ATO II LEVEL 2 Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to ATO Level 2

• The DoD and USAF define terrorism as the ____ use or threat of unlawful violence to instill fear. ​
o Calculated

• The DoD and USAF defines terrorism as the intention to coerce or intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological.
o True

• Which position is assigned the task of actually writing an AT plan?
o Installation or self-supported facility ATO

• Deploying units having _______or more personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander, will have a Level II-certified ATO assigned.
o 300

• Who will determine the appropriate FPCON level?
o Commander assigned AT responsibility

• Which document provides detailed information to assist in managing AT elements/activities?
o DoD O-2000.12-H

• Which of the following is NOT an element of the Risk Management process?
o Asset assessment

• The AT risk management process and procedures shall be reviewed at least annually. An AT program review, higher headquarters assessment, or JSIVA visit satisfies this annual requirement. What is the normal frequency for higher headquarters assessments?
o Every third year

• Which of the following plans contain command-specific guidance for the establishment of an antiterrorism program and the implementation of antiterrorism standards?
o Antiterrorism Plan

Complete the sentence below by clicking on the correct item in the list.
• AT planning is critical to deterrence, detection, defense, and ____________.
o Response to terrorist incidents

• Family members that are ________ years or older traveling beyond CONUS on official business (i.e. on an accompanied PCS move), shall receive Level I AT Awareness training as part of their pre-departure requirements.
o 14

• Deploying units having ________ personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander, will have a Level II-certified ATO assigned.
o 300 or more

• Which level of AT training is designed to prepare ATOs to manage AT programs, advise the commander on all AT issues, and qualify individuals to administer AT Awareness Training?
o Level II

• Which level of AT training provides senior military and civilian executive leadership with the requisite knowledge to enable development of AT Program policies and facilitate oversight of all aspects of AT Programs at the operational and strategic levels?
o Level IV

• Who is the AF Program Element Monitor (PEM) for the AF AT program?
o AF/A7SX

• Which funding source is the PRIMARY means for combatant commanders to react to unforeseen requirements from changes in a terrorist threat, threat levels, antiterrorism doctrine and standards, as well as unanticipated requirements identified as a result of vulnerability assessments, tactical operations, and exercising AT plans?
o Combatant Commander’s Initiative Fund (CCIF)

• The systematic assessment of the AT program against standards prescribed by DoD Instruction 200.16 requires a comprehensive AT program review be conducted to evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the program. During this AT program review which of the following areas must be evaluated?
o Risk Management
o AT Planning
o Training and Exercise

• In accordance with Training and Exercise standards, AT exercise documentation must be maintained for no less than _____ to ensure incorporation of lessons learned.
o 2 years

• Which of the following correctly defines Lessons Learned(L2)?
o Lessons learned (L2) An insight gained that improves military operations or activities at the strategic, operational, or tactical level, and results in long-term, internalized change to an individual, group of individuals, or an organization.

• Select the all the fundamental functions of the AF Lessons Learned.
o Tracking
o Collection
o Dissemination
o Validation

• The Joint Lessons Learned Repository (JLLR) is a common searchable database in which selected L2 observations are deposited and is viewable by all active duty personnel.
o False

• Who develops and provides AOR specific training and provide in-transit forces with threat information?
o Geographic Combatant Commander (GCC)

• ____________ includes focused information on potential terrorist threats (e.g., tailored production and analysis) and guidance on the development of AT protection risk mitigation measures to aid in the development of tailored AT planning.
o AOR-Specific Training for DoD Personnel and In-transit Forces

• ___________ is a system of countermeasures protecting assets and includes the aggressor tactics and the associated weapons, explosives, tools, and agents.
o UFC 4-020-01

• The DBT does NOT provide a rational basis for making and justifying potentially expensive decisions, designing the security system, and evaluating the adequacy of the security system.
o False

• Antiterrorism is a/an ___________ responsibility and must be thoroughly integrated into every unit attached to the installation, to include tenants, sister services, and attached agencies.
o Installation Commander’s

• Within the normal structured organizational relationship on an installation, who is directly subordinate to the Installation Commander with responsibility for program oversight of the installation’s Antiterrorism Program?
o Installation ATO

• The Primary focus of the Crisis Action Team is __________.
o Mission Continuation

• Critical assets may also be private assets, that if lost would seriously disrupt DoD operations.
o True

• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 5 requires a CA to identify, classify, and prioritize mission-essential assets, resources, and personnel critical to DoD mission success.
o True

• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 5 requires Cas be updated at least every two years to determine the degree of asset criticality.
o False

• CAs are also conducted on __________ assets such as high population facilities and mass gathering activities.
o Non-mission Essential

• CAs shall provide the basis for identifying those assets that require specific protective <1> _______ and <2> _______ for resources allocation when developing and updating the AT plan.
o Measures
o Priorities

• Some of the goals for conducting a CA are:
o Identify the installation’s/unit’s key assets
o Determine if critical functions can be duplicated under various attack scenarios
o Determine the time required to replace key assets or infrastructures if temporarily or permanently lost
o Determine the priority for responses to key assets, functions, and infrastructures in the event of fire, multiple bombings, or other terrorist acts.

• In the joint environment, the__________ is responsible for base force protection and security operations.
o Joint Forward Operating Base Commander

• ______________ helps to overcome the challenges created when different units from different commands with different missions are assigned to support the Joint Forward Operating Base’s force protection mission.
o Unity of command

• The purpose of the CA process is to identify and prioritize all assets on an installation. Assets include personnel, equipment, stockpiles, buildings, recreation areas, or transportation systems.
o True

• The purpose of a CA matrix is to determine the vulnerability of security operations on an installation.
o False

• The purpose of the _________ is to develop and refine AT program guidance, policy, and standards, act upon recommendations of the ATWG and TWG and determine resource allocation priorities to mitigate or eliminate terrorism-related vulnerabilities?
o Antiterrorism Executive Council (ATEC)

• Which group is NOT required to have a charter?
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)

• Which Antiterrorism group’s charter should be developed to describe member responsibilities, minimum functional and SME participation?
o Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)

• The Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander chairs the _________.
o Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG)

• No specific threat information equals an absence of threat.
o False

• Which Antiterrorism group’s membership includes: the ATO, commander (or a designated rep), members of the staff, tenant unit representatives, appropriate representation from direct-hire, contractor, local, State, Federal, and host-nation law enforcement agencies and the intelligence community?
o Threat Working Group (TWG)

• Which Antiterrorism group meets at least semi-annually and acts upon recommendations of the Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG) and Threat Working Group (TWG)?
o Antiterrorism Executive Council (ATEC)

• IAW DoD Directive 2000.12, a <1> asset is any facility, equipment, service, or resource considered essential to DoD Operations in peace, crisis, and war; warranting measures and precautions to ensure its continued efficient operation, protection from disruption, degradation or destruction, and its timely restoration.
o Critical

• The TA matrix establishes a range of specific weapons and tactics.
o True

• From the list below, select all that are individual components of the TA matrix.
o Threat Priority
o Tactic
o Weapon
o Delivery Method

• From the list below, select the three that are hazard categories.
o Cyber
o Natural
o Accidents

• Select the terrorist threat information source(s) that fall under the Department of Defense. Select all that apply.
o Combatant Commands
o Intelligence Center/J2
o DIA – JITF-CT

• Terrorist threat information sources can include open source materials such as the Internet, books and studies, newspapers and periodicals.
o True

• _____________is the product resulting from the collection, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas (Joint Pub 3-07.2)
o Intelligence

• ______________is information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted by or on behalf foreign governments or elements thereof, foreign organizations, or foreign persons, or international terrorist activities (Joint Pub 3-07.2)
o Counterintelligence (CI)

• Collectively, the threat analysis, intelligence, and counterintelligence provides priority information requirements to identify potential terrorist targets based on existing knowledge of an organization.
o True

• The small size of terrorist groups, their mobility, and training in CI and security measures are some of the factors that complicate <1>__________ and <2>_________ collection and operations.
o Intelligence
o Counterintelligence

• IAW DoD Instruction 2000.16, a _________ Assessment, addresses the effect of temporary or permanent loss of key assets or infrastructures on the installation or a unit’s ability to perform its mission.
o Criticality

• A Criticality Assessment also examines the cost of recovery and constitution including time, funds, capability, and infrastructure support.
o True

• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 16 requires identification to the responsible military department those personnel, including designated family members, requiring formal high-risk personnel training before assignment.
o True

• DoD Instruction 2000.16 and AFI 10-245, Standard 16 requires that a personnel security vulnerability assessment (PSVA) be completed for each person who is an O-6 or above.
o False

• The _______ is used to identify the terrorist threats posed to DoD assets and/or the threats that could be encountered in executing a mission.
o Threat Assessment

• The __________leverages information and intelligence to support the timely identification of indicators and warnings of emerging localized threats. This group also serves as the primary information source directly supporting the Defense Force Commander (DFC) in making immediate proactive decisions for integrated defense planning.
o (Answer not given as a solution: Threat Information Fusion Cell (TIFC)
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)???

