamental industry problem.

Multiple Choice: Enter the one answer that best completes the thought.

A duvet is a:
1. Name given to the recently introduced job of sleep concierge
2. Second head in a “heavenly” shower
3. Washable cover that replaces the traditional bedspread d. Specially shaped bed pillow
  e. None of the above, “duvet” is a food term
A “road warrior” is someone:
1. Caught in a traffic jam
2. In military uniform asking for a discounted rate
3. Who sleeps away from home a great deal and battles the annoyances of travel
4. Secretly carrying out a shopping audit for the hotel
5. Both a and b depending on whether it is civilian or military slang
TQM (Total Quality Management):
1. Overlooks mistakes made by employees
2. Avoids the costs of technical training by hiring only skilled employees
3. Forbids discipline by supervisors
4. Does away with review and evaluation e. None of the above
Managing for guest service most requires:
1. GMs to re-activate their position as host
2. Ownership to take more participative action
3. Employees to recognize and act on their role
4. Guest to adopt electronic self-services e. All of these except a
The concierge floor is also called the: a. Club floor
1. Businesswoman’s floor
2. Upscale floor (but only by the staff; not known to the guests)
3. Queue-less floor
4. Both b and d
The one-time American Hotel & Motel Association (AH&MA) is now called the: a. American Hotel& Lodging Association (AH&LA)
1. American Hotel Association (AHA)
2. American Hotel and Lodging Association (AH&LA)
3. American Hospitality Association (AHA)
4. There has been no change, it is still called the American Hotel & Motel Association
Queue discipline:
1. Is administered to employees who ignore standing instructions
2. Deals with rules for merchants who sell the hotel housekeeping supplies c. Refers to the behavior exhibited by guests waiting in line
  d. Is a financial penalty levied on managers who miss targeted goals
  e. None of these
A rooming slip is a means of communication between the:
1. Desk and the bellperson
2. Guest and the housekeeper
3. Bellperson and the guest
4. Desk and the guest e. All of these except b
RNA is used:
1. When guests arrive early and their rooms are not yet vacated
2. To charge guests who leave earlier than their anticipated departure date
3. If the guest is not satisfied with the hotel’s response to a complaint
4. To indicate a reservation with an assigned res number has been canceled
5. All of the above because the practice is not standardized across the industry
Electronic check-in terminals:
1. Are talked about a great deal but are not often available
2. Must be located within 100 feet of the computer terminals behind the desk c. Are more popular with experience travelers than with inexperienced travelers
  d. Still lack the personal security that transient hotels should deliver
  e. Both a and d
Assigning a guest better accommodations at no increase in rate is:
1. Upselling
2. Upping it c. Upgrading
  d. Up-assigning
  e. All of the above; a professional idiom that depends on the section of the country
Elasticity is a change in:
1. Supply resulting from a change in rate
2. Rate resulting from a change in supply
3. Demand resulting from a change in rate
4. Rate resulting from a change in demand e. Both a and d
Which of the following is out-of-place with the rest of the set?
1. Day rate
2. Shoulder rate
3. Use rate
4. Part-day rate
5. None of the above; that is, they all refer to the same rate
Among the surprising surcharges that some hotels have added to their room rates are:
1. Energy premiums
2. In-room coffee
3. Early departure (before the date specified by the reservation) fees
4. Complimentary newspaper fees e. All of the above
The Building Cost (Room) Rate:
1. Is simply a rule-of-thumb, a frequently quoted yardstick for room rates
2. Works out to be $1 per $1,000 in construction costs
3. Includes land improvements (landscaping, for example) as part of building costs
4. Translates into larger-sized rooms requiring higher room rates e. All of the above except d
Regarding room rates:
1. New York City has the world’s highest ADR
2. Upselling produces its most dramatic effects on sold-out days
3. Resort hotels have used incentive rates successfully to get leisure guests to check out early d. Conventions are often charged the same for single or double occupancy
  e. All of the above except a
The iceberg effect of complaints means that:
1. Resolved complaints are costly, but no one knows by how much
2. Many complaints are not voiced and therefore not resolved
3. Management pretends to resolve issues for which there are numerous complaints
4. No one knows how many complaints are resolved by quality guarantees e. Both a and d
If registration lines are long and irritating, management should consider doing what?
1. Adding directional signs
2. Increasing the number and character of the staff
3. Creating distractions (clowns, for example) in the lobby
4. Redesigning the physical structure of the front desk e. All of the above
The ADA is the:
1. Allied Directors of America, an important national convention that every city seeks b. Americans with Disabilities Act, designed to help the handicapped get around
  1. A Damned Angry movement, effort to get employees to be more guest sensitive
  2. Articles against Dopey Attitudes, lodging’s industrywide drive to promote TQM
  3. None of the above
To make “empty minutes” pass quickly for guests waiting in line:
1. Post a sign telling how long before the end is reached
2. Show video clips on an overhead monitor
3. Build a front-desk attraction; a big aquarium for example
4. Have an employee “work” the line e. All of the above
“The room rate should be high enough to meet fixed and variable expenses and return a fair value to investors” is a statement associated with the:
1. Cost of Renovation rate
2. Rule of Thumb room rate calculation
3. Ideal Average Room Rate computation d. Hubbart Room Rate Formula
  e. All of the above
Comp rates are given to:
1. VIPs
2. Travel agents on fam trips
3. High rollers in casino hotels
4. Other hotel managers e. All of the above

what tests/algorithms are shared between statistics and machine learning

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

What tests/algorithms are shared between statistics and machine...

What tests/algorithms are shared between statistics and machine learning?

A. Bayes, decision trees, neural networks

B. Linear regression, logistic regression, neural networks

C. Bayes, linear regression, logistic regression

D. Linear regression, logistic regression, decision trees

The correct answer is D.

Linear regression, logistic regression, decision trees.

The test/algorithms which are shared between statistics and machine learning include;

Linear regression.
Random forest.
kNN.
K-Means.
Logistic regression.
Dimensionality Reduction Algorithms.
Naive Bayes
SVM.
Decision tree.
Gradient Boosting algorithms.

Step-by-step explanation

Reference

Ray, S. (2020, September 9). Commonly used machine learning algorithms (with Python and R codes). Analytics Vidhya. https://www.analyticsvidhya.com/blog/2017/09/common-machine-learning-algorithms/

IS3110 Part-A and B Lab 4 performing a qualitative risk assessment for an it infrastructure

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Part_A_and_B_Lab_4_Perform_a_Qualitative_Risk_Assessment_for_an_IT_Infrastructure

ITT-Technical Institute, West Palm Beach, FL

Part-A Lab #4 Perform a Qualitative Risk Assessment for an IT Infrastructure Part-B Lab #4 Perform a Qualitative Risk Assessment for an IT Infrastructure IS3110 Risk Management in Information Technology Security

October 18, 2014

Part-A

1. Healthcare provider under HIPPA compliance law.

2.

Risk – Threat - Vulnerability	Primary Domain Impacted	Risk Impact/Factor
Unauthorized access from public Internet	WAN	1
User destroys data in application and deletes all files	User	2
Hackers penetrates your IT infrastructure and gain access to your internal network	LAN	1
Intra-office employee romance gone bad	User	3
Fire destroys primary data center	System/Application	1
Service provider SLA is not achieved	WAN
User destroys data in application and deletes all files	Workstation	2
Unauthorized access to

organization owned workstations	Workstation	3
Loss of production data	System/Application	2
Denial of service attack on organization DMZ and e-mail server	System/Application	1
Remote communication from home office	Remote Access	3
LAN server OS has a known software vulnerability	LAN	1
User downloads and clicks on an unknown	User	3
Workstation browser has software vulnerability	Workstation	2
Mobile employee needs secure browser access to sales order entry system	User	3
Service provider has a major network outage	WAN	1
Weak ingress/egress traffic filtering degrades performance	LAN	3
User insert CDs and USB hard drives with personal photos, music, and videos on organization owned computers	User	3
VPN tunneling between remote computer and ingress/egress router is needed	Remote Access	2
WLAN access points are needed for LAN connectivity within a warehouse	LAN-to-WAN	2
Need to prevent eavesdropping on WLAN due to customer privacy data access	LAN-to-WAN	3
DoS/DDoS attack from the WAN/Internet	WAN	1

3.

User Domain Risk Impacts: 5
Workstation Domain Risk Impacts: 3
LAN Domain Risk Impacts: 2
LAN-to-WAN Domain Risk Impacts: 2
WAN Domain Risk Impact: 4
Remote Access Domain Risk Impact: 2
Systems/Applications Domain Risk Impacts: 3

4. The finding of the risk assessments is to inform your organization of the following risks, threats, and vulnerabilities that were found within the organization. The findings of this assessment was there were issues with all of the seven domains of the IT infrastructure the User Domain Risk Impacts was about five; Workstation Domain Risk Impacts was about three; LAN Domain Risk Impacts were about two; LAN-to-WAN Domain Risk Impacts were about two; WAN Domain Risk Impact were about four; Remote Access Domain Risk Impact were about two; and Systems/Applications Domain Risk Impacts were about two. These risk, threats and vulnerabilities that were found within your IT infrastructure ranged from the critical to the minor in nature. These risk, threats and vulnerabilities will be discussed later in more detail within this summary of my finds for your organization.