• The ___________ assures that the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) considers the most current data regarding the threat and operating environments.
o Threat Information Fusion Cell (TIFC)
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)???

• __________ is a command and control facility established by the Joint Forward Operating Base (JFOB) commander to serve as the focal point for base defense, force protection and security operations.
o Base Defense Operations Center

• Essential members of the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) include representatives from all of the units below EXCEPT ______.
o Transportation

• How many Emergency Support Functions are located in the Emergency Operations Center:
o Fifteen

• The_________ provides the commander with a tool to assess the potential vulnerabilities of an installation, unit, exercise, port, ship, residence, facility, or other site.
o Vulnerability Assessment

• Vulnerability fall into which three of the following categories?
o Vulnerabilities
o Options
o Observations

• Risk management is defined as the process of selecting and implementing countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
o True

• Risk = Criticality x Threat x Vulnerability
o True

• Drag and drop each of the following steps in the Risk Management Process to put them in their correct order with the first step on the op and the last on the bottom.
o Assess Assets
o Assess Threats
o Assess Vulnerabilities
o Assess Risks

• It is important to note that the asset RA table is meant to be an exact science. It is the only method of quantifying risk.
o False

• Risk avoidance integrates the process of assessing the threat, the vulnerabilities, and the value of the asset to the owner. It also weighs the risk of compromise/loss against the cost of security practices.
o False

• Who normally has authority to determine acceptable risk?
o Installation Commander

• Site specific FPCON measures are designed for unique requirements of an installation or mission. Each functional commander should develop and it can be base-wide or facility specific.
o True

• Threat levels define the degree of threat; FPCONs define security measures to protect against that threat.
o True

• The <1> ________ system provides a framework of prescribed <2> _________ and cycles necessary for reestablishing the confidence level and security information systems for the commander and thereby supporting the entire Global Information Grid.
o INFOCON
o Actions

• The INFOCON system applies to both the NIPR and SIPR NETs.
o True

• Which two of the following categories are used for Vulnerabilities?
o Programmatic
o Procedural

• ______ options must be identified in order to develop controls, make decisions, implement controls, supervise, and review.
o Mitigation

• Barrier plans establish access/entry control points in contingencies.
o True

• Barrier plans are used to support installation AT plans in all of the following examples, EXCEPT?
o Installation beautification

• A key element of a Barrier Plan should identify owners/users tasked with erecting barriers and _______.
o Specified Time Periods

• As part of an effective evacuation plan, ensure that all maps are marked with exits, are posted throughout each facility, and that all personnel knows the location of the rally point.
o True

• As part of your emergency evacuation plan, always post evacuation rally points on maps. It allows assigned personnel to quickly locate their rally point during an emergency.
o False

• Click on the correct AFI that is used to assist with the planning of installation vehicle inspection areas.
o AFI 10-2401

• Which of the following are mitigation assistance groups?
o Rapid Equipping Force
o Technical Support Working Group
o Physical Security Equipment Action Group

• Antiterrorism construction standards were developed to identify appropriate and enforceable measures to eliminate further need for countermeasures for possible terrorist attacks.
o False

• Building system design consists of which of the following considerations.
o Signage
o Circulation
o Space Planning

• Standard 6 – Terrorism VA, requires that the assessment be conducted and updated at least _________ or more frequently if the terrorist threat assessment or mission requirements dictate.
o Annually

• Upon completion of a Vulnerability Assessment, Standard 6 requires that the CVAMP database be populated with the results within _______ days.
o 90

• When conducting a VA, you must step outside of your usual role and think like a ____________.
o Terrorist

• One of the HHQ team objectives is to assist the _______ Commander in meeting the AT and FP responsibilities.
o Installation

• The Core VA Management Program (CVAMP) is an automated and web-based means of managing a command’s vulnerabilities and associated funding requirements.
o True

• __________ is covered in the CARVER method and should be used as a criterion for vulnerability.
o Criticality

• MSHARPP focuses mainly on the threat to the situations, activities, capabilities, and resources on an installation that are vulnerable to a terrorist attack.
o True

• When determining assets and threats, the same considerations should be given to the systems approach in the _________ environment as when in the cantonment area.
o Tactical

• Security resources and measures are applied to _______ and to deter, detect, defend, and defeat the threat.
o Mitigate risks

• Barrier systems are considered _________ if they require action by personnel or equipment to permit entry.
o Active

• Barrier systems are considered _________ if their effectiveness relies on their bulk or mass and they have no moving parts.
o Passive

• Barrier systems are considered _________ if they are permanently installed or if heavy equipment is required to move or dismantle the barriers.
o Fixed

• Barrier systems are considered ________ if they can be transferred from place to place.
o Movable

• During contingency operations, key facilities or missions should be considered for ________ and visual assessment.
o Electronic Detection

• The one method of reducing risk that is controllable is reducing the ____________.
o Vulnerability

• An action taken or a physical entity used to reduce or eliminate one or more vulnerability, threat, or impact is a _________.
o Countermeasure

• The three categories of observations are concern, positive, and neutral.
o True

• An option is an action that can be taken or equipment that can be applied to reduce or eliminate one or more __________.
o Vulnerabilities

• Servicing ________ detachments will provide a threat assessment for any to the supported installation.
o Air Force Office of Special Investigations

• Deploying commanders shall implement appropriate ___________ to reduce risk and vulnerability before and after deployment.
o Antiterrorism measures

• Activities involving hazardous, toxic, and/or explosive materials that should be isolated from other activities fall under which type of consideration.
o Industrial Safety and Hygiene

• Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs) are FPCON measures selected from higher measures which are randomly implemented during lower FPCONs.
o True

• ____________ will make a decision on how best to employ given resources and force protection measure to deter, mitigate, or prepare for a terrorist incident.
o Installation Commander

• Which of the following titles is “a chairman of the Joint Chief’s of Staff approved program standardizing the Department’s identification, recommended preventive actions, and responses to terrorist threats against U.S. personnel and facilities. The system is the primary means for a commander to apply an operational decision on how to protect against terrorism.
o Force Protection Conditions (FPCON)

• Commanders at all levels shall set local FPCONs
o True

• Standard 6 – Terrorism VA, requires that terrorism Vas be conducted for any personnel designated as high-risk personnel (HRP). These assessments are referred to as a __________.
o Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment

• A Terrorism Vulnerability Assessment must be conducted for any event or activity determined to be a special event attended by ________ or more DoD personnel.
o 300

• The overriding concept of antiterrorism vulnerability reduction is to focus on two broad areas. Which ones are they?
o Preventing a terrorist incident from occurring and failing
o Substantially mitigating the effects of a terrorist attack

• The proactive and reactive aspects of force protection are divided into four significant elements. Which of the following are included in the four elements? Select all that apply.
o Threat, Vulnerability, and Risk Analysis
o Weapons Effect Mitigation
o Physical Security

• The installation ATO conducts a VA using key antiterrorism working group members in a collaborative effort as the assessment team.
o True

• The Operation Readiness Specialists is responsible for assessing the water supply and distribution systems to determine their vulnerability to waterborne contamination.
o False

• Units must have the ability to improvise in a ________ environment.
o Tactical

• CVAMP manages and identifies
o Vulnerabilities

• In CVAMP, the ATO role creates Vulnerability Assessments, observations, and funding requests.
o True

• In CVAMP, if you are assigned the System Administrator, Commander, and Assesor permissions you have full control of the program.
o False

• When developing/writing an AT plan, host nation, SOFA, and ______ legal considerations must be addressed.
o Jurisdictional

• An AT plan will NOT be considered complete unless it is <1> ___________ and <2>___________.
o Signed
o Exercised

• Conduct comprehensive field and staff training to exercise AT plans at least ________. Ensure AT exercises encompass all aspects of AT and physical security plans.
o Annually

• Which of the following is NOT considered a minimum essential element of an AT plan?
o Intelligence Support

• When the FPCON checklist is linked to the AT plan, the entire document shall be classified at which level?
o Confidential