The following risks, threats and vulnerabilities were found to within the organization of these there were six with a rating critical; unauthorized access from public Internet; fire destroys primary data center; denial of service attack on organization DMZ and e-mail server; Hackers penetrates your IT infrastructure and gain access to your internal network; service provider has a major network outage; LAN server OS has a known software vulnerability and DoS/DDoS attack from the WAN/Internet. These critical range risks, threats and vulnerabilities need to be

addressed first before any others. There needs to be plans put into motion to address these issues start with IT department and the way up to upper management. The following risks, threats and vulnerabilities were found to within the organization of these there were five with a rating major; user destroys data in application and deletes all files; user destroys data in application and deletes all files; loss of production data; workstation browser has software vulnerability; VPN tunneling between remote computer and ingress/egress router is needed and WLAN access points are needed for LAN connectivity within a warehouse. These critical range risks, threats and vulnerabilities need to be addressed second before any others. There needs to be plans put into motion to address these issues start with IT department and the way up to upper management. Minor range risks, threats and vulnerabilities need to be addressed second before any others. There needs to be plans put into motion to address these issues start with IT department and the way up to upper management.

The findings of the assessment found that there was sufficient impact on all of the IT domains for this organization. Some of these risks, threats and vulnerabilities could have a negative impact on organization resulting in loss of data, profits and company integrity.

The next steps would be to address the critical issues first base on the impact to the IT network of the organization and weighting the cost of these issues.

Part-B

What is the goal or objective of an IT risk assessment?

It’s used to identify and evaluate risks based on an analysis of threats and vulnerabilities to assets. Risks are quantified based on their importance or impact severity. These risks are then prioritized.
Why is it difficult to conduct a qualitative risk assessment for an IT infrastructure?

This is based on the probability and impact of a risk. It is not based on dollar values; it instead is done by gathering opinions of experts. They could all have a different opinion or priority which could cause an issue.
What was your rationale in assigning “1” risk impact/risk factor value of “Critical” for an identified risk, threat, or vulnerability?
1 was given to a risk, threat or vulnerability that impacts compliance and places the organization in a position of increased liability.
When you assembled all of the “1” and “2” and “3” risk impact/ risk factor values to the identified risks, threats and vulnerabilities, how did you prioritize the “1”, “2” and “3” risk element? What would you say to executive management in regards to your final recommended prioritization?
First I did it by category, the 1’s, 2’s then 3’s. Then I prioritized them within that category. I prioritized them within the category by which ones I thought would have the biggest impact. They should be approached in a top to bottom manner as the list has been sorted twice.
Identify a risk mitigation solution for each of the following risk factors:

User downloads and clicks on an unknown e-mail attachment- Disconnect the workstation from the network, then run a virus scan to check for issues and make fixes, then provide training to the employee on email polices.

Workstation OS has known software vulnerability- Find the patch to fix the vulnerability and push it out to all workstations.

Need to prevent eavesdropping on WLAN due to customer privacy data access- First a password needs to be set on the Wi-Fi. Next the Wi-Fi can be hidden so that only someone that knows the exact name can pull it up. The distance that the Wi-Fi extends to should not exceed the exterior walls. Depending on how many devices are allowed access, MAC filtering can also be set up.

Weak ingress/egress traffic filtering degrades performance- New filtering methods need to be implemented.

DoS/DDoS attack from the WAN/Internet- Make sure there is a firewall in place, have it set up so that after 3 failed attempts to lock out that IP, or a third party software can be purchased to monitor DoS attacks.

Remote access from home office- I will use digital certificate technology to simplify the authentication process required to establish multiple IP tunnels. I can use IPsec VPN or SSL VPN. Delete staff remote access privileges once they are not needed,

Production server corrupts database- You can increase the performance of your external firewall. Although there are viruses that are undetected, which means if your server becomes corrupted, then you would have to rely on backups. That means backing up more frequently.

CS432 Ransomware is defined as unwanted and unrequested email

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Ransomware is defined as unwanted and unrequested email.

FALSE

Which of the following is a Firewall, proxy, and routing service that does NOT support caching, encryption endpoint, or load balancing? Note that this service can be found on almost any service or device that supports network address translation.

Port forwarding

When a Firewall functions at wire speed, the firewall does not introduce any delay or latency in communications because it operates at the same speed as the network.

TRUE

The network infrastructure supervisor is designing a Firewall placement strategy that will protect the organization's Internet-facing web and email servers and the internal network. Which design will provide the best protection?

Using two Firewalls to create a demilitarized zone (DMZ); one Firewall is placed between the Internet and the servers; the other Firewall is located behind the first Firewall and the servers protecting the internal network

Spoofing tricks, a user or a host into believing a communication originated from somewhere other than its real source.

TRUE

A Firewall is a filtering device that watches for traffic that fails to comply with rules defined by the Firewall administrator. What does the Firewall inspect?

Packet header

CIT 1640 5.3.5 Configure a Perimeter Firewall

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Complete this lab as follows:

1. Sign in to the pfSense management console.

a. In the Username field, enter admin.

b. In the Password field, enter P@ssw0rd (zero).

c. Select SIGN IN or press Enter.

2. Create and configure a firewall rule to pass HTTP traffic from the WAN to the Web server in theDMZ.

a. From the pfSense menu bar, select Firewall > Rules.

b. Under the Firewall breadcrumb, select DMZ.

c. Select Add (either one).

d. Make sure Action is set to Pass.

e. Under Source, use the drop-down to select WAN net.

f. Under Destination, use the Destination drop-down to select Single host or alias.

g. In the Destination Address field, enter 172.16.1.5.

h. Using the Destination Port Range drop-down, select HTTP (80).

i. Under Extra Options, in the Description field, enter HTTP from WAN to DMZ.

j. Select Save.

k. Select Apply Changes.

Full Sail Orientation Test Answers

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

AC 330 Balance Sheet example wileyplus

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Balance Sheet example wileyplus

Capshaw Consulting Group Excel

April 24, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Capshaw Consulting Group Excel

SAM -Excel - Module 4 - Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice

Cell Protection

Ensures that users do not change values inadvertently that are critical to the worksheet.

Name

A cell ____ often is created from column or row titles.

Amortization Schedule

Shows the beginning and ending balances and the amount of payment that is applied to the principal and interest during each payment period.

Borders

A cell ___ can be used to distinguish the different functional parts of a worksheet.

Unprotected

If you wish to allow another worksheet user to be able to manipulate some cells, leave those cells ____.

Name

Rather than manually setting a print area each time you want to print a range, you can ____ the range.

Function which returns the present value of an annuity.

(VIEW tab | Window Group)

To hide an entire workbook on an unattended computer, click the Hide button on the ____.

Hide

To prevent sensitive data from being seen in a worksheet, you can hide the worksheet by clicking ____ on the shortcut menu.

CTRL

To select noncontiguous ranges, after selecting the first range, hold down the ____ key an drag through the additional ranges of cells to select them.

Protect

When building a worksheet for novice users, you should ____ the cells in the worksheet that you do not want changed, such as cells that contain text or formulas.

(HOME tab | Font group)

Path to the Borders button

(HOME tab | Styles group)

Path to the Cell Style button

(FORMULAS tab | Function Library group)

Path to the Financial button and the PMT function

(FORMULAS tab | Defined Names group)

Path to the Name Manager button

(REVIEW tab | Changes group)

Path to the Protect Sheet button

Format cells

You can add and format a range border by right-clicking the selected range and clicking ____ on the resulting shortcut menu.

Page

You can scale a worksheet so that it will fit on one page with an option on the ____ tab in the Page Setup dialog box.

Password

You should create a(n) ____ when you want to keep others from changing the worksheet from protected to unprotected.