• Establish____________ or other similarly constructed protocols with the appropriate local, state, and federal, or host-nation authorities to support AT plan execution, augment incident response, and post-incident consequence management activities.
o Mutual Aid Agreements

• AT plans incorporate the terrorist threat into the Base Defense Plan.
o True

• Click on the correct area of the Advanced Mode home page that displays information about your primary organization.
o “ORGANIZATION”

• Drag and drop each step of the Incorporating AT Security Consideration process to place them in the correct order.
o Determine contract requirements
o Conduct AT risk assessment
o Determine AT security requirements
o Build the contract
o Award/Execute the contract
o Contract review

• At overseas locations which of the following documents prescribe guidance for the contracting process with regard to host nation service providers. Select all correct answers.
o SOFA
o MOA

• On which flight on 11 September 2001, did the passengers attempt to retake the airliner during a terrorist takeover?
o United Flight 93

• The six who plotted the 2007 attack on Fort Dix were part of a home grown terrorist group.
o False

• Which of the following references is cited as an AT planning tool?
o AFM 10-4-1, Volume 2, Planning Formats and Guide
o Joint Pub 5-00.2, Joint Task Force Planning Guidance and Procedures
o Joint Antiterrorism Program Managers Guide

• From 18 September 2001 to 9 October 2001 as many as ___________ letters containing anthrax were mailed to addresses in Washington D.C. and New York.
o 7

• What did terrorists use to attack the USS Cole?
o Bomb-laden Boat

• In August of 1998 two US Embassies were bombed. Where did these attacks take place?
o Africa

• After which bombing in 1996 did the DoD renew its efforts to improve force protection against terrorism while remaining engaged in the Middle East region.
o Khobar Towers in Saudi Arabia

• How or why was SPC Edward F. Pimental killed?
o Killed for his Base ID to enable terrorists to detonate a bombe inside the Rhein-Mein Air Base near Frankfurt

• What happened to Brigadier General James Dozier and where did it take place?
o Kidnapped while in
o His home

• Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols were convicted for which terrorist bombing?
o Murrah Federal Building in OKC

• Which of the following is/are required annexes when developing a basic AT plan?
o Intelligence
o Logistics
o Medical Services/Force Health Protection

• The Commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan; however, the Security Forces Commander is normally assigned the task of actually writing the plan.
o False

• When integrating an AT plan with integrated defense plans, the new plan should be seamless in requirements and application.
o True

• The AT plan must ensure the installation can warn its resident population in affected areas of CBRNE hazard identification immediately, but no longer than _______ minutes after detection.
o 10

• Funds must be obligated within ______ days
o 90

• CVAMP functionality is determined by your
o Role

• Observations from the final report must be input into CVAMP within 60 days of receipt.
o True

• AFI 10-245 is an Air Force instruction that implements the instructions in DoDI 2000.12 and DoDI 2000.16
o True

• CVAMP is an optional tool used to manage Vulnerability Assessments (VA)
o False

• Which of the following are roles assignable to a CVAMP user?
o Commander
o Resource Advisor
o ATO
o System Administrator
o Assessor

• In CVAMP, programmatic observations are those that the Commander can write a policy, regulation or anything with his/her signature block to correct the deficiency.
o False

• Vulnerability Assessments must be entered into CVAMP within how many days of the final report?
o 120

• When submitting a funding request in CVAMP, the assessment must be less than ______ years old.

• _________ are responsible for ensuring AT security measures are included in the contracting process.
o Commanders

• The ATO and ____ are responsible for ensuring the application of the Commander’s guidance.
o Contracting Officer

Classification of Trm Orgs (Categories)
1.
2.
3.

1. gov't affiliation
2. motivation
3. ideological

Motivation Categories
1.
2.
3.
4.

1. separatist
2. ethnocentric
3. nationalistic
4. revolutionary

Gov't Categories
1.
2.
3.

1. State directed
2. State supported
3. Non-state supported

Ideological Categories
1.
2.
3.

1. political
2. religious
3. social

Active supporters
1. active in _______
2. act as _______
3. T/F: They are fully aware of their relationship
4. T/F: They do NOT commit violent acts

1. fundraising
2. ally / partner
3. True: they are fully aware of their relationship
4. True: do NOT commit violent acts

Basic operational unit of group is ________

cellular

Networked structures
1.
2.
3.