Data Table

You use a(n) ____ to automate data analyses.

which legacy practice slows the move to lean portfolio management

April 19, 2023 Dwayne Morise

SPC_SAFe_4.6

What are two primary reasons to change?
- - A burning platform
- - The company is failing to complete and the existing way of working is inadequate to achieve a new solution in time.
Proactive leadership
- - In the absence of a burning platform, leadership must create the sense of urgency to proactively drive change by taking a stand for a better, future state
Why should you establish the vision for change?
- - Without a good vision, a clever strategy or logical plan can rarely inspire the kind of action needed to produce major change.
www.scaledagileframework.com/invitation-based-safe-implementation/ -
Little's Law -
When you find a value stream, go all in and all at once for each ART. The one- week launch is proven adoption model.
- - Quickstart approach to ART Launch
  1. SAFe for Teams
    1. Monday, Tuesday
  2. PI Planning
    1. Wednesday, Thursday
  3. Workshops
    1. Friday
Three benefits of Big Room Training
- Accelerated learning
- A common scaled Agile paradigm
- Cost efficiency
What is the importance of the first PI Planning?
- First Impression of SAFe
- Generating a short-term win
- Builds the Art as a team
- Teaches teams about assuming responsibility for planning and delivery
- Creates visibility into the program
- Creates confidence in the commitment of Lean-Agile Leaders to the transformation
Things to remember when prepping for distributed team PI Planning
- 1. Have a dedicated facilitator and tech support person at each location
- Test Audio, video, and presentation-sharing connectivity, and then test it again
- Have a common understanding of how plans will be shared (video, wiki, email, etc)
- Establish team- based audio/video communication for breakout sessions.
What type of PI Planning agenda is recommended for large time zone differences ?
- 2.5 days, following respect people and cultures, we want to avoid asking teams to stay up all night
What does train the leaders do?
- Helps them create the mindset they need to empower employees for further action
What does training the stakeholders do?
- Gives the Stakeholders the skills and motivation the need to change the organization.
Which is the most important ART to launch?
i. the first one.
What does the ART as a team of teams do?
- removes Silos that inhibit flow
What can you find in the ART readiness workbook?
- Readiness Checklist
- Team Summary
- Team Roster
- Program Roster
- Content
- Facilities
- Supplies
What is the next step once the Lean-Agile change Agents have been trained?
- Train Executives, Managers, Leaders
What do you do after Executives, Managers, and leaders have been trained?
- Identify the Value steams.
What is the next step after the value stream has been identified?
- Create the implementation Plan
What happens after the implementation plan has been created?
- Prepare for Art Launch. Train Scaled Agile(Leading SAFe), POPM, SSM.
What is the step that follows Preparing for the ART launch?
- Train Teams and launch the ART
Once the teams have been trained what is the next step?
- Coach ART Execution
Once you have coached Art execution what do you do next?
- Launch more ARTS and Value streams
What is the step after Launching more ARTS and value streams?
- Extend to the Portfolio
What do you do once you have extended to the Portfolio?
- Sustain and improve
What are the SAFe Core Values?
- Alignment
- Transparency
- Built-in-Quality
- Program execution
  
  26. Alignment =
- This Provides the relevant briefings and participate in Program Increment (PI)) Planning.
- Helps with backlog visibility, review, and preparation
- Helps with Value Stream organization and coordination
- Constantly check for understanding
- Communicate the mission, visions and strategy at every opportunity
  
  27. Transparency =
- Visualize all relevant work
- Take ownership and responsibility for errors and mistakes
- Admit your own mistakes
- Support other who acknowledge and learn from their mistakes-never punish the messenger

Built-in quality
- Demonstrate quality by refusing to accept or ship low quality work
- Support investments in capacity planning for maintenance and reduction of technical debt
- Ensure UX, Architecture, operations, security, compliance, and other are part of flow of work.
Program Execution
- Participate as an active business owner in PI execution
- Celebrate high quality and predictability delivered program Increments
- Aggressively remove impediments and demotivates
What are the four pillars of the house of lean?
- Flow
- Respect for people and culture
- Innovation
- Relentless Improvement
What is the foundation of the house of lean?
- Leadership
What is the roof of the house of lean?
- Value
People do all the work. Your Customer is whoever consumes your work
- -Don't Overload them
- -Don't make them wait
- -Don't force them to do wasteful work
- -Don't impose wishful thinking
- build long-term partnerships based on trust
- Culture change comes last, not first
- To change culture change the organization - Respect for people and culture
Flow
- Optimize continuous and sustainable throughput for value
- build in quality; flow depends on it
- Understand, exploit, and mange variability
- Avoid start-stop-start project delays
- Use informed-decision making via fast feedback
Innovation
- Producers innovate; customers validate
- Get out of the office
- Provide time and space for creativity
- Apply innovation accounting
- Pivot without mercy or guilt
Relentless Improvement
- A constant sense of danger
- Optimize the whole
- Consider facts carefully, then act quickly
- Apply lean tools to identify and address root causes
- Reflect at key milestones; identify and address shortcomings –
Value
- Shortest sustainable lead time.
- Best quality and value to people and society.
- High morale, safety, customer delight - Value
Leadership
- Management applies and teaches Lean-Agile thinking, based decisions on this long-term philosophy.
Principles of lean-Agile Thinking – Agile Manifesto
- Individual and interactions – over processes and tools
- Working software - over comprehensive documentation
- Customer collaboration - over contract negotiation
- Responding to change - over following a plan
What is the first SAFe Lean-Agile Principle? –
- Take an economic view
What is the second SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Apply Systems thinking
What is the third SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Assume Variability, preserve options
What is the fourth SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Build incrementally with fast, integrated learning cycles
What is the fifth SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Based milestones on objective evaluation of working systems
What is the sixth SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Visualize and limit WIP, reduce batch sizes, and manage queue length
What is the seventh SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Apply cadence, synchronize with cross-domain planning
What is the eight SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Unlock the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers
What is the nineth SAFe Lean-Agile Principle?
- - Decentralize decision-making
Why the focus on principles?
- A lean-Agile transformation will deliver substantial benefits
- However, it is a significant change and every implementation is different
- Leaders should understand why the practices work; its part of knowing what it is they do
- If a practice need to change, understanding the principles will assure the change moves the moves the enterprise in the right direction
What are the Five primary dimensions of Built-In Quality?
- Flow
- Architecture & Design Quality
- Code Quality
- System Quality
- Release Quality
Once you have launched the ART, what is the next step?
- Showcase the success.
- showcase that the ART is meeting its PI objective s and relentlessly improving its program performance.
- Invite stakeholders and showcase the success of the team demos and system demo
- communicate real wins not gimmicks
- provide ongoing program consulting and team coaching to build the organizations lean-Agile capabilities.
Is inspect and adapt qualitative or quantitative?
- Quantitative?
What are the three parts to inspect and adapt?
- PI system Demo of the solution's current state to program stakeholders
Quantitative measurement
- Retrospective and problem solving workshop
What are the four budget guardrails on Lean Budget spend?
1. Guiding investments by horizon
2. Optimizing value and solution integrity with capacity allocation
3. Approving significant initiatives
4. Continuous Business Owner engagemen
What is the recommended way to express a Feature?
Story Points
** How is the flow of Portfolio Epics managed?
In the Portfolio Kanban
What is a Minimal Viable Product?
A minimal product that can validate a hypothesis
** In the Program Kanban some steps have Work-in-Process limits. Why is this necessary?
To help continuous deployment and increase flow
When does a Roadmap become a queue?
When it is longer than one Program Increment
What is one of the Agile Release Train sync meetings?
Scrum of Scrums
Which statement describes aspects of the team's commitment during PI Planning? A team does not commit to stretch objectives
What is the recommended frequency for updating Lean budget distribution? On demand (fund Value Streams, not projects)
What must management do for a successful Agile transformation?
Commit to quality and be the change agent in the system
What is one component of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline?
Continuous Exploration Continuous Integration Continuous Deployment
Which statement fits with the SAFe Core Value of Built-in Quality?
You cannot scale crappy code
What is considered an anti-pattern when assigning business values to Team PI Objectives?
Business Owners assign high values to important enabler work
What is SAFe's release strategy? Release on demand
What can be used as a template for putting SAFe into practice within an organization? SAFe Implementation Roadmap
What is a valid reason for moving a PI objective to stretch?
The team is unsure how to estimate the related stories using story points? The team has high uncertainty about a third-party delivery needed for the objective
The Agile Release Train uses which type of teams to get work done?
- Cross-functional teams
What is one benefit of unlocking the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers? To provide autonomy with purpose, mission, and minimum constraints
Which practice helps with a test-first mentality? BDD
Which statement accurately characterizes Strategic Themes? They are business objectives that connect the SAFe Portfolio to the Enterprise business strategy
What can be used to map the current state of a portfolio?
Portfolio Canvas
What is the biggest benefit of decentralized decision-making?
Delivering value in the shortest sustainable lead time
What are the 5 core competency of Lean Enterprise?
Lean Portfolio Management
Business Solutions and Lean Systems Engineering DevOps and Release on Demand
Team and Technical Agility Lean-Agile Leadership
Which core competency of the Lean Enterprise helps drive built-in quality practices?
- Team and Technical Agility
What is an example of applying cadence-based synchronization in SAFe?
- Teams align their iterations to the same schedule to support communication, coordination, and system integration
What are the last three steps of the SAFe Implementation Roadmap?
Launch more Agile Release Trains and Value Streams,
extend to the portfolio, sustain and improve
When is a Pre-PI Planning event needed?
When multiple Agile Release Trains working on the same Solution need to align and coordinate
On day two of PI Planning, management presents adjustments based on the previous day's management review and problem solving meeting. What is one possible type of adjustment they could make?
- Business priorities
Product Management has content authority over the Program Backlog. What do Product Owners have content authority over?
- Team Backlog
Which statement is true when continuously deploying using a DevOps model?
- It lessens the severity and frequency of release failures
What are the four budget guardrails?
- Guiding investments by horizon
- Optimizing value and solution integrity with capacity allocation
- Approving significant initiatives
- Continuous Business Owner engagement
What is one guardrail on Lean budget spend?
- Continuous Business Owner engagement
On day two of PI Planning, management presents adjustments based on the previous day's management review and problem-solving meeting. What is one possible type of adjustment they could make?
- Business priorities
** What is the last step in Kotter's approach to change management?
Anchor new approaches in the culture
What are Kotter's 8-Step Change Model?
Step 1: Create Urgency
Step 2: Form a Powerful Coalition Step 3: Create a Vision for Change Step 4: Communicate the Vision Step 5: Remove Obstacles
Step 6: Create Short-Term Wins Step 7: Build on the Change
Step 8: Anchor the Changes in Corporate Culture
What are the 12 Principles Behind the Agile Manifesto?
1. Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
2. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer's competitive advantage.
3. Deliver working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference to the shorter timescale.
4. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project.
5. Build projects around motivated individuals. Give them the environment and support they need, and trust them to get the job done.
6. The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.
7. Working software is the primary measure of progress.
8. Agile processes promote sustainable development. The sponsors, developers, and users should be able to maintain a constant pace indefinitely.
9. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility.
10. Simplicity-the art of maximizing the amount of work not done-is essential.
11. The best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self- organizing teams.
12. At regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its behavior accordingly.
Which statement is a principle of the Agile manifesto?
Simplicity--the art of maximizing the amount of work not done--is essential
** What is a valid reason for moving a PI objective to stretch?
The team has high uncertainty about a third-party delivery needed for the objective
When basing decisions on economics, how are lead time, product cost, value, and development expense used?
+To identify different parameters of the economic framework
The 12 Steps in SAFe Implementation Roadmap:
1. Reaching the Tipping Point
2. Train Lean-Agile Change Agents
3. Train Executives, Managers, and Leaders
4. Create a Lean-Agile Center of Excellence
5. Identify Value Streams and ARTs
6. Create the Implementation Plan
7. Prepare for ART Launch
8. Train Teams and Launch the ART
9. Coach ART Execution
10. Launch More ARTs and Value Streams
11. Extend to the Portfolio
12. Sustain and Improve
What is the connection between feedback and optimum batch size?
- Small batch sizes enable faster feedback with lower transaction costs
What is one key reason for keeping the test data for automated tests under version control?
- If test data gets out of sync, automated tests may not properly execute
What is the primary goal of decentralized decision-making?
- Enable faster flow of value
What does SAFe® Principle #3, "Assume variability; preserve options," enable?
- Better economic results
What is a result of shorter queue lengths?
Less variability
Which statement is most accurate about the Program Vision?
It expresses the strategic intent of the Program
What Definition of Done is required for the Iteration Review?
- Team Increment
  
  What is the primary purpose of Strategic Themes?
  Connect the portfolio to the enterprise business strategy

An Epic spanning two PIs was approved for implementation. What is the optimum implementation path from a Lean-Agile perspective?
- Demonstrate the progress to key stakeholders after first PI and make a decision how to proceed with the Epic in the second PI
What backlog items are part of the Solution Backlog?
- Capabilities
Why do Lean-Agile Leaders try to connect the silos of business, system engineering, hardware, software, test, and quality assurance?
– To align around value
Which statement describes one element of the CALMR approach to DevOps? - Establish a work environment of shared responsibility

Which statement is true about Work-In-Process (WIP) limits?

- Lower limits improve flow [4-5]

What replaces detailed requirements documents? - User Stories

Which two statements describe the responsibilities of the Product Owner? (Choose two.) - Single voice for customer and stakeholders, and to own and manage team backlog [2-15, 2-17]

implementing quality in Lean-Agile environment - Culture

What is an example of a Program event? - Scrum of Scrums

What is the goal of the SAFe House of Lean model? - Value [1-28]

Which responsibility belongs to the Product Owner in the team? To sequence backlog items to program priorities, events, and dependencies

Which two views does the Iteration Review provide into the Program? (Choose two.) - How the team is doing in the Program Increment, and how the team did on the iteration (sprint) [4-38]

What is an example of a modified Fibonacci sequence? - ...5, 8, 13, 20, 40...

What is the benefit of separating release elements from the Solution?

- It allows the release of different Solution elements at different times

The Agile Release Train aligns teams to a common mission using a single Vision and what else? - The Program Backlog [2-21]

The "3 Cs" is a popular guideline for writing user stories. What does each of the three C's represent? (Choose three.) - Card (WIT, Feature, User Story), Conversation (Acceptance Criteria), and Confirmation (Acceptance) [3-10]

What is the role of the System Architect/Engineer? - To guide the teams and support the Architectural Runway [2-21]

What is typically included in the Definition of Done for the team increment? - Stories are accepted by the Product Owner [4-37]

The Inspect and Adapt event always starts with which activity? - The PI System Demo [5-38]

When should a component team be used - To obtain high reuse and technical specialization with a focus on Non-functional Requirements.

Iteration Planning, Iteration Review, and Backlog Refinement are examples of which type of event? - Team events [5-31]

Which factor helps unlock the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers? - Autonomy [2-4]

Which practices are demonstrated during the Inspect and Adapt event? - Reflect, problem solve, and identify improvement actions

Which statement describes a cadence-based PI Planning event? - It is an all-hands, two day event with the goal to identify impediments that could happen [5-4]

Which statement is true about Iteration planning for Kanban teams? -

Kanban teams publish Iteration Goals [3-33]

Which concepts are part of Kanban for teams? - Visualize work flow, limit WIP, improve flow [1-52]

What is one of the typical Kanban class of service for Agile Teams? - Funnel

Why is the modified Fibonacci sequence used when estimating? - It reflects the uncertainty in estimating larger items

A Cumulative Flow Diagram focuses on which curves? - Arrival curve ("to-do") and Departure curve ("done")

What is the recommended size of an Agile Team? - 5-9 people (7 +/- 2) but 5-11 on test

SAFe Core Values - Built-in Quality, Alignment, Program Execution, and Transparency

What is the role of the Scrum Master? - To act as a servant leader who helps teams self-organize, self-manage, and deliver using effective Agile practices

What are two reasons Agile development is more beneficial than waterfall development? (Choose two.) - It allows businesses to deliver value to the market more quickly

It increases productivity and employee engagement

If the PI System Demo shows the current state of the Solution, then who is this demo intended for? - The Business Owners

Which statement is true about the PI Planning event? - Everyone in the program over two day period

Goal of SAFe House of Lean model - Value

How does relentless improvement support value in the SAFe House of Lean? - It optimizes the whole

What is the purpose of the Iteration Review? - To measure the team's progress by showing working Stories to the stakeholders and getting feedback from them

An Agile Team collects the Iteration metrics they have agreed upon during which part of the team retrospective? - During the quantitative part of the team retrospective [4-40]

What is the role of the Release Train Engineer? - 1. To coach teams to improve their results

2. To serve as the Scrum Master for the Agile Release Train

How can a technical exploration enabler be demonstrated? - Show the knowledge gained by the exploration [3-11]

Which three questions should each team member answer during the Daily Stand-up? (Choose three.) - What did I do yesterday to advance the Iteration goals?

What will I do today to advance the Iteration goals?

Are there any impediments that will prevent the team from meeting the Iteration goals? [4-30]

Which practice promotes built-in quality? - TDD

What are the four levels of the Scaled Agile Framework? - Team, Program, Large Solution, Portfolio [1-15]

What visibility should Scrum Masters provide during the Agile Release Train Sync? - Visibility into progress and impediments

Which statement reflects one of the steps for setting initial velocity? - The team members assess their availability, acknowledging time off and other potential duties [3-23]

Which activity is key to successfully implementing the Scaled Agile Framework? - Use a cadence-based PI Planning process

Jane is a Product Owner. It is day seven of the Iteration and her team tells her that they may miss their Iteration commitment. What should Jane do? - Support pulling a story that has not been started.

Quality is first and foremost a function of what in a Lean-Agile environment? - Culture of shared responsibility [4-22]

What are the Five Core Competencies of the Lean Enterprise introduced by SAFe 4.6? –

Lean-Agile Leadership
Team and Technical Agility
DevOps and Release on Demand
Business Solutions and Lean Systems Engineering 5. Lean Portfolio Management

On the seventh day of the iteration, the team realizes that they will not complete 5 of 13 Stories. The Product Owner (PO) says she cannot negotiate the scope of the remaining Stories any further. What is the PO's best course of action? - Stop the current iteration and plan new iteration with new knowledge

What is the major benefit of reducing batch size? - Increases throughput

What is one responsibility of the Scrum Master? - To remove impediments in order to help protect the team

Which statement is true about Features and Stories? - Features can be larger than an Iteration, but Stories should be small enough to fit into an iteration. Each Feature should have at least five stories.