1. chain
2. all-channel
3. hub - star

CBRNE
C_
B_
R_
N_
E_

Chemical
Biological
Radiological
Nuclear
Explosives (high yield)

Main US gov't agency for non-domestic trm intel

National Counter Terrorism Center

DoD's own center on domestic/foreign trm that threatens DoD entities

Defense Combating Trm Center

Navy's own org for trm

(MTAC) Navy Multiple Threat Alert Center

Explain Threat Level : Low

No group is detected / nor-threatening

Explain Threat Level : Moderate

-present, but no indication of anti-US activity
-op env't favors US/host country

Explain Threat Level : Significant

-anti US, desire large casualties, but limited operating capability

Good _____ ____ ____ ____ _____ products help us ID facts about installation, terrain, threat

Intel prep of the Battlespace

No Double Standard Policy

Intel affecting public must be disseminated as widely as possible

What org is responsible to disseminate trm threat warnings to domestic/overseas DoD personnel?

DIA

What is used for issuing warning reports to USN/USMC?

MTAC Blue Dart Message

AT Annual threat assessment at command must assess:
1.
2.
3.
4.

1. feasible full range of trst capabilities
2. VA
3. countermeasures
4. CBRNE threat (required)

ATO's should assess trm threat for ______ and _____ of occurrence
(Note: see ____ _____)

ATO's should assess trm threat for PROBABILITY and SEVERITY of occurrence

(note: see Threat Matrix)

Threat Matrix purpose
1. prepare AT ______ assessment
2. planning tool to counter specific ______
3. tool to determine risk ______

1. prepare AT THREAT assessment
2. planning tool to counter specific THREATS
3. tool to determine risk ACCEPTANCE

______ _____ _____ determines criticality of each asset, which helps to _______ them

CRITICALITY ASSET MATRIX determines criticality of each asset, which helps to PRIORITIZE them

to reduce risk, what one method is controllable?

vulnerability

T/F: An asset that is very vulnerable therefore has the highest risk.

False: An asset that is very vulnerable does NOT necessarily have the highest risk

Vulnerability Assessment Tool (acronym, spell out)

CARVER:
Criticality
Accessibility
RecOVERABILITY
Vulnerability
Effect
Recognizability

Trm is for what audiences?
1.
2.
3.

1. Terrorists (we succeeded!)
2. Communities (you are not safe!)
3. international community (support us or you'll be next!)

This NCIS team assesses ports / liberty venues, ISO Navy AT

(STAAT) Security Training Assistance and Assessment Team

Provides short term security augmentation for installations, ships, USN HV assets

(FAST) Fleet Anti Trm Security Teams

List the Threat analysis (TA) Methods
1.
2.
3.
4.

1. operational capability
2. intentions
3. activity
4. operating env't

AT Threat Matrix equation

Probability x Severity = Threat probability

List levels of AT training
Level I:
Level II:
Level III:
Level IV:

Level I: AAT (Anti trm awareness training)
Level II: ATO
Level III: COAT (for CO's)
Level IV: Executive Seminar

List Steps in AT Risk Management
Step 1:
Step 2:
Step 3:

Step 1: CA (ID critical assets)
Step 2: TA
Step 3: VA

Mission Criteria scale deals with mission _______ if ______ by terrorist

Scale of 1 to 5, 1 means _____ and 5 means _____.

Mission Criteria scale deals with mission DEGRADATION if ATTACKED by terrorist

Scale of 1 to 5, 1 means NO EFFECT and 5 means CANNOT CARRY OUT MISSION.

Types of VA's, Ashore
1.
2.
3.

1. Local VA (LVAS)
2. Higher HQ VA (HHOA)
3. Joint Staff integrated VA (JSIVA)

Define Vulnerability

In _________, a situation if _______ _______, may result in _____ ____ _____ or _______ to mission-essential resources.

In ANTI TERRORISM, a situation if LEFT UNCHANGED, may result in LOSS OF LIFE or DAMAGE to mission-essential resources.

RADAR

commonly applied to electronic equipment used to detect the presence of objects and to determine their direction, altitude and range by means of reflected radio waves.

search radar

continuously scans a volume of space and provides initial detection of all targets within that space.

Surface, Air, and Height finding

3 types of search radars

2d or 3d

2 types of air search radars

Tracking radar

provides continuous positional data on a target.used primarily as as fire control radar.

designation, Aquisition, and track

3 phases of tracking radar

missile-guidance radar

provides information used to guide a missile to a hostile target

Approach radar

type of radar used to guide aircraft to a safe landing under conditions approaching zero visibility.

Ground-controlled and Carrier-controlled

2 types of approach radar

Airborne radar

type of radar designed especially to meet strict space and weight limitations.

Pulse modulation, frequency modulation, continuous wave, and pulse doppler Method

4 methods of transmission

Pulse Modulation Method

method where RF energy is transmitted into short bursts, called pulses.duration of pulse is very short, usually on the order of 0.1usec - 50usec.

frequency modulation method

method where the transmitter radiates RF waves whose frequency is continually increasing and decreasing from a fixed reference frequency.

continuous wave method

method that operates of the principle of the doppler effect.

pulse doppler method

a modification of a pulse radar system using doppler effect to detect moving targets.

162,000

Rf energy travels at the speed of light (______ nautical miles per sec)

Radiated RF energy

measurement of range, or distance, is possible because _____ ___ _________ travels through space in a straight line at a constant speed.

6.18 usec

for one-wave travel a total time of ______ will elapse per nautical mile.

12.38 usec

for two-way travel, a total time of ______ will elapse per nautical mile.

minimum

the ________ range is determined by the time of the transmitter pulse, or pulse width (PW).
(pw)*(164yds) or PW/12.36usec

Maximum

_________ Range depends upon carrier frequency, peak power, pulse repetition frequency(PRF) or pulse repetition rate (PRR) and receiver sensitivity.

Pulse repetition frequency

the number of pulses radiated in one second.

Pulse repetition time (PRT)

the time between the beginning of one pulse and the start of the next one is called__________.

Range resolution

the minimum resolvable separation, in range, of two targets on the same bearing.

one pulse

two targets on the same line of bearing in order to be seen as two targets must be at least ____ _____ width.

Azimuth (bearing) resolution

the ability to separate targets at the same range but on different bearings; a function of the antenna beam width and the range of the target.

one beam

two targets at the same range, in order to be resolved as two targets must be at least ____ _____ width.

slant range

the range measurement including the effect of difference in altitude.

pulse shape

the shape and width of the RF pulse influence minimum range, range accuracy, and maximum range.

Square

the ideal pulse shape is ______ having sharp vertical leading and trailing edges.

Synchronizer

the heart of the system, produces trigger pulses that start the transmitter, indicator sweep, and ranging circuits.

transmitter

generates powerful pulses of electromagnetic energy at precise intervals.

Dummy load

a device used at the end of a transmission line or waveguide to convert transmitted energy into heat.

Antenna

the _______ routes the pulse from the transmitter, radiates it ina directional beam, picks up the returned echo and passes it to the receiver with minimum losses.

receiver

accepts the weak echo signals from the antenna, amplifies and detects the pulses, and sends signals to the indicator.

indicator

uses the detected signals from the receiver to produce a visual indication of the target.

power supply

supplies all the voltages required for the operation.

NAVAIR maintenance instruction manual (MIM)

to provide information and instruction required to perform maintenance on an aircraft and/or aircraft system.

prefix

letter designator that indicates system command or authority.

1

part __ is the category of the publication. two digit number identifier and possibly a letter.

00, 01, 02

__ is used for general manuals, ___ is for aircraft, targets, and drones, __ is for powerplants.

2

part __ is the standard designator made up of number which denote the manufacturer, and letters indicating aircraft of a specific class, group, type, or model.

3

part __ is the number designator. designates type of manual.

NATOPS flight manual, maintenance instruction manual,structural repair manual, illustrated parts breakdown.

-1 is for ______ _______ _______, -2 is for ______ _______ _______, -3 is for ______ _______ _______, -4 is for ______ _______ _______.

master trigger generator card, sweep generator card, range marks/heading marker generator card, power supply card.

the 4 Synchronizer components.

50ns, 600, 700, 800, 1000

the master trigger generator card produces __ ns master trigger pulses at PRF's of ___, ___, ___, ___ Hz.

PRF CONTROL

the ___ ______ switch determines whether the triggers will be normal or staggered.

Normal

______ PRF is used during normal operations.

Staggered

_______ is used when the radar signal is suspected of "being jammed"

sweep generator card

produces the reference sweep, the negative sweep gate, and the positive sweep gate when triggered by the sync trigger.

Trapezoidal

the reference sweep signal is a ________ waveform whose rise time (sweep time) is proportional to the selected range; longer the range, the longer the sweep.

Antenna

the reference sweep signal is routed to the _______ unit.

positive, Rectangular

the ________ sweep is a _______ waveform whose positive pulse-width corresponds to the sweep time of the reference sweep signal.

receiver

the positive sweep signal is routed to the ________ unit and to the range marks/heading marker generator card.

negative, Rectangular

the _______ sweep is a ________ waveform whose negative pulse-width corresponds to the sweep time of the reference sweep signal.

indicator

the negative sweep gate is routed to the ________ unit.

Range marks/heading marker generator card

produces range marks signals which are routed to the indicator unit and result in the range marks on the CRT. produces a heading marker when a heading marker trigger is received from the antenna unit.

power supply card

is a triple output power supply that provides the 5, 12 and -12 VDC operating voltages for the synchronizer.

plan-position indicator

this radar set uses a plan position indicator display, which displays targets on a map-like presentation.

Range , bearing, relative size

the types of target information that cane be displayed are _____, _______, ________.

Nautical miles

range is measured in ______ _______.

Range select

setting of the _______ ________ switch determines maximum range displayed.

10, 20, 50, 100, 150

the possible ranges are __, ___, ___, ___, and ___.

Cursor, Cursor

the _______ is an electrically generated strobe that normally originates in the center of the CRT and maybe extended to any other point with the _______ range track ball on the RSC.

Range marks

the distance between range marks is determined by the _______ _______ switch setting.

true, relative

bearing information can be either _____ or _______ bearing.

Bearing

true _______ determines the target bearing relative to true north.

heading information

is supplied by the aircraft navigation system via the TAC computer.

Relative

__________ bearing determines the target bearing relative to own aircraft heading.

microswitch

a ________ located on the antenna unit produces the heading marker pulse.

signal controller/generator , agile modulator/demodulator, power controller

the transmitter consists of 3 parts: _________________card, __________________card, ________________card.

pulse transformer, control synchros

the transmitter has several chassis-mounted components: the magnetron, _____ ________, pulse forming networks, ____ _______, and motor-drive assembly.

signal controller/generator card

provides timing and control functions for the transmitter.

Agile modulator/demodulator card

varies the frequency of the magnetron when the FREQ CONTROL switch is in agile , and provides control signals to the receiver to tune the local oscillator to the proper frequency.

power controller card

supplies all the operating voltages for the transmitter.

pulse width

can be one of three available depending on which PFN is selected by the pulse select switch on the RSC.

Long

_____ pulse width results in higher than average power; better for long range search.

short

______ pulse provides better range resolution for close-in targets and adjacent targets on the same line of bearing.

medium

______ pulse width is a compromise between long and short pulse widths.

main (sum), elevation difference, azimuth-difference

the radar receiver is made up of three singe superhetrodyne receivers: the _______ receiver, the ______ _______ receiver, and the _________-________ receiver.

Reflex klystron

The local oscillator is a special vacuum, called the ______ ________, that is tuned 30 MHz above transmitter frequency.

Balanced crystal

The _______ ________ mixer is mounted in a section of waveguide within the receiver and has the advantage of cancelling most oscillator noise.

Moving target indicator (MTI)

Produces an output for moving targets only

Automatic frequency control (AFC)

Automatically keeps the frequency of the local oscillator 30MHz above the transmitter frequency by sampling the transmitted RF via the directional coupler.

Automatic gain control (AGC)

Reduces the gain of selected IF Amplifier stages on a circuit card A2 during periods of high ambient noise.

Fast time constant (FTC)

Is a feature that emphasizes the leading edge and deemphasizes the remainder of all video pulses applied to the video amplifier.

Clutter operated anti-clutter

Reduces gain of selected IF amplifier stages for large target returns.

Antenna

Routes RF pulses from the transmitter and radiates them in a directional beam.

Azimuth

______ positioning is controlled by the RSC during Stop, Sector, and Scan and by the TAC computer in auto.

Scan, auto

In _____ and ______, the azimuth motor drive voltage is developed by the motor controller card and amplified sufficiently to drive the servo motor in the azimuth drive assembly.

Drive motor

The azimuth _______ ______ drives the reflector assembly clockwise at 6RPM

Sweep

The _______ resolver is a rotary electro-mechanical device, similar to a small motor.