What best supports Innovation in the SAFe House of Lean? - Fast learning cycles

What information does Cumulative Flow Diagram provide? - The data for the team to identify current bottlenecks

Which two statements describe Agile Release Train - 1. It is the primary value delivery construct in the Scaled Agile Framework

2. It is long lived, self-organizing, virtual organization of 5-12 Agile Teams that plan, commit and execute

Which statement defines the purpose of Iteration Planning? - It is to organize the work and define a realistic scope for the Iteration

A decrease in variability leads to an increase in what? - Predictability

What are two behaviors of an effective Scrum Master? - 1. To facilitate the team's progress towards the Iteration goals

2. To act as a servant leader and exhibit Lean-Agile leadership

Which statement describes the balance between emergent design and intentional architecture when talking about building quality? - It is required for speed of value and solution intent

What is one recommended way of splitting Features into Stories during a PI Planning event? - Implement the simplest variant of the functionality first them implement the rest as an enhancement

Which statement describes the event that occurs at the end of each Iteration to identify the team's opportunities for continuous improvement? - The Iteration Retrospective

What should be taken into account when estimating Story point size?

- Complexity

Product Management is responsible for "what gets built" as defined by the Vision, Roadmap, and what else? - Program backlog

Which statement is true about Iteration Planning? - It is required for every Iteration to enable fast learning cycles

What are three practices of Extreme Programming (XP)? - 1. Pair Programming

Continuous Integration
Test-driven Development

The Scrum Master wants to establish a team's initial velocity. A team has two testers, three developers, one full-time Scrum Master, and a Product Owner split between two teams. What is their normalized velocity before calculating time off? - 40

What is one key benefit of a Backlog Refinement session? - It provides time to identify dependencies and issues that could impact the next iteration

The Release Train Engineer is a servant leader who displays which two actions or behaviors? - 1. Creates an environment of mutual influence

Listens and supports teams in problem identification and decision- making

The Daily Stand-up timebox should not exceed how many minutes? - 15 minutes

A user story includes which three things? - 1. What 2. Why
Who

Continuous Deployment (CD) has six elements that, when followed, keep each team member, team, and the Agile Release Train on track. Which two statements best describe elements of CD? - 1. Maintain a staging environment that emulates production

2. Automate testing features and Non-functional Requirements

Which statement describes a cross-functional team? - Each team can define, build and test a component or feature

How does a Team Demonstrate Progress? - With an Iteration Review

When is the System Demo conducted during Program Execution? - At the end of every iteration

What is the recommended length of an iteration? - 2 weeks

What is the goal of the PI Planning event? - To create a plan for the upcoming PI showing how stories map to the iteration

Which statement is true of the Iteration Goals? - They align a team to a common vision of work in the iteration

Which statement is true about pair work in the Scaled Agile Framework? - It comes from pair programming in Extreme Programming (XP)

Which statement describes the information within a Story? - A story provides just enough information for the intent to be understood by both business and technical people

What is Scrum? - A lightweight process for cross-fucntional, self- organized teams

During the Inspect and Adapt event, how are reflection, data collection, problem solving, and identification of improvement actions used? - To increase the quality and reliability of the next PI

A team finishes developing all of their Stories in the first six days of the Iteration, test them in the following two days, and fixes bugs in the days remaining. How is the team behaving? - They are waterfalling the Iteration

Which statement is true about the purpose of a Work-In-Process constraint? - It encourages collaboration and enables flow

What does a Program Board help Teams identify? - Dependencies between teams

Which practice promotes built-in-quality? - Iteration Planning

The CALMR approach to DevOps includes Automation, Lean Flow, Measurement, and Recovery. What does the "C" represent? - Culture

What is the role of the Product Owner? - To represent the customer to the Agile Team. To write the stories that make up the team backlog.

What type of visibility should Product Owners provide during the Agile Release Train Sync? - Visibility into Scope and Priority backlog

What type of information can be easily seen in Cumulative Flow Diagram? - Work in Progress across the team. The data for the team to identify current bottlenecks.

According to definition of "Done", who must provide final approval? - The Release Management

What is one of the six steps in problem solving workshop? - Identify the biggest root cause using Pareto analysis

During iteration execution, a team's velocity tends to be most affected by what? - Changing team size, team makeup, and technical context

What are the SAFe core values? – 1. Built-in Quality

Program Execution
Alignment
Transparency

Modified Fibonacci Sequence - 5, 8, 13, 20, 24

Which is an example of a part of an Iteration Retrospective? - Team discussion around opportunities for continuous improvement

How does a team demonstrate progress? - Agile Team measures and then demonstrates its progress by showing working stories to the Product Owner (PO) and other stakeholders to get their feedback.

https://www.scaledagileframework.com/iteration-review/

Which activity happens in the Inspect and Adapt workshop? - Refining the Program Backlog

An Agile team has which two characteristics? - 1. Agile Team is cross- functional group of 5-11 people who have the responsibility to define, build, test, and where applicable deploy, some element of Solution value

2. A group of dedicated individuals who are empowered, self-organizing, self-managing, and deliver value

Which situation should use the Large Solution SAFe configuration? - Organizations that operate in an environment which requires compliance for high-assurance systems

What are two areas of focus when coaching the Inspect and Adapt event?
1. X Make sure the event finishes with clear improvement items for the Program Backlog
2. Make sure all Scrum Master are working as a single problem solving team to surface and resolve systemic impediments
3. X Prepare in advance the data for the quantitative section
4. Verify that no two teams are working on the same problem during the Problem Solving workshop
What are two ways the SAFe Economic Framework guides Value Streams investment decisions?
1. By time criticality
2. X By funding Value Streams
3. By empowering the Product Owner to sequence the Solution Backlog
4. By prioritizing work by return on investment
5. X By requiring Lean Business cases for Epics
What primary reason for change makes it easiest to drive a transformation across the enterprise?
1. X Burning platform – failure is occurring and so change is necessary
2. Follow a market trend – everyone is moving to Lean Agile
3. Analyst input – the view of analysis is that this is the direction of the market
4. Proactive leadership – improvement is necessary otherwise a burning platform will emerge soon.
Juan is the coach of a new Agile Release Train. All members of the train are new to Agile. After two iterations Juan is hearing that most teams have problems running all of their team events. He does not have time to attend the event for all teams. What two things can he do?
1. X Coach the Scrum Master by establishing a Community of Practice
2. Attend as many events as possible in the first PI and attend more in the following PI
3. There is nothing to be done mid-PI, problems that are critical enough will be raised in the Inspect and Adapt event and handled there.
4. Attend Release management meeting to understand possible problems
5. X Attend the Iteration Retrospective as this will give him the most opportunity to help
Why launch a train using the Quickstart approach?
1. It allows the teams to begin by doing PI Planning and then reinforcing the knowledge by learning SAFe for Teams the next day
2. X It increases engagement by getting people all in, all at once.
3. It refactors the Program Backlog before PI Planning based on feedback from the class
4. It reduces PI Planning to one day since some of the work is done in training
Why would an invitation-based implementation approach be used
1. It supports launching Agile Release Trains without reorganizing around value which makes the organizational change easier
2. It is easier to mandate from the top
3. It allows launching more trains at the same time
4. X It engages people by allowing them to choose the implementation
During a Value Stream identification workshop the teams have designed three development value streams in support of the operational value stream the company the company is focused on. Which test would help to identify if these are good development Value Streams?
1. All of them have between 50 and 125 people needed to develop their solution
2. The structure of the Value Stream matched existing organizational structures
3. X Each can operate and deliver value relatively independently from the others
4. There is a clear definition of who the Solution Manager is for each one
Which leadership style helps to create a safe environment for learning, growth and mutual influence?
1. X Leader as the servant
2. Leader as the developer of people
3. Leader as the conductor
4. Leader as the influencer
What are two ways an Exploration Enabler is demoed?
1. Show the architecture created to support future User Stories
2. X Show a prototype produced
3. Show screen shots of test results
4. X Show the knowledge file
5. Show the functioning code in the production environment
When the LACE acts as an Agile team, which two team practices are the likely to use?
1. X Run an Iteration Retrospective
2. X Plan a Program Increment
3. Build a Lean Portfolio
4. Build Lean Agile Budgets e. Hold a daily Stand-Up
  f.
What occurs during the Agile Release Train Inspect and Adapt event?
1. X Solution Demo
2. Iteration Metrics update
3. Program Predictability Measure update
4. Iteration Review
What are two ways to evolve the Solution intent from variable to fixed scope?
1. X Modelling
2. Adapting work-in-progress limits
3. Creating work breakdown structures
4. X Trade studies
5. Defining release milestones
When should a Lean Portfolio be established
1. When there are at least 5 Agile Release Trains that require coordination
2. X When the lack of communication between strategy and execution is hurting value delivery
3. Establish the Portfolio as part of training the executives
4. Only if mandated from the top because it is better to operate in a completely decentralized environment
What are two benefits of big room training
1. Smaller classrooms provide more efficient learning environment
2. The Program Backlog can be ready for the training
3. X Everyone on the train hears the same message
4. X Accelerates launch timelines
5. Leaders do not need to attend multiple times
Relentless improvement as defined in the Scaled Agile Framework includes which two activities?
1. Building long-term relationships based on trust
2. X Apply Lean problem solving tools and techniques
3. Reflect at key milestones
4. X Hold employees reviews to provide fast feedback
5. Hold people accountable
What is the right use for SAFe Foundation?
1. X Train Agile Teams before PI Planning
2. Train leaders and executives who do not have time for Leading SAFe
  c. Introduce stakeholders to SAFe to drive interest in SAFe training
  d. Train Agile Release Train (ART) leadership before launching the ART
Which two statements describe SAFe’s approach to operational and development Value Streams?
1. X SAFe focuses on development Value Streams
2. Operational Value Streams contain the systems and steps to develop those systems
3. X The operational Value Stream must be understood to define the development Value Streams
4. SAFe focuses on operational Value Streams
5. The development Value Streams must be understood to define the operational Value Streams
Why is capacity allocation important in SAFe
1. X So the team is able to meet its iteration goals
2. To synchronize the development cadence of Features and Component teams
3. Work can be better estimated
4. So that teams continuously invest in the Architectural Runway
Who typically facilitates the Agile Release Train Sync meeting
1. X Release Train Engineer
2. Value Stream Engineer
3. Senior Scrum Master
4. Agile Coach
Which statement is true about Lean Portfolio Management and budgeting
1. It reviews the top performing Solutions to ensure they are staying with budget targets
2. It monitors the budgets in the different Agile Release Trains but avoids funding new Epics
3. It cannot make any budget changes to the Portfolio
4. X It empowers stakeholders to adapt the current backlog and roadmap context
What is a responsibility of the SAFe Program Consultant change agent
1. X Coach Release Train Engineers on their role
2. Define Epic hypothesis statements
3. Prioritize the Program Backlog
4. Define Work in Process limits for the Program Kanban
What are two reasons to manage an implementation plan as a Roadmap?
b. X It allows the teams to ensure executives are not over controlling the
1. It creates a visible radiator for the Lean Agile Center of Excellence daily stand up
  implementation process
  1. X It allows preserving options in the implementation process
  2. It allows teams to commit in advance to no more than nine month of the implementation roadmap making it more agile
  3. It gets stakeholders used to the commitment and forecast structure of the implementation roadmap
According to the Harvard Business Review article “The new Product Development Game” what does it mean to create built-in instability
1. Provide unclear requirements, a volatile, demanding work environment and monitor the team’s progress
2. Monitor the team closely and make decisions for them as much as possible
3. Change the team’s mission daily
4. X Provide challenging requirements and high degree of freedom to meet the requirements
Which three actions are needed to launch an Agile Release Train?
1. X Identify the Release Train Engineer
2. Identify shared services
3. Have a strategy for unit testing and test automation
4. X Identify who will set the business context
5. Identify the System Team
6. X Decide Iteration and Program Increment cadence
What are two benefits of cadence and synchronization?
1. Synchronization enables multiple perspectives to be understood, resolved and integrated at the same time.
2. Cadence enables variability despite making wait times slightly less predictable
3. Synchronization enables reduction in work-in-process
4. X Cadence limits variance e. X They increase throughput
When should a lean portfolio be established?
1. Only if mandated from the top because it is better to operate in a completely decentralized environment
2. When there are at least 5 Agile Release Trains
3. Establish the portfolio as part of training the executives
4. X When the lack of communication between strategy and execution is hurting value delivery
What are the top two reasons for adopting Agile in an organization?
1. Reduce risk by centralizing decision making
2. X Accelerate product delivery
3. Reduce project cost
4. X Enhance ability to manage changing priorities
5. Increase predictability by reducing changes
What are the SAFe core values?
1. Empowerment, self-organizing teams, decentralization of control, value
2. Lean leadership, build in quality, agile architecture, product flow
3. Incremental delivery, transparency, trust, built-in quality
4. X Built-in quality, program execution, alignment, transparency
In a LACE an argument began between Lee , the Director of Software and Clair, the VP of HR. Clair wants to launch an Efficiency Agile Release Train first since that product was crucial and has a long history of missed deliveries. Lee wants to start with the Simulator Agile Release Train since it is high performing group that can transition quickly to SAFe and present a short term win. Who is right?
1. Both have good points and so it is best to launch both at the same time
2. X Neither is right, it is most important to focus on Agile Release Trains that have leadership support, and not the level of challenges they face
3. Lee is right because a lack of short term success is a key failure in most change initiatives
4. Clair is right because Agile Release Trains that face significance challenges will be able to improve and prove a better outcome for the success of SAFe
  
  a.
  
  X They enable visibility into the ski
  b. X They provide access to expertise
What are two benefits of Communities of Practice
ll matric in large enterprise
1. They increase coordination, synergy across units
2. They provide an arena for managers who might not find their role on the SAFe big picture
3. They reduce the Work in Process
Which tool is used to manage capabilities evolution?
1. The capability backlog
2. X The solution Kanban
3. The program backlog
4. The Epic to capabilities funnel
What is the benefit of enhancing enterprise agility?
1. It does not require “what if” analysis of various implementation scenarios
2. X It allows for a faster response to changing market opportunities
3. It enables forecasting from the Portfolio Backlog
4. It requires less planning and forecasting
What are two problems that can be understood from the Program Board?
1. Event for future PIs
2. Too many features are placed in a team’s swim lane with no strings
3. Too much work in process in one iteration
4. X A significant dependency leading to a Feature
5. X Too many dependencies leading to a single program milestone
Which legacy practice slows the move to Lean Portfolio Management
1. Demand Management
2. Fact based milestones
3. Rolling wave planning
4. X Centralized annual planning
How can essential SAFe be used to evaluate a Full SAFe implementation
1. Customize essential SAFe with Constructs out of the full spanning palette
2. Customize essential SAFe with Constructs out of the large solution configuration
3. Customize essential SAFe with Constructs out of the out of the full SAFe
4. X Verify that the Full SAFe implementation performs the elements of essential SAFe correctly
Name two practices of Agile HR
1. X Support continuous learning
2. X Eliminate annual performance reviews
3. Decentralize all decisions to the teams
4. Remove all incentives
5. Hire for technical excellence
What is the target percentage for the program predictability measure a. 60-80%
b. X 80-100%
c. 50-75%
d. <50%
The time to market is too long and the team is unsure which part of the process is problematic. What should be done first?
1. Redo the value stream identification workshop
2. Set up key performance indicators and reporting to control the flow
3. Identify the bottlenecks by lowering work in process at all steps
4. X Organize a value stream mapping workshop
What are two possible problems to be aware of when coaching an agile release train sync meeting?
1. All the scrum master, product owners, and business owners are in the meeting
2. The Release Train engineer is not vocal
  d. X Features keep moving to the next iteration with noting being
3. The program board is used as a big visual information radiator for the meeting
  removed from the PI
  e. X All focus is on the current PI with not time spent on the preparation
  of the
  next PI
After launching the first ART, what should be the next train to launch?
1. A train in a different Value Stream to start building the Lean Portfolio
2. A train in a different Portfolio to spread the Lean Agile mindset across the enterprise
3. A train that has considerable challenges regardless of where it is in the organization
4. X A train in the same value stream to leverage the full flow of value
How does SAFe extend the agile manifesto foundation to the level of team of teams?
1. By uncovering better way of developing software by doing it and helping others do it
2. X By applying lean thinking to understand and improve the systems that support the teams
3. By allowing the teams to reflect on how to become more effective
4. By promoting face to face conversation across teams as the most efficient way to convey information
What are two ways an exploration enabler is demoed?
1. X Show a prototype produces
2. X Show the knowledge gained
3. Show the architecture created to support future user stories
4. Show the functioning code in the production environment
5. Show screen shots of test results
Why is it important to start an agile release train launch by setting the date for PI Planning?
1. X Because otherwise there is no forcing function
2. To communicate the date to the lean agile center of excellence
3. Because without the date it is impossible to know the length of iterations and program increments
4. To book conference and meeting rooms well in advance
Why is it recommended to start with essential SAFe
1. It is the newest addition to SAFe so many people will prefer it
2. X Most implementations start with a single ART
3. It required just one ART to implementation can begin without training executives and leaders
4. It does not require up front team training which speeds up the implementation process
Which statement is a value from the agile manifesto?
1. Working software over working hardware
2. Working software over comprehensive conversation
3. Working software over continuous attention to technical excellence
4. X Working software over comprehensive documentation
  
  a. X To have a better prepared initial program backlog for the first PI
Why is it important to train Product owner and product manager before launching the ART
Planning
1. Because training the leaders for the first time should not occur with the teams
2. X To help facilitate the first PI planning process
3. In a lean environment of continuous deliver and flow of value, the focus is on execution, so it is better to train before the launch
What is the recommended order of classes and activities when launching an Agile Release Train using the Quickstart approach?
1. PI Planning, SAFe for Teams, SAFe Workshop
2. SAFe workshop, PI Planning, SAFe for Teams
3. X SAFe for Teams, PI Planning, SAFe workshop
4. SAFe workshop, SAFe for Teams, PI Planning
What is the purpose of Solution Intent?
1. X To record and communicate the necessary requirements and design decisions
2. To create a comprehensive design document for approval before development
3. To provide an up front and static definition of the systems design
4. To provide a roadmap for future development
When building incrementally, how do integration points occur?
1. Upon product management request
2. At a fixed cadence
3. Through phase gate milestones
4. X By integrates learning cycles
What is the primary purpose of the management review at the end of Day 1 of the PI Planning?
1. To assign business value to the team’s draft PI Objective
2. To evaluate the performance of teams
3. To design the next generation of the product
4. X To make adjustments to the PI Scope and address program challenges
How does SAFe extend the Agile Manifesto foundation to the level of team of teams?
1. By allowing the team to reflect on how to become more effective
2. By uncovering better ways of developing software by doing it and helping other do it
3. By promoting face to face conversation across teams as the most efficient way to convey information
4. X By applying lean thinking to understand and improve the systems that support the teams
How can an organization gain trust between the business and development?
1. Pair up IT with Epics Owners for all IT meetings
2. X Deliver predictability
3. Give teams access to the program Kanban
4. Reduce the amount of features
When is the ROAM technique used to categorize program risks?
1. At the product owner sync
2. At scrum of scrums
3. At the agile release train sync
4. X At PI Planning
What is the call to action when promoting SAFe during a meeting with company executives?
1. Train leaders and managers and then decide on the next steps
2. Launch one pilot agile release train and then learn and adapt
3. Propose a large preparation (teams, HR, organization) and then select a date to start the transformation
  d. X Organize a value stream identification workshop to determine the
  dependencies and to synchronize the agile release train launch
Ann is invited to help an agile release train that has struggled through multiple innovation and planning (IP) iterations. They just finished the second iteration in the current PI and have nothing to demonstrate at the system demo.
1. Program stakeholders are really concerned. What should Ann do?
2. RE-architect the system so that there are no dependencies between the teams and integration is not needed
  d. X Re-plan the current PI: Descope to leave enough time to integrate
3. Have every team demonstrate their team increment to the stakeholder separately on the team branch
  what has been build during the IP iteration
  e. Stop working on any new functionality and fully integrate and test the system, adjust scope based on learnings.
What is one key message about Little’s Law?
1. X The easiest way to achieve flow is to reduce queue lengths
2. The average wait time is dependent on the varying arrival rate items coming into the queue
3. The easiest way to reduce wait is to increase the processing rate
4. A single piece flow should always be the goal
Based on the work of Don Reinersten, the Scaled Agile Framework denotes five primary economic factors that can be used to consider the economics perspective of a particular investment. What are three of those primary economic factors?
1. X Lead time
2. X Development expense
3. Value stream budget
4. Return on investment
5. X Risk
6. Transaction cost
What are three examples of lean agile leadership?
1. X Developing skills and career paths for team members
2. Limiting process improvements to control scope
3. X Communicating the solution vision with the teams
4. X Creating an environment of mutual influence
5. Create work breakdown structures
6. Prioritizing team backlogs
Niccolo is invited to help a program where, even though not mandated by the external environment, management required teams to make big upfront and detailed scope commitments for every release.
What are the things Niccolo can do to best coach the decision makers?
1. X Illustrate the power of feedback in content decision making
2. X Explain the “understand and exploit variability” principle of product development flow.
3. Satisfy the immediate need and improve later
4. Explain the benefits of releasing at the end of the program increment
5. X Emphasize the value of “responding to change” from the agile manifesto
6. Explain that too much up front detail demotivates product owners as they have almost nothing to do afterwards
An inspect and adapt event is occurring and a program is trying to address a ling existing problem – unreliable PI commitments. One of the participants suggests that they are working on too many things at one time.
1. What aspect of the program causes uncontrollable amounts of work in process?
2. All program teams are cross functional, so every team creates work in multiple areas at the same time
3. Stories are too small
4. X Items in the program backlog are large chunks of work at different layers of the system instead of true features
5. Teams do not do a good job at task switching
What is this statement defining “A series of activities that have proven to be effective in successfully implementing SAFe”?
1. The SAFe Lean Agile principles
2. The scaled agile framework
3. X The SAFe Implementation Roadmap
4. An agile Release Train
What does Dunbars number provide guidance for in the scaled agile framework?
1. The percent utilization that enables a sustainable pace
2. The number of people on a lean portfolio team
3. X The number of members on a self-managing self-organizing agile release team
4. The number of people on a solution train
Relentless improvement as defined in the scaled agile framework includes which two activities?
1. X Apply lean problem-solving tools and techniques
2. Hold employee reviews to provide fast feedback
3. X Build long term relationship based on trust
4. Reflect at key milestones
5. Hold people accountable
What are two areas to examine when identifying operational value streams in an enterprise?
1. X The current products which the company sells
2. X The systems supporting each operating value stream
3. The internal departments which are supported
4. The number of agile release trains contained in the portfolio
5. The project cost accounting procedure in place

Assignment 6.2 Calculate Mathematical Problems AHBC1

April 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

ASSIGNMENT 6.2 CALCULATE MATHEMATICAL PROBLEMS

Performance Objective

Task: Calculate and insert the correct amounts for nine Medicare scenarios.

Conditions: Use a pen or pencil and the de scription of the problem.

Directions: Submitting insurance claims, particularly Medicare claims, involves a bit of arithmetic. Several problems are given here so that you will gain experience with situation s encountered daily in your work. The Medicare deductible is always subtracted from the allowed amount first before mathematical computations continue.

Problem 1: Mr. Doolittle has Medicare Parts A and B coverage. He was well during the entire past year. On January 1, Mr. Doolittle is rushed to the hospital, where Dr. Input performs an emergency gastric resection. The hospital bills Medi care under the Part A coverage, and under the Part B coverage, the physician bills $450 for surgical services. The doctor agrees to accept assignment. The patient has not met any of his deductible for 2017 which is $183. Complete the following statements by putting in the correct amounts.

Original Bill

a. Medicare allows $400. Medicare payment:

b. Patient owes Dr. Input

c. Dr. Input 's courtesy adjustment Mathematical computations:

Problem 2:

Mrs. James has Medicare Parts A and B coverage. She met her deductible

when she was ill in March of this year. On November 1, Dr. Caesar performs a bilateral salpingooophorectomy. The hospital bills Medicare under the Part A coverage, and under Part B coverage, the physician bills $300 for surgical services. The doctor agrees to accept a Medicare assignment.

Original Bill

a. Medicare allows $275. Medicare payment:

b. Patient owes Dr. Caesar: c. Dr. Caesar's courtesy adjustment Mathematical computations for surgeon:

The assistant surgeon charged Mrs. James $60 (the Medicare limiting charge) and does not accept assignment. After receiving her check from Medicare, Mrs. James sends the surgeon his $60. Medicare has allowed $55 for the fee.

d. How much of the money was from Mrs. James' private funds?

e.How much did Medicare pay? Mathematical computations:

Problem 3: You work for Dr. Coccidioides. He does not accept assignment. He is treating Mr. Robinson for allergies. Mr. Robinson has Medicare Part A. You send in a bill to Medicare for the $135 that Mr. Robinson owes you. What portion of the bill will Medicare pay?

Problem 4: In June, Mr. Fay has an illness that incur s $89 in medical bills. He asks you to bill Medicare, and the physician does not accept assignment. He has paid the deductible at another physician 's office.

a. If Medicare allows the entire amount of your fees the Medicare check to the patient is $ (which comes to you).

b. The patients t's part of the bill to you is _ Mathematical computations:

Problem 5:

Mr. Iba, a Medicare patient with a Medigap insurance policy, is seen for an office

visit, and the fee is $80. The Medicare-approved amount is $54.44. The patient has met his deductible for the year.

a. The Medicare payment check is $

b. After the claim is submitted to the Medigap insurance, the Medigap payment check is $ _

c. To zero out the balance, the Medicare courtesy adjustment is _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Mathematical computations:

Problem 6:

Mrs. Smith, a Medicare patient, had surgery, and the participating physician’s

fee is $1250. This patient is working part-time, and her employer group health plan (primary insurance) allowed $1100, applied $500 to the deductible, and paid 80% of $600.

a.Amount paid by this plan: $ _

b.The spouse’s employer group health plan (secondary insurance) is billed for the

balance, which is$ _ This program also has a $500 deductible. This plan pays 100% of the fee billed, minus the deductible.

c. The spouse's employer group plan makes a payment of _

You send copies of the remittance advice from the two group health plans and submit a claim to Medicare (the third insurance)for $1250. The balance at this point is$ _

Mathematical computations:

Problem 7: Beverly James has Medicare Part B coverage. She has $242 in medical bills and has met $100 of the $183 (2017 deductible). Dr. Practon agrees to accept assignment.

Original Bill

a. Medicare allows $200. Medicare payment:

b. Beverly James owes Dr. Practon:

c. Dr. Practon's courtesy adjustment Mathematical computations:

Problem 8: Oliver Mills has Medicare Part B coverage. He fell at home and suffered a sprain and Dr. Skeleton treated him. His medical bill totaled $370, and he has met $60 of the $183 (2017 deductible). Dr. Skeleton agrees to accept assignment.

Original Bill

a. Medicare allows $280. Medicare payment:

b. Oliver Mills owes Dr. Skeleton:

c. Dr. Skeleton's courtesy adjustment:

Mathematical computations:

Problem 9: Maria Sanchez has Medicare Part B coverage. She has $565 in medical bills at Dr. Cardi's office and met $45 of the $183 (2017 deductible) at another physician's office. Dr. Cardi agrees to accept assignment.

Original Bill

a. Medicare allows $480. Medicare payment:

b. Maria Sanchez owes Dr. Cardi

c. Dr. Cardi's courtesy adjustment Mathematical computations:

bfcl2 3d structure chem 141 Ch. 10

April 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

kejuruteraan elektrik 7 elektronik Lab 7

April 18, 2023 Dwayne Morise

Airfield Driving

April 14, 2023 Dwayne Morise

What are the color of the runway markings and runway hold lines? White runway markings and yellow runway hold lines.

What are aprons? Aprons are the portion of the airfield where aircraft or helicopters are parked before or between flights, and for servicing and maintenance.

Which of the following is required when parking a vehicle at the side of any aircraft? Both A and B: vehicle must be clear of wingtips and vehicle must be visible to personnel in the cockpit.

Prior to entering or crossing a runway drivers will? Stop at the runway hold line, contact the tower via two-way radio, and ask for permission to enter or cross.

What is the speed limit (max) when driving a general-purpose vehicle within 25 ft of a parked aircraft? 5 mph.

What is the speed limit for a designated traffic lane within 200 ft of a designated parking area? 15 mph.

When are vehicles responding to red ball incidents allowed to exceed speed limits? They are not allowed to exceed limits.

Where would this sign be located [4-22] (Red sign with white letter)? At the VRF holdline for Runway 4-22.

Pick the correct statement.? Runway numbers represent the orientation of the runway approach in compass degrees rounded to the nearest ten degrees

Crossing the runway hold lines and entering a runway without ATC approval will result in?? It will result in all the above consequences.

What is depicted below and what must a driver do when approaching it? Instrument hold line; obtain approval from tower during inclement weather before crossing

Which of the following statements are true for chocking parked vehicles on the airfield? Both a and b.

When parking a vehicle with a manual transmission in close proximity to an aircraft, what gear is the transmission left in? Reverse.

Which of the following actions are required when parking a vehicle in the airfield? All the above.

When an aircraft's engines are being operated, vehicles will not be parked less than / of an aircraft. 25 ft in front / 200 ft rear.

What does a flashing red light from the control tower mean? Clear active runway.

What do a flashing green light and white light gun signal from the control tower cab mean? General warning.

What must an operator do when approaching an active runway? Stop: contact tower to ask permission to cross runway.

Personnel operating within the controlled movement area will have two-way radio contact with the control tower, or ...? Will have an escort with two-way radio with control tower for the entire time they are in the movement area

When approaching an aircraft at night, vehicle operators should do which of the following? Turn off headlights and leave parking lights on.

Except when an aircraft is being serviced, loaded, or unloaded, vehicles should never be driven within ____ feet of an aircraft? 25 ft.

When entering the airfield, vehicle operators must perform which of the following? All the above.

What are the leading causes of runway incursions? All the above.

During an aircraft emergency on the runway which of the following vehicles have permission to cross the runway withoutcontacting the Control Tower for approval? None of the above

Before entering the controlled movement area, vehicle operators must do which of the following? All the above.

All vehicles must approach parked aircraft... With the driver's side of the vehicle toward the aircraft.

Which is a correct statement concerning communications? All the above.

When communicating with the Tower which communication is correct? Tower, maintenance one at taxiway alpha, request permission to cross runway 12.

If a portion of the control tower transmission is garbled or stepped on, what do you do? Ask the Tower to repeat the transmission by saying 'Say Again

During inclement weather or at night, what must a vehicle temporarily parked on any part of the aircraft apron do with their vehicle lights? Turn on flashers.

2.1.3 Practice: Looking at Colleges Online Practice Assignment

Answer Key for "Financial Wellness (Data Science Exploration) Post Assessment"

Generated on February 01, 2022

What do you need to write to create an automated process?

In process improvement, an algorithm is commonly used to create

Which is an example of an automated process?

A ﬁnancial institution wants to do A/B testing, with messages about linking checking and savings accounts. If their A group is customers who have both a checking and savings account, what should be their B group?

A ﬁnancial institution did A/B testing, sending messages advertising a new type of savings account. Group A were customers who had few transactions per month.

Group B had many transactions per month. What are they trying to learn?

A ﬁnancial institution sent messages about strong ﬁnancial habits to two groups. Group A received the messages via email on a weekday morning. Group B received

the messages via the bank's app when they signed in. What was the institution trying to determine with their A/B testing?

How can sentiment analysis be used to improve customer experience?

What method can provide qualitative data about customers' experiences to help an organization improve?

What kind of data can an institution gather from sentiment analysis to improve customer experience?

A ﬁnancial institution discovers a correlation between using an auto-transfer feature and better savings habits. How can they use that information to improve customer experience?

A ﬁnancial institution discovers a positive correlation between poor budgeting skills and high debt. How can they use that information to improve their customer experience?

A ﬁnancial institution discovers a positive correlation between better investment growth and diversiﬁcation. How can they use that information to improve their customer experience?

Why is data mining useful?

What does data mining help discover?

What helps data scientists ﬁnd patterns in data?

Data mining shows that when customers use a budgeting app, their savings are usually higher, their debt is usually lower, and they sometimes have student loans. What is correlated with using a budgeting app?

Data mining shows that customers with many investments tend to have higher savings and customers with few investments tend to have lower savings. Various levels of debt were found across all types of investments. What is correlated with investments?

Data mining shows that customers with high student loans tend to have credit card debt. They also tend to have low retirement accounts. What is correlated with student loans?

What is customer segmentation?

What is the process of dividing a group of customers into smaller sub-groups, based on similarities within the sub-groups?

In customer segmentation, you divide groups of customers into smaller sub-groups based on

A ﬁnancial institution wants to know who is most likely to beneﬁt from a new type of savings account. Which is the best way to segment customers?

A ﬁnancial institution wants to know who is most likely to use their credit card. Which is the best way to segment customers?

A ﬁnancial institution wants to know who is most likely to use an auto-transfer feature from checking to savings. Which is the best way to segment customers?

Which are common ﬁnancial obstacles faced by newly ﬁnancially independent adults?

A high expenses to income ratio and low savings amount are

Financial obstacles such as high expenses to income ratio and not enough savings can lead to

A newly independent adult wants to increase the amount of money they have in their savings account. What should they consider?

A newly independent adult wants to grow their net worth faster. Which of these will help?

A newly independent adult wants to decrease their debt. Which of these will help?

Check-In Check Out UNIT III EXAMINATION

(Chapters 7, 8, and 9)

Value 100 Points

T/F Questions: Enter either T for True or F for False. (Questions that are partially false should be marked False.) Value 1.5 point each.

Multiple Choice: Enter the one answer that best completes the thought.

Part-A

1. Healthcare provider under HIPPA compliance law.

2.

3.

User Domain Risk Impacts: 5

Workstation Domain Risk Impacts: 3

LAN Domain Risk Impacts: 2

LAN-to-WAN Domain Risk Impacts: 2

WAN Domain Risk Impact: 4

Remote Access Domain Risk Impact: 2

Systems/Applications Domain Risk Impacts: 3

Part-B

What is the goal or objective of an IT risk assessment?

Why is it difficult to conduct a qualitative risk assessment for an IT infrastructure?

What was your rationale in assigning “1” risk impact/risk factor value of “Critical” for an identified risk, threat, or vulnerability?

Identify a risk mitigation solution for each of the following risk factors:

User downloads and clicks on an unknown e-mail attachment- Disconnect the workstation from the network, then run a virus scan to check for issues and make fixes, then provide training to the employee on email polices.

Workstation OS has known software vulnerability- Find the patch to fix the vulnerability and push it out to all workstations.

Weak ingress/egress traffic filtering degrades performance- New filtering methods need to be implemented.

DoS/DDoS attack from the WAN/Internet- Make sure there is a firewall in place, have it set up so that after 3 failed attempts to lock out that IP, or a third party software can be purchased to monitor DoS attacks.

Remote access from home office- I will use digital certificate technology to simplify the authentication process required to establish multiple IP tunnels. I can use IPsec VPN or SSL VPN. Delete staff remote access privileges once they are not needed,

Production server corrupts database- You can increase the performance of your external firewall. Although there are viruses that are undetected, which means if your server becomes corrupted, then you would have to rely on backups. That means backing up more frequently.

Problem 2:

Original Bill

Problem 5:

Problem 6: