Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

Article 2

Persons subject to the UCMJ:
1.) Are members of the regular armed forces
2.) Are awaiting discharge afyer an enlistment term has expired
3.) Have volunteered (from the time of enlistment or acceptance into the armed forces)
4.) Have been inducted formally as a military service member
5.) Are in the reserves
6.) Are retired members entitled to receive pay
7.) Are serving a sentence imposed by court-martial

Article 137

Rights of Service Members:
1.) Certain UCMJ articles must be explained to each enlisted member:
a.) Within 14 days of initial entrance on active duty
b.) After completing six months of active duty
c.) Upon reenlistment
2.) Service members have the right to see a copy of the UCMJ
a.) Will be made available to anyone for review upon their request
b.) If you want to see the UCMJ while at RTC, ask your Recruit Division Commander (RDC)

Article 138

Complaints of wrongs:
1.) Service members who believe they have been wronged by their Commanding Officer (CO) have the right to file a complaint
2.) If the CO does not act to correct a wrongful situation, the service member may complain to any superior commissioned officer

Article 92
(a)

Any person is punishable under the UCMJ who violates or fails to obey any lawful order or regulation:
1.) Lawful orders
a.) Must be given by competent authority
b.) Require the performance of military duty
c.) Must accomplish a military mission
d.) Must promote the morale, discipline, and usefulness of members of the command
e.) Must be directly connected with the maintenance of good order

Article 92
(b)

Any person is punishable under the UCMJ who is derelict (negligent) in the performance of their duties

Article 92
(c)

Examples:
1.) As a result of failure to obey a lawful order by using racially explicit language, an Airman Recruit: a.) Was required to forfeit 1/2 month's pay $669.00
b.) Lost their nuclear clearance eligibility and was reclassified
c.) Received an entry in their service record to document the misconduct
2.) As a result of failure to obey a lawful order by writing letters of a personal nature and having a personal relationship with a female Seaman Recruit while in training status, a male Seaman Recruit was required to forfeit 14 day's pay $625.00

Article 128
(a)

Any person is guilty of assault who:
1.) Attempts or threatens another with violence or bodily harm
2.) Consummates (carries out) the threats and violence

Article 128
(b)

Example:
1.) A Fireman Recruit was found guilty of assaulting a Seaman Recruit by pushing him into a locker and rack
2.) The FR was awarded forfeiture of 1/2 month's pay $669.00

Article 91
(a)

Any Warrant Officer or enlisted member is punishable under the UCMJ who:
1.) Strikes or assaults a Warrant Officer, Chief Petty Officer, or Petty Officer
2.) Willingly disobeys the lawful order of a Warrant Officer, noncommissioned officer, or Petty Officer
3.) Threats with contempt or is disrespectful in language or a person's behavior or manners towards a Warrant Officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer

Article 91
(b)

Example:
1.) A seaman Recruit was found guilty of using disrespectful language toward a Chief because of saying to her, "Chief, you can kiss my #$%."
2.) The Seaman Recruit was awarded forfeiture of 1/2 month's pay $669.00

Article 78

Accessory after the fact--A person that knows a crime has been committed can be punished for assisting the offender to avoid capture

Article 80

Attempts--Persons who attempt to commit a crime and fails can be punished under the UCMJ

Article 81

Conspiracy-- Ay person who conspires ever tu any other person to commit a crime can be punished by court-martial

Article 82

Solicitation-- Any person who solicits or advises another to commit any of the following, can be punished under the UCMJ:
a.) Desertion
b.) Mutiny and sedition (hostile action against the U.S. government)
c.) Misbehavior before the enemy

Article 83

Fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or separation-- Any person who procures their own military enlistment, appointment, or separation by providing false information can be punished under the UCMJ

Article 84

Unlawful enlistment, appointment, or separation of any person known to be ineligible because it is prohibited by law, regulation, or order, can be punished under the UCMJ

Article 86, Absence without Leave

This article prohibits you from being absent from your appointed place of duty, either by failing to go to your place of duty, or by leaving your place of duty without permission.

Article 89, Disrespect Toward a Superior Commissioned Officer

Any behavior which is disrespectful to a superior commissioned officer may be punished by this article failure to salute can be interpreted as disrespect towards a commissioned officer.

Article 90, Assaulting or Willfully Disobeying a Superior Commissioned Officer

This article makes it an offense to a superior commissioned offense to a superior commissioned officer or to refusion to obey an order given by a superior commissioned officer.

Article 91, Insubordinate Conduct Toward a Warrant Officer, NCO or Petty Officer

This article prohibits striking, willfully disobeying, or displaying a disrespect towards a warrant officer, NCO or petty officer.

Article 115, Malingering

This article makes it an offense for a person to feign an illness or infilct an injury upon themselves to avoid work or training.

Article 121, Larceny and Wrongful Appropriation

Any person who wrongfully takes, obtains, or withholds, from the owner any money, personal property, or article of value of any kind 1. with the intent to permanently deprive or defraud another person of the use and benefit of the property, is guilty of larceny; or 2. with an intent to temporarily deprive or defraud another person of the use and benefit of the property, is guilty of wrongful appropriation.

Article 128, Assault

Any person who attempts with unlawful force force or violence to do bodily harm to another person, whether or not that attempt or officer is consummated, is guilty of assault and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.

Article 134, General Article

This article prohibits all conduct prejudicial to the good order and discipline of the armed forces, and all conduct of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces. Some examples of violation under article 134 are failure to pay debts, worthless checks, fleeing the scene of an accident, adultery and bribery.

Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP) Article 15 is Non-Judicial Punishment (Office hours)

The purpose of NJP is to provide commanders with an essential and prompt means of maintaining good order and discipline and to promote positive behavior changes in service members without the stigma of a court-martial. Article 15 hearing are held by the commanding officer to determine whether or not a violation of the UCMJ has been committed.

Nature and Purpose of Military Law (General Purpose)

Entering the Military is akin to entering a new society, and with this new society you are subject to a new legal system. The military legal system is similar to the civilian legal system, except that the military legal system was expressly created by Congress to provide for the unique demands of the military.

Nature and Purpose of Military Law (Specific Purpose)

1. Promote Justice (provides commanders with a means to ensure adequate and fair justice awarded to all members)
2. Maintain Good Order and Discipline (Ensures that all service members protected by the same rules and regulations to prevent unjust actions against them. This in turn ensures that all service members conduct themselves in accordance with the same rules and regulations)
3. Promote Efficiency and Effectiveness (allows for adjudication to be conducted quickly because it is the same rules for everyone. Can be adjudicated in any environment)
4. Strengthen National Security (makes organization more efficient and cohesive)

Nature and Purpose of Military Law (Who Administers It)

It is the commanders responsibility to deal with infraction of military custom and law. The commander has a full range of responses, from verbal or written counseling all the way up to punitive measures (imprisonment and even the death penalty)

Personnel Subject to the UCMJ

1. Active Duty
2. Cadets (aviation cadets and midshipmen)
3. Retired members (this includes certain retired military members while still receiving pay or hospitalization)
4. Reservists (even while on inactive duty)
5. Enemy POWs
6. Prisoners (those who have been court marshaled and are in custody, even if they have been discharged)
7. Civilians (Two categories: Public Health Service and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration; Civilians serving with the military in time of war)

Rights of the Accused in the UCMJ and Article 31

Specific article that deals with these rights is article 31, which is similar to Miranda warnings. This article was designed to protect against the possibility of coercion in a military senior/subordinate relationship that could occur in an interrogation setting.

Article 31

Under this article, no interrogation or request for a statement from the accused or suspected person can occur until:
1. Informing the accused or suspect of the accusation
2. Advising the accused or suspect that the accused or suspect has the right to remain silent
3. '' '' any voluntary statement made may be used as evidence against the accused or suspect in a trial by court martial
4. '' '' is entitled to consult with counsel and have such counsel present at the interrogation

Other Rights of the Accused in the UCMJ

1. The accused or suspect has the right to privilege against self-incrimination. If the accused or suspects exercise the privilege against self-incrimination, question must cease immediately.
2. Any statement obtained by the accused or suspect during interrogation is involuntary if it is obtained through the use of coercion, unlawful influence, or unlawful inducement and may not be used as evidence in a trial by court-martial.

Reporting an offense in the UCMJ

Anyone can, civilian or military. Any military authority can receive the report, but usually it is military law enforcement personnel, investigative personnel, or directly to the suspects chain of command. These violations, depending on their nature, should be reported as soon as possible to the suspect's chain of command.

Authorized Punishments Under the UCMJ

1. Reprimand (oral or written censure in M's service record book. Ends career or severely delay promotion)
2. Forfeiture of Pay and Allowances
3. Fine
4. Extra Duty (cannot be degrading)
5. Reduction in Grade (only applies to enlisted personnel)
6. Restriction to Specific Limits (deprives normal liberty privileges)
7. Arrest in Quarters (House arrest, only applies to officers)
8. Hard Labor without Confinement (only enlisted)
9. Confinement on Bread and Water
10. Confinement
11. Punitive Discharge
12. Death

Non-Judicial Punishment (Article 15)

NJP is an adjudication option provided for by Article 15 of the UCMJ. NJP is a disciplinary measure more serious than the admin corrective measure, but less serious than trial by court-martial.

Purpose of NJP

The purpose of NJP is to provide commanders with a prompt and essential means for maintaining good order and discipline, and also serves to promote positive changes in service member. Also, and one of the major reasons for the NJP, is it serves to correct misconduct without attaching the stigma of a court-martial conviction.

What constitutes a minor offense for the NJP

Those offenses for which the maximum confinement allowed is no longer than one year and would not include a dishonorable discharge if tried at a general court-martial.

Right to Refuse NJP

Except for those attached to or embarked on a vessel, punishment may not be imposed under Article 15 upon any member of the AF who has, before the NJP was invoked, demanded trial by court-marital in lieu of NJP.

PRocedure for NJP Appeals

1. In general: Any service member punished under Article 15 who consider the punishment unjust or disproportionate to the offense committed can appeal it through the proper channels to the next superior authority
2. Format of appeal: Appeals shall be in writing and may include the appellant's reasons for regarding the punishment as unjust or disproportionate.
3. Time limit: Has to be submitted within 5 days of the punishment being handed down, or the right to appeal will be waived in the absence of good cause shown (essentially if no reason for the delay)

Punishments Under NJP (not as important to know)

1. Officer punishment from CO (Restriction to specific limits for 30 days)
2. Officer punishments from officer imposing General Court Martial Jurisdiction (Arrest in quarter for 30 days, forfeiture of one half one months pays per month for two months, restriction to specific limits for 60 days)
3. Enlisted from Commander: Confinement on bread and water for 3 days, forfeiture of 7 days pay for one months, reduction of next inferior pay grade, extra duty for 14 days, restriction to specific limits for 14 days.
4. Enlisted from CO (forfeiture of one half one months pays per month for two months, restriction to specific limits for 60 days, extra duty for 45 days, Reduce to the lowest or intermediate pay grade unless E% and above)

Summary Court Martial (SCM)

Summary courts-martial have jurisdiction to try persons subject ot the UCMJ, except officers, cadets, aviation cadets, and midshipmen, for any non-capital offense made punishable by the Manual for Courts Martial.

Composition of SCM

Composed of one commissioned officer on active duty

Maximum Punishments for E1 to E4

1. Confinement for 30 days
2. 45 days hard labor without confinement
3. 60 days restriction
4. Forfeiture of 2/3 pay for one months
5. Reduction to the lowest pay grad

Maximum Punishments for E5 to E9

1. Restriction for 60 days
2. Forfeiture of 2/3 pay for one month
3. Reduction by one pay grade

Special Court Marital

Have jurisdiction to try persons subject to the UCMJ for any non-capital offense made punishable by the Manual for Courts-Marital and, under such regulations as the PResident may prescribe, for capital offenses.

Special Court Marital Composition of Court

1. Not less than three members
2. A military judge and not less than three members
3. Only a military judge, if one has been detailed to the court, and the accused so requests
4. If the accused is enlisted, they may request that one third of the court be composed of enlisted

Special Court Marital Maximum Punishments

1. Confinement for 12 months
2. Hard labor without confinement for 3 months
3. Forfeiture of 2/3 pay for 12 months
4. Reduction to the lowest pay grade
5. Bad-conduct discharge

General Court-Martial

Has jurisdiction to try persons subject to the UCMJ for any capital offense made punishable by the Manual for Courts-Martial and, under such regulations where death is an authorized punishment

General Court-Martial Composition of Court

1. A military judge and not less than five members or
2. Only a military judge, if the accused so requests
3. If the accused is enlisted, they may request that one third of the court be composed of enlisted personnel

General Court-Martial Maximum Punishments

1. Confinement for life, with or without the chance of parole
2. Forfeiture of all pay and allowances
3. Dismissal, dishonorable discharge
4. Death

When a person is absent from his unit, organization or place of duty at which he is required to be at the time prescribed, or he fails to go to his appointed place of duty at the time prescribed, he is in violation of what article?

86

The purpose of the UCMJ is

To ensure good order and discipline and to provide a means of adjudicating infractions of the law.

Article 2

Persons subject to UCMJ

Article 15

Nonjudicial Punishment

Article 31

Compulsory Self Incrimination Prohibited (5th Amendment)

Articles 77-134

Punitive Articles

Article 138

Complaint of Wrongs

Article 55

Cruel and unusual Punishment Prohibited

Article 86

Absence without Leave

Article 87

Missing Movement

Article 91

Insubordinate Counduct toward WO, Noncommissioned Officer or Petty Officer.

Article 92

Failue to Obey Order or Regulation

Article 107

False Statement

Article 108

Damage to Military Property

Article 111

Drunken or Reckless Driving

Article 112

Drunk on Duty

Article 112a

Possession/Wrongful Use of Controlled Substances

Article 114

Dueling

Article 115

Malingering

Article 120

Rape and Carnal Knowledge

Article 128

Assault

Types of Punishment

- Restriction
- Correctional Custody
- Confinement on Bread and Water or diminished rations.
- Extra Duty- no more than 2 hours after work.
- Forfeiture of Pay- no longer than 1 year.

What is the purpose of the UCMJ?

It promotes good order and discipline, and provides a basis for the administration of justice for the Armed
Forces.

Who is responsible for upholding the UCMJ?

All members of the Armed Forces.

Article 86 in the UCMJ covers?

Unauthorized Absence (UA)

Article 89 in the UCMJ covers?

Disrespect toward a superior commissioned officer

Article 90 in the UCMJ covers?

Assaulting or willfully disobeying superior commissioned officer

Article 91 in the UCMJ covers?

Insubordinate conduct toward warrant officer, non-commissioned officer, or petty officer

Article 92 in the UCMJ covers?

Failure to obey order or regulation

Article 112a in the UCMJ covers?

Wrongful use, possession, etc., of controlled substances

Article 113 in the UCMJ covers?

Misbehavior of sentinel or lookout

Article 121 in the UCMJ covers?

Larceny and wrongful appropriation

Article 128 in the UCMJ covers?

Assault

Article 133 in the UCMJ covers?

Conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman

Article 134 in the UCMJ covers?

General article

Procedural Articles

1-76 and 135-146, Devoted to administration of UCMJ

Punitive Articles

77-134, For crimes for which you may be punished if found guilty of violation

Key Articles of UCMJ: 15

Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP)

Key Articles of UCMJ: 31

Rights of the Accused

Key Articles of UCMJ: 86

Unauthorized Absence (UA, AWOL)

Key Articles of UCMJ: 89

Disrespect towards a superior commissioned officer

Key Articles of UCMJ: 90

Assault or disobeying a superior commissioned officer

Key Articles of UCMJ: 91

Insubordinate conduct toward a Warrant Officer, NCO, or Petty Officer

Key Articles of UCMJ: 120

Sexual Assault

Key Articles of UCMJ: 121

Larceny (Theft)

Key Articles of UCMJ: 128

Assault

Key Articles of UCMJ: 134

General Articles

Subject to the UCMJ

All members of the military, including active duty, students at military academies, and POWs

Rights of the Accused

Right to talk to a lawyer, Right to a speedy trial, Right to remain silent, Protection from double jeopardy

Types of Court Martial

Summary Court Martial, Special Court Martial, and General Court Martial

Types of Discharges

Honorable, General (Under Honorable Conditions), Other Than Honorable, Bad Conduct Discharge, and Dishonorable

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Reprimand; Oral or written (least severe)

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Forfeiture of pay and allowances; no pay check

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Fine of monetary value

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Reduction of paygrade; demotion

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Restriction; confine to quarters

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Hard labor without confinement, in addition to regular duties

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Confinement; police custody

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations; may only be given to enlisted

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Punitive Discharge; discharge with a bad conduct or dishonorable status

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Death; only by General Court Martial

Forms of Punishment for violations of UCMJ

Loss of number; loss of lineal standing

Responsible for enforcing the UCMJ

ALL Commanders

Marine Corps' policy on drugs

zero tolerance

Marine Corps' policy on hazing

prohibited

Marine Corps' policy on sexual assault

It is a criminal act and will not be tolerated

Sexual Harrassment

unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature

Sexual Assault Reporting Options

Restricted: allows soldier and adult family members to disclose details of sexual assault to specifically identified individuals and receive medical treatment and counseling, without initiating an official investigation.
Unrestricted: allows victim who desire medical treatment, counseling, and an official investigation of the allegation to report the incident to the SARC/SHARP or VA/SHARP specialist, chain of command or law enforcement.

Informal Resolution System (IRS)

Developed to help resolve conflict due to discrimination

Request Mast

Direct approach, informal third party approach, training information resources

Purpose of nonjudicial punishment (NJP)

Provides commanders with tools to maintain good order and discipline and promotes positive behavior changes

Purpose

To promote good and discipline in the military service. Provides a basis for the administration of the Armed Forces. All members of the Armed Forces are responsible for upholding the UCMJ.
NJP is not just for major offenses =. Considered appropriate for breaking restriction.

Article 15

NJP Non-Judicial Punishment

Article 31

Compulsory Self-Incrimination Prohibited

Article 76

Fraternization

Article 86

Absent without leave UA

Article 89

Disrespect towards a superior commissioned officer. Disrespect

Article 90

Assault or willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer. Disobey/Assault

Article 91

Insubordinate conduct toward warrant officer, non-commissioned officer, or petty officer. Insubordination

Article 111

Drunken or Reckless driving

Article 115

Malingering

Article 121

Larceny

Article 128

Assualt

Article 134

General Article

Article 120, 125, 134, 137

Rape Articles

Forms of Punishment

Reprimand, Forfeiture of pay and allowances, Fine, Loss of numbers, Reduction, Restriction, Hard labor without confinement. Confinement, Confinement to bread and water, Punitive separation, Death.

3 types of Courts Martial

Summary - lowest level NJP
Special - confinement or bad conduct
General - under Honorable
Bad Conduct: Convicted of a general or special court-martial

1st Person with NJP Authority

Company Commander

PURPOSE

To promote good order and discipline in the military service. Provides a basis for the administration of the Armed Forces. All members of the Armed Forces are responsible for upholding all UCMJ.

ARTICLE 31

Compulsory (Self-Incrimination) prohibited.

ARTICLE 86

Absent without leave (UA).

ARTICLE 89

Disrespect towards a superior commissioned officer. (DISRESPECT).

ARTICLE 90

Assault or willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer. (DISOBEY/ ASSULT).

ARTICLE 91

Insubordinate conduct toward a Warrant Officer, Noncommissioned Officer, or Petty Officer. (Insubordination).

ARTICLE 115

Malingering

ARTICLE 121

Larceny

ARTICLE 128

Assault

ARTICLE 134

General Article

ARTICLES 120, 125, 134, 137

Rape Articles

REPRIMAND (P.)

Given orally or in writing.

FORTEITURE OF PAY & ALLOWANCES (P.)

Being deprived of future monies earned as a result of military service.

FINE (P.)

Makes liable for a specified amount.

LOSS OF NUMBERS (P.)

SNCO & Officers take away promotion selection.

REDUCTION (P.)

Reducing pay grade.

RESTRICTION (P.)

Deprives accused of normal liberty.

HARD LABOR (P.)

without confinement.

CONFINEMENT (P.)

Correctional facility or brig.

CONFINEMENT TO BREAD AND WATER (P.)

Diminished rations.

PUNITIVE SEPARATION (P.)

Bad conduct or dishonorable discharge.

DEATH (P.)

Death

SUMMARY(CM)

Lowest level- Non-Judicial Punishment(NJP)

SPECIAL(CM)

Confinement or bad conduct.

GENERAL(CM)

Death penalty.

HONORABLE DISCHARGE

Discharge from military service with a favorable record and exceed the expectations for the mission.

GENERAL DISCHARGE UNDER HONORABLE CONDITIONS

Discharged with satisfactory but did not meet all the needs to get and honorable discharge.

GENERAL DISCHARGE OTHER THAN HONORABLE (OTH)

Marines that violate the UCMJ in a minor way are given this type of discharge.

BAD CONDUCT DISCHARGE (BCD)

Discharged by a General or Special Court-Martial, due to serious offenses and are given time in confinement. They are not given any type of veteran benefits.

DISHONORABLE DISCHARGE

A discharge due to a very serious military offense such as rape and murder. Discharged by a General Court-Martial. They have difficulties securing employment and have no veteran benefits.

1ST PERSON W/NJP AUTHORITY

Company Commander

ARTICLE 15

Allows a Commanding Officer to decide if one is innocent or guilty and administer proper form of punishment for minor offense that does not require Judicial hearing.

JKO Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM)

Define TCRM

using risk management concepts when time and resources are limited.

Identify terms used with TCRM

ABCD model.

What is the ABCD model?

Fundemental scientific principles, ability to focus individuals, increase their situational awareness.

What does A stand for?

A- Asses the situation

What does B stand for?

B- Balance Resources

What does C stand for?

C- Communicate

What does D stand for?

D- Do and Debrief

Situational Awareness (SA)

refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the current environment mirrors reality.

How many Risk Gauge colors are there?

4

What does Green mean?

Little chance of serious error.

What does Yellow mean?

Higher chance of serious error.

What does Red mean?

Very high chance of serious error.

What does Swooshing Arrow mean?

Return to good situational awareness.

Define Assessing the situation

In real time situation, it is essential to consider the event.

Define Balancing Resources

Make the correct decisions to mitigate risks.

Define Communication

Who needs to know? Who can help? Ensure everyone knows.

Define Do and Debrief

Do the mission and use the appropriate resources to mitigate risk.

How does Honor correlate with TCRM?

Keeping a keen sense of ethical conduct.

How does Courage correlate with TCRM?

The mental and moral strength to do whats right.

How does Commitment correlate with TCRM?

The day-to-day of every Navy man and women to work together as a team to improve the quality of their work.

Uniforms and Grooming

Describe the components of a Class A uniform

Long-sleeved dress shirt with tie and dress blouse

Describe the components of a Class B uniform

Long-sleeved dress shirt and tie
(no blouse)

Describe the components of a Class C uniform

Short-sleeved dress shirt

Describe the components of a Class D uniform

Station wear

During what dates do you wear Class B

Sept - May
ITS GOING TO B COLD
Put on a long sleeve.

During what dates do you wear Class C

June - Aug
Hace calor!

How may cell phones be worn on a uniform

On the belt, on either side of the body, to the rear of the elbow.
Devices shall not be visible from the front

How may hair be worn

Hair may not touch the bottom edge of the uniform shirt collar, ears or extend below the eyebrows.

What rings are permitted

Only a wedding or one ring
Only 1 at a time

On a Capt's cap which way do the bugles face

down

What side sleeve does the CFD patch go

Left

What side does the shoulder flag patch go

Right

When and how may you wear your bunker coat to for example QFA or FAS

Only Sep to May 31
You must remove the coat before entering the bldg

Probationary uniformed members shall wear their Department-issued candidate helmet shields for how long from their continuous service date

18 mo

What do you need to bring in order to exchange clothing at the commissary

City ID
2nd form of ID or credit card
Item of clothing to be exchanged

What reasons are you required to turn in your dept issued clothing

Retire
Resign
Fired
leave of absence

Who is not required to where a utility belt

Engineer

Are leather truckmen's belts allowed

no

All FS&R members are required to have their Bunker Coat and Pants cleaned and inspected how often ?

At least twice a year.

When placing your bunker gear to be cleaned, what needs to be written on the bag

The date placed in the cage.
The number of items . (Coat - 1, Pants - 1).
Your current assignment or requested delivery location. (Only members in relief positions shall have the option to have delivered to a firehouse of their choice)

If an FS&R member's Bunker Coat and Pants have a significant exposure (example: grossly contaminated with blood, body fluids, or chemicals during an incident), or are damaged and in need of a major repair, what do they do ?

Immediately notify their Company Officer, who shall request authorization for the specialized cleaning or repair and the issuance of Loaner Bunker Coat and Pants, through the chain of command to the appropriate Deputy District Chief.

Members shall clean their Protective Hoods by machine washing in cold or warm water not to exceed _____° F

130

You may not do this as a routine method of cleaning bunker gear

Brush the liner

Probationary uniformed members must wear their candidate helmet shields for how long

18 months

Uniform items, issued by the CFD Commissary, which may be directed or authorized for wear with the Basic Uniform Components. These items may be worn with the Basic Uniform Components at the member's discretion, unless otherwise directed.

These are Prescribed, Optional, Basic or Authorized

Prescribed

For male employees, Hair will be neat, clean, trimmed, and not extrude more than _____ from the scalp.

3"

male employees-Hair will not cover more than ___of the ear from the top and any part of the collar.

1"

Neatly trimmed moustaches may be worn, but will not extend more than _____ beyond the corners of the mouth or extend over the upper lip

1/2 inch

male-Beards and goatees shall be neatly trimmed and edged and shall not exceed ______ in length.

one quarter inch

Female sworn deputies-For sworn female employees, hair may not extend ________________, and must be styled in an upward sweep or bun if the length exceeds the shoulders. Non-sworn uniformed employees are permitted to display a more relaxed/neatly maintained hair style.

below the shoulders

For uniformed employees and employees who have direct contact with patients and/or inmates, fingernails shall not extend beyond the fingertip for males or exceed more than _______ from the end of the finger for females.

¼ inch

Excessive tattoos/body art/brands will not be exposed or visible (includes visible through the uniform) while in uniform. Excessive is defined as any tattoo/body art/brands that exceed ______

1/4 of the exposed body part

Existing Employees who obtain new tattoos/body art/brands not meeting the standards after the implementation of this policy are required to maintain complete coverage of the tattoos/body art/brands or initiate tattoos/body art/brands removal at their own expense upon ninety (_____ day written notification by the Human Resources director. Employees failing to cover, remove or alter unauthorized tattoos/body art/brands in a timely manner will be subject to disciplinary action

90 day

Days of uniform wear

Tuesday or Wednesday based on A/B schedule or when instructed by SASI

All day uniform wear policy

Uniform wear is required for the entire academic school day in order to receive full points for UI

All day uniform wear consequences

Repeat offenses will result in removal from AFJROTC class

All day uniform wear exceptions

Classes that could damage the uniform ex. Ceramics, Wood Shop, Auto Shop, or PE

When is Class C worn

1st and 4th academic quarters

When is Class B worn

2nd and 3rd academic quarters

When is Class A worn

All color guard events, promotions, change of command, national awards, and any other event instructed by SASI

When are ABUs worn

On the 4th and 8th inspection of the quarter unless otherwise instructed by SASI

What is Class C uniform

Dress blue uniform without tie/tie tab

What is Class B uniform

Dress blue uniform with tie/tie tab

What is Class A uniform

Dress blue uniform with tie/tie tab and blue dress coat (not lightweight jacket)

What color shoes and socks are worn with the dress blues uniform

Black

What color boots and sock are worn with the ABU

Sage green

What is ABU uniform

Airman battle uniform, Airforce digitized camo print blouse and trousers. Worn with ABU boots, belt, socks and hat.

What is PT uniform

Issued PT shirt, shorts, sweatpants, and hoodie. Wear your own athletic shoes.

T/F Male cadets can have ear piercings

False, male cadets cannot have visible piercings of any kind

T/F Female cadets can wear any earrings they wish

False, authorized earrings are small round or square white diamond, gold, white pearl, or silver earrings

T/F Male hair 2 inches in bulk as long as sides maintain a tapered appearance and do not touch the ears

True

T/F Female hair when tied up must not exceed 3 inches bulk

True

T/F Female cadets can only wear nail polish of conservative colors (i.e. nudes, light pink, french tips)

True, no extreme nail color may be worn AND polish must look neat and clean.

How many failed UIs will result in failure of class

3

How many failed academic quarters result in removal from class

2

When can a cadet makeup missed UIs

Under an excused absence, a cadet can makeup UI within the week or at the next class period.

T/F A cadet can makeup any UI, even if they just chose not to wear their uniform on the day of class

False, cadets can only makeup a UI if they had an excused absence.

T/F Cadets are responsible for cost of dry cleaning their uniform

True

When must a cadet pay for their uniform

Cadets are responsible for loss, damage, or failure to return their uniform, as well as all dry cleaning. Otherwise, the cost of the issued uniform $0.

When to wear cover/flight cap

EVERYTIME you are outdoors (even under an awning) and anytime armed with color guard or drill equipment

1.5 inches

For men, the bulk of hair shall not exceed _____.

1/4 inch

No portion of a mustache will extend more than _____ beyond the corners of the mouth.

2 inches

For women, the bulk of hair shall not exceed _____.

1/4 inch

For women, one pair of small, maximum _____, round ball-style gold, silver or pearl earrings is permitted.

1

For women, how many earrings can be worn in each earlobe?

2 inches

When authorized, sleeves will be rolled terminating at a point about _____ above the elbow.

Right

The cloth nametape is sewn above the _____ pocket.

Left

The cloth tape with "U.S. Coast Guard" is sewn above the _____ pocket.

2 - 4 inches

The bitter end of the standard black ODU belt shall extend _____ past the belt buckle.

Left

The bitter end of the standard black ODU belt shall extend to the wearer's _____.

POW/MIA/KIA are the only acceptable what ?

Bracelets

What mm for ball stud earrings?

4-6 mm

What is the size for pearl , diamond, gold, silver earrings ?

1/8"-1/4"

Woman's hair bulk ?

3 in

Finger nail white tip ?

1/4"

Hair claw

3" length 1" wide

Braid width

1/2"

Men's hair should be

Not blocked
Side burns bottom of ear
Not more than 1 1/2" of bulk

Backpacks only in what uniform

ODU

Computer bag over what shoulder in tropical blue or winter dress blue ?

Left shoulder

What uniform does men and women wear same tie ?

Winter dress blue

Tattoo eyebrows

1/8"

The ODU is not a

Liberty Uniform

Uniforms used for travel must be

Clean and presentable without holes, rips , tears, or stains

The standard USCGC ball cap is the official ball cap to be worn with the ODU and is required when on

TDY or visiting other units outside the members assigned AOR

When wearing the ODU what headgears are optional

Unit Ball Caps
Knit Watch Cap ( authorized for cold weather )
Cold weather cap ( authorized for cold/seasonal use only )

Unit ball caps if authorized may be worn at

Coast Guard and DOD facilities

ODU sleeves may be rolled up at the option of

Local Commands

When the sleeves of the ODU are rolled, the outside of the cuff is exposed forming a roll about ___inches wide stopping at a point about ___inches above the elbow

3" wide, About 2" above the elbow

Personnel E-4 and above shall have sew-on collar devices. ( ) devices are not authorized

Metal Collar

Cloth insignia is standard , ( ) insignias are not authorized

Metal

Trousers are to be ( ) when wearing the safety boots

Blouses

OFU trousers may be blouses by what two ways

Tucking them into the boots or by using blousing bands

If tucked into boots , the trouser legs should be

Shaped to present a blouses appearance

At training center Cape May, yo I will not

Tuck your pants into your boots

Blousing Bands will be located between the

2nd & 3rd boot eyelet from the top

The ODU buckle and belt tip of the standard must not be

Chipped and discolored

Standard ODU belt and buckle size

1 1/4"

ODU will be worn with composite safety boots that are how many inches high

8-10" high

Boots shall be

Well blackened and edges dressed and in good condition

Boot excess laces shall be

Tucked away so they cannot be seen

Members may optionally wear boots with similar characteristics and appearance. However footwear must comply with

American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM)

Socks can be what length

Knee length or mid calf

All visible portions of boot socks must be

Black

At no times shall the fleece liner jacket be worn

As a stand alone jacket

Unit provided cold/foul weather gear may be worn while performing

Work aboard the unit and while commuting to and from the unit

Gloves are an optional item and authorized for

Seasonal use only and can be worn with all uniforms

Men's hair - the lower hair line will not be

Block or square cut

Men's hair - hair will be groomed so that it does not touch

The ears or extend below the eyebrows with headgear removed , or interfere with proper wearing of military headgear

Men's hair bulk

1 1/2 "

Men's hair - side burns will not extend below

The lowest part of the external ear opening

Men's hair - if a shaving chit is authorized beard facial hair will be kept trimmed not to exceed

1/4"

Men's hair - circumstances may restrict the wearing of a mustache due to

Proper wearing of oxygen masks, gas masks, OBA equipment

Men's hair - mustache will not extend below

The lip line of the upper lip or beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and not beyond a vertical line drawn upward from the corners of the mouth

Women's hair bulk

2"

Women's hair bun

3"

Women's hair must not fall below

Bottom edge of collar

Men are not authorized to wear

Earrings

Women's earrings size

4-6mm or 1/8"-1/4"

Women's earrings authorized colors

Plain diamond, natural white pearl, gold or silver with a shiny or brushed matte finish

Women's earring shall be worn

In the earlobe only , one earring per ear lobe

Decorative or combination style earrings

Are not permitted

Hair ornaments such as ribbons

Are not authorized

Pins combs or cloth covered elastic bands similar to individuals hair

Are authorized

Scrunchies size and authorized colors

1" in width
Plain black, navy blue, brown, or color similar to individuals hair

Scrunchies that are not authorized

Large or Lacey scrunchies

What color barrettes are authorized

Plain barrettes of brown color or gold metallic are authorized but not to interfere with wearing of military headgear

Hairnets will be worn only if authorized and required

For specific duty

No tattoos or brand may be visible above the

Light blue shirt collar of the neck

Tattoos or brands must not be below the

Wrist

A single tattoo in the form of a ring is authorized on a wearers finger (not thumb) with limitations of

One tattoo per hand

Finger tattoo will not extend

Past the knuckle or first joint of the finger

Tattoos must be in

Good taste of the CG content policy

No tattoos or brands are authorized on the

Head or face including inside the mouth

Eyeliner tattoo shall not be brightly colored and no more than

1/8" wide and cannot extend past the outer corner of the eye

You may have no more than one brand and it cannot exceed

4" in length and width

No piercings other than those for earrings should

Be visible in any uniform

Women may have two piercing in each

Ear lobe ( should be small and inconspicuous)

U.S. Navy Ships

Surface Combatant Ships

Mission: Varies with the type of combatant ship. The Naval Reserve forces also completely and independently maintain and operate many surface combatant ships.

Aircraft Carriers

Mission: Carry, launch, and retrieve aircraft at sea.

CVN- Nuclear Powered

Cruisers

CG Mission: Protect battle groups from surface and air attacks as well as conduct land attacks

G- Guided Misseles

Frigates

FFG Mission: Escort other ships to protect them from submarines and perform coastal patrols

Destroyers

DDG Mission: Detect and engage enemy submarines, aircraft, and surface ships, conduct land attacks, and perform patrol, search, and rescue operations

Littoral Combat

LCS Mission: Perform anti-submarine Escort other ships to protect them from submarines and perform coastal patrols

Mine Warfar ships

Mission: clear mines from vital waterways

Mine-Countermeasures ships (Mine Warfare ship)

MCM Mission: Find and destroy moored and bottom mines

Coastal Mine Hunters (Mine Warfare ship)

MHC Mission: Detect and locate highly sophisticated mines.

Amphibious Ships

Mission: Land large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy shores

General Purpose Amphibious Assault Ships (Amphibious Ship)

LHA Mission: Transport and land marine personnel using helicopters, landing craft, and amphibious vehicles

Amphibious Assault ships, multipurpose (Amphibious Ship)

LHD Mission: Transport and land marine personnel and their equipment using heliocopters, landing craft, and amphibious vehicles. Perform antisubmarine warfare using heliocopters

Amphibious Transport Docks (Amphibious Ship)

LPD Mission: Transport and land personnel and equipment using heliocopter and landing craft

Dock Landing Ships (Amphibious Ship)

LSD Mission: Transport and land: Troops & Cargo, Amphibious vehicles, Landing vehicles including Landing Craft Air Cushion(LCAC)

Submarines

Mission: Varries with the type of submarine

Attack Submarine

SSN Mission: Locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines, conduct land attacks

Ballistic Missile Submarine

SSBN Mission: Launch ballistic missiles for attacks on enemy land targets

Guided Missile Submarine

SSGN Mission: Locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines, launch guided missiles for attacks on enemy land targets.

Auxilary Ships and Military Sealift

Mission: Provide support services for the fleet

Submarine Tenders (Aux. Ship & Military Sealift)

AS Mission: Service submarines

Fast Combat Support Ships (Aux. Ship & Military Sealift

T-AOE, T-AKE Mission: Carry fuel, ammunition, and supplies

Salvage Ship (Aux. Ship & Military Sealift

T-ARS Mission: Assist ships in distress and sunken vessels, towing vessels, performing manned diving operations

Aircraft Carrier Type

All ships designed primarily for the purpose of conducting combat operations by aircraft that engage in attacks against airborne, surface, sub-surface and shore targets

Surface Combatant Type

Large, heavily armed, surface ships that are designed primarily to engage enemy forces on the high seas

Submarine Type

All self-propelled submersible types regardless of whether employed as combatant, auxillary, or research and development vehicles that have at least residual combat capability

Patrol Combatant Type

Combatants whose mission may extend beyond coastal duties and whose characteristics include adequate endurance and sea keeping, providing a capability for operations exceeding 48 hours on the high seas without support

Amphibious Warfare Type Ships

All ships having organic capability for amphibious assault and characteristics enabling long duration operations on the high seas

Combat Logistics Type Ships

Ships that have the capability to provide underway replenishment to fleet units

Mine Warfare Type Ships

All ships whose primary function is mine warfare on the high seas

Support Type Ships

A grouping of ships designed to operate in the open ocean in a variety of sea states to provid general support to either combatant forces or shore based establishments. (Includes smaller auxiliaries which by the nature of their duties, leave inshore waters)

Mobile Logistics Type Ships

Ships that have the capability to provide direct material support to other deployed units operating far from home base

CV/CVN

aircraft carriers

CG

cruiser

DD/DDG

Destroyers

FFG

frigates

SSN/SSBN

SUBMARINE

MCS

Mine Countermeasures Command and control ships

MCM

Mine Countermeasures Ship

MHC

Minehunter, Coastal

LHA/LHD

Amphibious Assault Ships

LCC

Amphibious Command Ship

LPD

Amphibious Transport Dock

LSD

Dock Landing Ship

LCAC

Landing Craft Air Cushion

PC

Patrol coastal

AE

Ammunition Ship

AOE

Fast Combat Support Ship

ARS

Rescue and Salvage

aircraft carrier

CV/CVN

Cruisers

CG

Destroyers

DD/DDG

Frigates

FFG

Submarines

SSN/SSBN

Mine Countermeasures

MCS

Mine Countermeasure Ship

MCM

Mine hunter, coastal

MHC

Assault ship

LHA/LHD

Command

LCC

Transport Dock

LPD

Dock Landing Ship

LSD

Landing Craft Air Cushion

LCAC

Patrol Coastal

Pc

Ammunition ship

AE

Fast Combat Support Ships

AOE

rescue/salvage

ARS

USFK PCS Theater Specific Required Training

All DOD personnel are required to register POF in DBIS

annually

Who is authorized to drive in Korea

Permanent party personnel only

Yellow sand and ___________are unique to the ROK

Extreme continental climate

Command Sponsorship is a commander's program to improve readiness and military families' quality of life

True

Some organisms transmit

Vector-borne disease

In which of the following situations would the US have primary jurisdiction?

An accident that occurred while on official duty

Which of the following are the two types of civil gatherings? Describe the type of civil gatherings that occur daily in the ROK

Cultural events and demonstrations

Korean import/export rules refer to

Prohibited and restricted goods

What helps DoDDS-K plan for a smooth transition for school-aged children?

Submitting pre-registration information

The mission of the Commander, USFK is to

Support the UNC and CFC by coordinating and planning among US component commands in the ROK
Coordinate US military assistance to the ROK
Exercise OPCOM of US forces as directed by CDRUSPACOM

Black Marketing is

The transfer of tax free items to non-USFK members

All DOD personnel are required to register in DBIDS within

5 working days

Failure to comply with Regulation 600-240

Subjects a service member to the UCMJ

Which of the following is a violation of Korean laws and regulations?

A Service member getting a USFK tattoo at a local tattoo parlor

The Senior US Military Official Assigned to Korea has responsibility to

Represent the Chairman of the US Joint Chiefs of Staff on the permanent session of the ROK-US Military Committee

A SOFA Card provides ___________________ for service members

A SOFA Card provides ___________________ for service members

What is the United States Korea (USFK)?

- PACOM's (Pacific Command) sub-unified command in Korea
- Responsible for the reception, staging, onward movement and integration (RSOI) and sustainment of reinforcing US forces to the combined command

What Combined Forces Command (CFC)?

Theater level warfighter for deterrence and defense

What is United Nations Command (UNC)?

The agent for the US National authority and responsible for maintenance of the armistice agreement

The USFK exercises _____ of US Forces not directly under CFC during hostilities

operational control (OPCON)

What is the mission of the USFK?

- Support the UNC and CFC by coordinating and planning among US component commands in the ROK
- Exercise OPCON of US forces as directed by Commander, United States Pacific Command (CDRUSPACOM)
- Coordinate US military assistance to the ROK

T/F: USFK is a primary warfighter, instead is a force provider of assets and capabilities in support of Commander, CFC and Commander, UNC.

False

How are CFC components combined?

Indicators of human trafficking

Employees can only leave for a short period of time with patrons
Women are never seen leaving the premises unless escorted

Commander, USFK provides support and capabilities to which two organizations

Combined Forces Command and United Nations Command

In which of the following situations would the US have primary jurisdiction?

Offenses solely against US property or security
Offenses involving only a SOFA status victim
Acts committed in performance of official duty such as a simple vehicle accident
An accident that occurred while on official duty

Black marketing is

The transfer of tax free items to non-USFK members
Black-marketing is the illegal transfer or resale of duty-free goods to persons who are otherwise not entitled to them

Which of the following is a violation of Korean laws and regulations?

Visits to off-limits areas
Underage drinking
Driving under the influence
Traffic accidents/incidents
Black marketing
Examples of off-limits areas are:
Houses of prostitution & Red-light districts
Barber shops, tattoo parlors & body piercing shops
Acupuncture clinics
Natural bodies of water (no off-post swimming unless authorized)
Pharmacies/healthcare facilities

The United Nations Command has responsibility to

Carry out the terms of the Armistice agreement by exercising oversight and providing routine coalition maintenance

The regulation that establishes driver's license requirements is

USFK Regulation 190-1 is the Motor Traffic Supervision regulation
Personnel TDY, on a pass, or on leave are not authorized to drive

Which of the following answers is correct regarding must bring items when deploying to Korea?

Equipment requirements are listed on my orders

Which of the following is true of SOFA?

SOFA is legally binding

dui rules

Drunken driving offenses pertain to on- and off-post driving when the person in physical control of a motor vehicle has a blood alcohol content greater than .05 percent per IAW Article 31 - Standard of Intoxicated State.


Refusal to submit to a lawful Blood Alcohol Content test results in an immediate one-year revocation of driving privileges.

In case of a traffic accident:

Do not leave the scene until authorized by police.
Attend to the medical needs of any injured parties.
Failure to render assistance or fleeing the scene of the accident may result in further harm to victims and additional charges against you by Korean authorities.
Contact the nearest ROK and US law enforcement personnel for assistance.
Cooperate with Korean authorities and show them your ID and SOFA card

Which statement is true?

The drinking age is 21 and legal BAC is .05

JKO Iraqi Rapport Course - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

شوكت؟

when

شنو؟

what

منو؟

who

وين؟

where

شلون؟

how

ليش؟

why

لأن

because

اي

which

يا

which

لمّا

when

نفس الشي

the same thing

إجازة

break

جاوب

to answer

سأل

to ask

فقير

poor

فقراء

poor (pl)

زنگين

rich

زناگين

rich (pl)

الجدول

schedule

بداية

beginning

عكس

opposite

نهاية

end

الفجر

dawn

سبح

to swim/shower

نظّف

to clean

رتب

to organize

سمع

to listen

قطعة

piece

إنتيحان

Test

محّد

no one

يعني

I mean

بعدين

then, after

بعد

after

بس

but, only

فكر

to think

گال

to say

احتاج

to need

تعال

come here

حچی

to speak

قاید

كلمة

word

دمار

destruction

بدلة

suit

يطوّل

دوام

working hours

تدوام

to begin working hours

سلاح

weapon

بعيد المدی

Long Range

يستخدم

to use

خصوصاً

especially

خاص

special

قوات أجنبية

Security Forces

مكافحة الأرهاب

بطا

بهدف

with the aim of

هجوم

attack

طلبت

requested

التحالف

coalition

لأزم

should

ممل

boring

غبي

stupid

أغبياء

stupid (pl)

لمس

touch

كديش

يساعد

to help

مقدم

down payment

حضيرة

squad

فصيل

platoon

سرية

company

فوج

regiment

كتيبة

regiment

لواء

brigade

فرقة

division

فيلق

corp

جاب

to bring

راح

to go

نام

to sleep

لگی

to find

سكت

to be silent

مشتاق

to miss

مشتاقة

to miss

مشتاقين

long time no see

قاموس

dictionary

أمّا

as for

زار

to visit

مقالة

article

بدی

to begin

نهی

to end

قرّر

to decide

يگبل

to accept

گبل

before/straight ahead

گدام

in front of

ورة

behind

احترام

to respect

خطأ

mistake

غلط

wrong

جاهز

ready/equipped

عزم

to invite

ضحّی

to sacrifice

فدوة

sacrifice

انتشر

to spread

ضواحي

outskirts

مسرة

to be pleased

فرح

happiness

شمر

to throw

يشترك

to participate

نزل

to go down

منزل

house

بيت

house

دار

house

تحضير

to prepare

خاب أملي

disappointment

حتفل

to celebrate

تفل

to spit

جمع

to gather

فرض

to impose

نطا

to give

اخر

last

اخذ

to take

نهر

river

نهار

day

طوّع

to manipulate

تطوّع

to volunteer

بالمناسبة

by the way

حفل

party

باوع

to look at, to watch

وگّف

Sit

تجي

to come

چلاق

to kick

ضرب

to hit

مناسبة

occasion

شربة

soup

نبيذ

wine

بيرة

beer

إجار

to rent

نسبي

relative

يعتمد

depends

مسألة

issue

مشكيلة

problem

أبداً

never

دايماً

always

شجرة

tree

نور

light

أنوار

lights

أضواء

lights

ضوا

light

عبّر

to express

عبر

to cross

قامر

to gamble

مقامرة

gambling

صادف

to encounter by chance

شديدة

strict

شدّ

to tighten

مات

to die

توّفی

to pass away

الله يرحمه

May God rest his soul

الله يسعدكم

May God help you

بلكي

perhaps

لغی

to cancel

تأجل

to be postponed

برة

outside

بعّد

still

حضر

to attend

حكومة

government

اجراءات

procedures

تصور

to imagine

مسوولين

officials

گام

to stand

مشی

to walk

سارق

thief

حرامي

thief

بواگ

thief

لص

thief

لتب

مدّبغ

to tan (leather)

بشرة

skin, complexion

جلد

skin

راشدي

strong slap

مراح أضيّح دقيقة وحدة من

I will not lose one minute

من هسة و جاي

from now on

جملة

sentence

فقرة

paragraph

صوت

sound, voice

موضوع

subject

راح أجي ايد من ورا وايد من گدام

I will come empty handed

نجح

to succeed

منحط

degenerate

منحطين

degenerates

إلهاعلاقة

Relevant

ما إلهاعلاقة

Irrelevant

خراء

feces

رمي

to shoot

خطّة

plan

الرمي

The Range

الجنّة

heaven

الجحيم

hell

النار

fire, hell

حار كالنار

hot as Hell

الجم

The Gym

المركز الرياضي

The Gym

إحتمال

possibility

حرام

forbidden

الميتة

dead flesh

ميّت

dead

الرم

blood

لحم الخنزير

pork

الخنرة

alcohol

الأزلام

gambling

الزنی

adultery

مثلية

homosexuality

شاذ

homosexual (adj)

ثورة

revolution

المعامل

factories

المصانع

industry

إنقلاب

coup

محافظين

Conservatives

جداً

very

هُواية

a lot

هِواية

hobby

تقريباً

approximately, almost

متنوع

various, diverse

قوميات

nationalities, ethnicities

مختلفة

different

اديان

religions

كافر

infidel

اخلاق

morals

أحكام

conviction, inditement

أقلية

minority

أغلبية

majority

طایفة

sect

متعايشين

coexist

قات

suit

زي

uniform

عرس

wedding

گرايب

relatives

عروس

bride

عريس

groom

خطيب

fiance

لخ

another

گصاب

butcher

تأخر

to be late

من وكت

early

متأخر

late

پرلمانة

Parliament

لغي

to cancel

تطوّر

to develop

حفض

to keep

موسم

season

دماغ

brain

مخ

brain

سز

easy, empty

أدب

good manners

توبة

repentance

يتوب

to repent

كلاوچي

manipulator, con man

خاف

to be afraid

اشطح

to go away

ايچة

beautiful woman (slang)

بربوگ

bitch

بعبص

to flip off

نفسي

myself

معبد

temple

معبد لالش

Yazidi Temple

هدف

goal, aim

هدّد

to threaten

يحول

to transfer, move

هجر

to leave, flee

هجّر

to displace, deport

تميز

to distinguish

يستوطن

to settle

تعرض

to be exposed

إبادة

extermination

أباد

to wipe out, exterminate

رسمي

formal

عنوان

address, title

حتل

to occupy

يعترض

to object

إعتراض

objection

حسب

according to

JKO Indonesian Rapport Course- Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

masih

그래도 [still (+)]

tetapi

아직 [but, however, still (-)]

pensiun

퇴직 (retire)

berusia

나이 (age)

badan

몸 (body)

halaman belakang

뒷마당 (backyard)

tinggi

키가 거요 (tall)

langsing

마른 (thin)

selalu

항상 (always)

antara

부터 (starting from)

sampai

까지 (until)

lantai

바닥 (floor)

rambut

머리 (hair)

keluarga

가족 (family)

gambar

그림 (drawing)

istri

아내 (wife)

suami

남편 (husband)

seragam

군복 (military uniform)

loreng

camoflauge

gemuk

동동 (fat/obese)

tahu (v)

알다 (to know)

tahu (n)

두부 (tofu)

punya/mempunyai

있다 (to have)

kepunyaan/milik

소유 (ownership/property)

pemillik

주인 (owner)

dompet

지갑 (wallet)

betul

진짜 (really, truly)

jas

양복 (suit)

warung

vendor (food, newspapers, etc.)

anjing

강아지/개 (dog)

kucing

고양이 (cat)

koper

짐 (luggage)

karpet

카펫 (carpet)

persegi

square; being sided

luas/wilayah/daerah (n)

지역 (area)

luas (adj) 넓히다 (spacious)

넓히다 (spacious)

ruang tunggu

waiting room

sering

자주 (often)

kabut

안개 (foggy)

berawan

흐린 (cloudy)

cantik/indah

아름다운 (beautiful)

kuping/telingah

귀 (ears)

mata

눈 (eyes)

mulut

입 (mouth)

hidung

코 (nose)

mau

고싶다 (to want)

lebat

thick

kumis

mustache

nonton

보다 (to watch)

memasak

요리 ( to cook)

baca

읽다 (to read)

mendengarkan

듣다 (to listen)

belajar

공부하다 (to study)

berjalan

걷다 (to walk)

berlari

달리기 (to run)

untuk

(으)로 (by means of)

mulai

시작 (to start)

selesai

끝나다 (to finish)

sekola

학교 (school)

pelajaran

수업 (class)

buka

열다 (open)

tutup

닫다 (close)

biasanya

보통 (usually)

ANGKOT

교통 (public trans)

ongkos

비용 (cost)

terakhir

마지막 (last/final)

harga

값 (price)

JKO Hindi Rapport - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center (DLIFLC)

Rescue workers

Bachaav karmee

Local

स्थानीय

health

स्वास्थ्य

sufferers

Peedit

pain

पीड़ा

dead body

Shav

Provence

Praant, rajya

Population

Jansankhya

debate

बहस ghmasan

enlighten

Jagrukta

certainly

Nishchit roop say

Positive

सकारात्मक

Negative

नकारात्मक

Cooperation

सहयोग, yogdaan

Vaccination

Teekakaran

Argument

तर्क

Belief

vishwas, aastha

Controversy

Vivad, vivadit

draft

प्रारूप

Artifical

kritkrim

Natural

प्राकृतिक, swabhawik

Mutate

parivartit

laboratory

प्रयोगशाला

Experiment

प्रयोग

Theory, Feeling

Dharna

Materialistic WAr

Bahowniki yudh

Understanding

Saamanjasya

Scheme

योजना

Notice

Sangyan

Organized

Sangathit

Disorganized

Asangathit

Statistics

आंकड़े

Centralized Registration

Kendri Karan

EXplanation

व्याख्या

Bureaucrats

Naukrishahi

Union Territory / Centrally controlled

Kendra Shasit

Seperate State

Purna Rajya

Boundary Creation

Seemankan

Authoritating

Adhikrit

Central

केंद्रीय

Partnership / Alliance

Gathbandhan

Unbelievable

A vishwa saniya

Directive

Nirdesh

Deployed

tainaat

deployment

Tainaat

Maritime boundary

Samudri Seema

Conclusion

निष्कर्ष

Ethnic

Jaatiye

Insecurity

Asurakhsha ke bhavna

Kuleen

Elitest

tabka

Entity / Part

JKO Dari Rapport Course - Defense Language Institute Foreign Language Center

Hello

Salaam

peace be upon you

salaam alaykom

good morning

sob baKhayR

good afternoon

roKhosh

how are you?

chetoR asteen?

I'm fine, thanks, and you?

Khoob astom, tashakoR wa shoma?

How's the family

fammeeletaan chetoR as tashakoR

My familly is fine, thank you

faameelam Khoob tashakoR

what's your name

naametaan chis?

my name is Robert

naamam Robert as

nice to meet you

az molaaqaatetaan Khosh shodom

nice to meet you too

az molaaqaate shomaa khosh shodam

welcome

Khosh aamadee

good-bye

baamaane Khodaa

thank you

tashakor

thank you very much

besyaar zeeyaad tashakor

you're welcome

qaabele tashakor nees

please come in

lotfan daakhel shaween

excuse me

bebakhsheen

I'm sorry

mazerat meekhaayom

this is for you

ee bareh shomaas

please, accept it, it's yours

lotfan ee ra qabool koneen ee az shomaas

it's just a little thing

ee yak cheeze besyaar kam es

you shouldn't have

laazem nabood

no thank you

nee tashakor

may I enter

ejaaze as ke daahkhel shawom

yes you may enter

baleh, shomaa meetaaneen ke dakhel shaween

no, you may not enter

neh, shomaa nameetaaneen ke dakhel shaween

please wait

lotfan entesaar bekasheen

yes

baleh

no

neh

ok

saheeh

maybe

shaayad

no problem

moshkeleenadaara

are you ready?

aamaada asteen

one moment please

lotfan yak lahza sabar koneen

is this right

ee sahees

no, that's wrong

ney ghalat as

who is this man?

ee shaKhs kees

who is this woman

ee Khaanom kees

is this your child

ee tefel az shomaas

are you sure

motma-en asteen

do you have...?

shomaa...daareen

yes, I have some

baleh, yak kamee daaram

Mohammad

momad

Fatima

faatema

Is the food fresh?

ee ghezaa taaza as

the food is spoiled

ee ghezaa ganda as

is this lamb, goat, or beef?

eey goshte gosfand as, yaa goshte boz, yaa gaw

this is a beef kebab

ee kabaab goshte gaw as

weapon

salaayata

what kind of fruit is this?

eet che qesem meewa as

these are apricots

yaa zard aalos

would you like some more?

degaam meeKhaayen

no, thank you, I ate

ney tashakur, bisyar ziad khordeem

Thank you, the bread and kebab were very good

tashakor, non wa kabaab besyaar khoob bood

Have tea with me

hamraaym chaay bekhoreen

is this water safe to drink

ee aw paak as

boil the water

aw wa josh bete-yn

we need potable water

maa ba awey noosheedanee zarorat daareem

where can I wash my hands?

dastaayeam da kojaa shoshta meetaanom

where is the latrine?

tashnaab de kojaas

Do you speak English?

engleesee gap zada meetaanee

Does anyone here speak English?

eenja kasay as ke engleesee gap bezana

I don't speak English

engleesee gap zadah nemeetaanom

I don't speak dari

ma daree yaad nadaarom

What language do you speak

ba kodaam zabaan gap meezanee

I speak dari

ma daree gap meezanom

Do you understand?

meefaamee?

I don't understand

ma nameefaamom

Please speak slowly

lotfan aastaa gap bezan

Please repeat

lotfan tekraar ko

I need an interpreter

ma ba yak tarjomaan zaroorat daaram

The interpreter is coming

tarjomaan meyaaya

Where is the interpreter?

tarjomaan da kojaas

Roger

shoneedom

Over

gapum khatem shod

I don't know

nameedaanom

Follow our orders!

amRe maa ra etaa't ko

Stop

estaada show

Drop your weapon!

salaayata bendaaz

Stop or I'll shoot!

estaada show aga nau fayR meekonom

Don't shoot!

faayr nako

Put your weapon down!

salaayata ba zameen baan

Weapon

salaayata

Hands up

dasthaa baalaa

Surrender

tasleem show

Come here

eenja beeyaa

Go!

boRow

Move to the right!

ba taRafe daste Raas haRakat ko

Move to the left

ba taRafe daste chap haRakat ko

Lie down!

daRaaz bejash!

Get up!

beKheez

Don't move!

shooR naKhor

Where?

kojaa?

There

honja

When?

che waKht

Tonight

emshaw

Who

kee

Who is in charge?

nafaRe masool kees

He is in charge.

nafaRe masool oos

Who are you?

shmaa kee asteen

We are coalition forces

maa qowaaye etelaaf asteem

What?

chee

What is this?

ee chees

This is a grenade

ee bame destees

Why?

cheRaa

Do you need...?

ba...zaRooRat daaRee

Can someone assist us?

kasee meetaana ma Ra komak kona

Where is the airfield?

maydaane havaa-ee kojaas?

Where is the enemy camp?

kampe doshman kojaas?

Do you have any ammunition?

too kodaam mohemaatee daaRee?

My magazine is empty.

Panjaggee ma khaalees

Where are the barracks?

qeshle askaTee kojaas?

Near the base

nazdeeke qaRaaRgaa

Who is your leader?

aameRat kees?

He is our commander.

oo qomandaane maas

What is your rank?

Rotbeyt chees?

Are you a soldier?

to yak askaR astee?

I am an officer.

ma saahebmansab hastom

Watch out for explosives.

mawaazebe mawwaade monfajeRa baash

Beware of snipers.

mawaazebe teeRandaase maKhefee shoda bash

Put your tent up here.

Khaymay ta da eenja bezan

Stay with your unit.

hamRaaye qeteh Khod baash

Do you take U.S. dollars?

dolaaRe amReekaa-ee Ra meegeeRee?

I have no Afghani money

ma eech poole awghannee nadaaRom

How much?

chand as?

It is 30 Afghani

see afghanees

Do you have more?

degom daaReen?

This is all I have.

faqat amee Ra daaRom

May I touch this?

meetaanom ke be ee dast bezanom?

Do not touch.

dest nazan

Do you have change?

poole KhoRd daaRee?

I need exact change.

ma ba poole Khord zarooRat daaRom

That's a good deal.

ee nerKh Khob as

I'll take that, please.

ma eeRa meegeeRom, lotfan

Is this the correct amount?

ee meqdaaR doRust as?

That's not enough.

ee kaafee nees

That's too expensive.

ee beesyaaR qeemat as

today

emRooz

tomorrow

sabaa

yesterday

deeRooz

What time is it?

chand baja as?

It's one o'clock

yak baja as

It's half past three

se o neem baja as

I'm busy right now

ma felan mashghol astom

see you soon

ba zoodee Khaat deedeem

Let's meet later

beeyaaen ke pasaantaR molaaqaat koneem

I'll see you in an hour

pas az yak saat shomaa Ra meebeeneem

How long have you been in the military?

cheqa waKhy meesha ke da askaRee astee?

since 1997

az noozda nawado haft ba ee teRaf

When is the briefing?

jalsa che vaKht as?

Two hours.

do saat

Introduction to United Nations Peacekeeping Operations

buffer zone

буферна зона

ceasefire

припинення вогню

Conflict

конфлікт

demining

розмінування

demobilise

демобілізувати

disarm

роззброїти

elections

вибори

humanitarian missions

гуманітарна місія

monitor

моніторити

patrol

патрулювати / патруль


JKO U.S. Forces Driver's Training Program for Europe

For registration purposes, the insurance policy cannot substitute for the insurance confirmation
card as proof of automobile insurance under German law and U.S. Forces regulations. (para 33e(3))

a. True.
b. False.

True

License plates issued to drivers by the Registry of Motor Vehicles automatically become the driver's property. (para 33c(1)(a))

a. True.
b. False.

False

The driver of a registered motor vehicle is required to observe which of the following with respect to U.S. Forces POV license plates? (paras 33c(1)(d) and 33c(2)(b))

a. License plates will not be altered.
b. The rear license plate must be illuminated.
c. License plates always must be firmly attached
with bolts and screws.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

A driver who lends his or her vehicle to a member of the U.S. Forces is required to provide the borrower with the registration certificate (AE Form 190-1A). (para 33g(2)(a))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

U.S. Forces regulations do not prohibit abandoning a privately owned vehicle (POV). (paras 33f(2) and 33h(5))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

Attaching old State license plates or signs to U.S. Forces POV plates is permitted. (para 33c(2)(e))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

The Traffic Point System applies to military personnel and civilian employees, but does not apply to Family members. (para 17)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

Persons declared ineligible for a U.S. Forces certificate of license will remain ineligible until they
successfully petition the revoking authority for reinstatement of their eligibility. (para 16a(5))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

German police are empowered to arrest U.S. personnel (including Family members and U.S. civilians serving with the U.S. Forces) when German laws are violated. (para 14)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

German police do not have the authority to require U.S. Forces drivers to pay a warning fee for minor traffic violations. (paras 9b(2) and 13c(1))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

German traffic law does not require every user of a public road or highway to conduct himself or herself so that no other user is endangered, injured, unnecessarily impeded, or inconvenienced. (para 11)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

A POV may not be rejected during mechanical inspection because of bent hoods, torn fenders, altered plates, or faulty body trimmings. (para 32b)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

Vehicles are considered unsafe if the tires have less than 1.6 millimeters of tread on any portion of the traction surface. (para 29a)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

If a vehicle is equipped with radial tires, the tires should be mounted on which of the following?
(para 29b)

a. Only on the front wheels of the POV.
b. Only on the rear wheels of the POV.
c. On all four wheels.
d. On the drive wheels of the POV.

c. On all four wheels.

Avoidable noises such as honking horns and racing engines are prohibited by the German traffic ordinance. (para 11c)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Kilometers may be converted to miles by multiplying the kilometers by 6 and then dropping the last
digit. (para 18b)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Children under 12 years old are not allowed to sit in the front seat of a vehicle unless the rear seat is already occupied by children of that age group. (para 25c)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Drivers are not always required to indicate their intention to pass by using directional signals.
(paras 20b(5)(c) and 20c(4))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

What may cause danger to others in road traffic? (para 11d)

a. A disabled POV with warning devices not placed
at a sufficient distance.
b. Driving a POV while intoxicated.
c. Driving a POV while fatigued.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

What should be considered when choosing a safe distance from the vehicle ahead? (para 19p)

a. Condition of the highway and driving speed.
b. Average distance being used by other drivers.
c. Both of the above.

a. Condition of the highway and driving speed.

When approaching children, drivers must try to anticipate their behavior. (para 10)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

The proper technique for driving around a curve is to slow down before the curve and accelerate toward the end of the curve. (para 18a(1))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

If the vehicle starts skidding while braking, the driver should do which of the following? (para 18a(6))

a. Downshift and take foot off gas pedal.
b. Turn the steering wheel in the direction that the
rear of the vehicle is skidding and pump the
brakes lightly.
c. Immediately apply pressure to brakes.

b. Turn the steering wheel in the direction that the
rear of the vehicle is skidding and pump the
brakes lightly.

Fast driving often leads to accidents in which of the following situations? (para 18a(1))

a. At points where vision is restricted.
b. At pedestrian crossings.
c. At intersections and junctions.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

Drivers caught in a heavy downpour with limited visibility should pull off the road and wait for the rain to let up. (para 18a(4))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Drivers who suddenly find themselves on an icy patch of road should continue driving with no abrupt change in direction, speed, or braking. (para 18a(5)(b))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Drivers must be especially careful when passing during twilight hours; they must be alert to vehicles without lights coming from the other direction. (para 20b(8))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When passing another vehicle, drivers must return to the right lane as soon as possible without impeding the vehicle being passed. (para 20b(5)(d))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When approaching an intersection with directional arrows painted on the pavement, the driver will enter the appropriate lane and do which of the following? (para 20a(2))

a. Follow the direction of the arrow.
b. Change lanes in the intersection.
c. Both of the above.

a. Follow the direction of the arrow.

A continuous, solid, white center line on the road may not be crossed or even touched by the wheels of the driver's vehicle. (para 20b(1)(a))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When a broken white line and a solid white center line appear together, traffic on the broken-line side is permitted to pass. (para 20b(2)(b))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Directional arrows on the pavement must be followed once the driver has entered a lane that is so marked. (para 20a(2))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Unless otherwise posted, a speed limit of 100 kilometers per hour (kph) (62 miles per hour (mph)) applies to all vehicles on all highways and roads in Germany. (paras 18d, 18e, and 18f)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

Under certain circumstances, the maximum speed posted may be too fast for road and traffic conditions. (para 18i)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Unless otherwise posted, the speed limit within city limits is 60 kph (37 mph). (para 18d)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

How many times greater is the force of collision if the driving speed is doubled? (para 18j)

a. Twice as great.
b. Three times as great.
c. Four times as great.

c. Four times as great.

Minimum speed limits must be obeyed according to which of the following? (para 18h)

a. Except where road or traffic conditions make
drivers drive more slowly.
b. Except when visibility or weather conditions make
drivers drive more slowly.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

When traveling on multilane roads with dense traffic, it is illegal for vehicles in the right lane to go faster than those in the left lane. (paras 20b(4)(b) and 20b(7))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

A slow vehicle is being followed by several other vehicles that cannot pass because of the traffic. On reaching a suitable place (such as a wide place in the roadway), the driver of the slow vehicle should pull to the right to allow the other vehicles to pass. (para 20b(11))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

What must a driver do when approaching a round blue sign with a white number 30 on it? (sign
275)

a. Stay off this road if driving a vehicle that can
move only at a speed of less than 30 kph (20
mph).
b. Not exceed 30 kph.
c. Not drive at less than 30 kph, weather conditions
and traffic permitting.
d. Both a and c above.

d. Both a and c above.

When passing, drivers must return to the right as soon as possible without impeding the vehicle being passed. (para 20b(5)(d))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Drivers may exceed the posted speed limit while passing another vehicle. (para 20b(3))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

Drivers may not increase their speed while being passed. (para 20b(10))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Drivers may pass a streetcar on the left when the road is a one-way street. (para 20b(4)(a))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Two-wheeled vehicles are particularly dangerous to pass and should be passed only with side clearance of at least 1.5 meters. (para 30b(1))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When is passing another vehicle prohibited? (para 20b(1)(c))

a. When the traffic situation is unclear.
b. When there is a broken center line.
c. When passing can be accomplished without
exceeding the speed limit.

a. When the traffic situation is unclear.

At unmarked intersections, vehicles coming from the right have the right-of-way. (para 19b)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

In the city where no priority signs are posted, the driver on the widest street has the right-of-way.
(para 19b)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

The "right-before-left" rule applies at unmarked intersections. (para 19b)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

A driver wants to leave a private driveway and turn right onto a public road. At the same time, a cyclist is approaching from the left. Who has to wait? (para 19c(2))

a. The cyclist.
b. The driver of the motor vehicle.

b. The driver of the motor vehicle.

A driver who disregards the safety of others is excused legally from responsibility when he or she has the right-of-way. (paras 10 and 19m)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (para 19)

a. 1-2-3.
b. 2-1-3.
c. 3-1-2.

b. 2-1-3.

What does the driver of vehicle 2 have to do? (para 19)

a. Observe the right-of-way of vehicle 1.
b. Proceed without stopping.
c. Observe the right-of-way of vehicle 3.

c. Observe the right-of-way of vehicle 3.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (para 19)

a. 1-2-3.
b. 2-1-3.
c. 3-2-1.

a. 1-2-3.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (para 19)

a. 3-2-1.
b. 3-1-2.
c. 2-3-1.

a. 3-2-1.

When a driver is traveling in the direction of the white arrow, what must the driver do when faced with oncoming traffic? (sign 308)

a. Yield the right-of-way.
b. Proceed.
c. Flash the headlights and proceed.

b. Proceed.

Which vehicle has the right-of-way? (para 19i and sign 205)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

a. Vehicle 1.

Which vehicle has the right-of-way? (para 19i and sign 205)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

a. Vehicle 1.

Which vehicle must yield? (para 19c(1))

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

b. Vehicle 2.

Which vehicle must wait? (para 20a(4)(d))

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

a. Vehicle 1.

Which vehicle must wait? (para 19k)

a. Vehicles 1 and 2.
b. Vehicle 2.
c. Vehicle 3.

c. Vehicle 3.

When may vehicle 2 turn? (para 20a(3)(d))

a. Before vehicle 1.
b. After vehicle 1.

a. Before vehicle 1.

What must the driver of vehicle 1 do? (paras 19b and 20a(3))

a. Turn in front of vehicle 3.
b. Observe the right-of-way of vehicle 3.
c. Turn in front of vehicle 2.

b. Observe the right-of-way of vehicle 3.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (paras 19b and 20a(3))

a. 3-2-1.
b. 2-1-3.
c. 3-1-2.

a. 3-2-1.

Which vehicle must wait? (para 19b)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

b. Vehicle 2.

When may vehicle 3 proceed? (para 19d and signs 205 and 301)

a. After vehicle 1.
b. After vehicles 1 and 2.
c. Before vehicle 2.
d. Before vehicles 1 and 2.

b. After vehicles 1 and 2.

Which two vehicles have to wait at these junctions?
(para 19b and signs 205 and 301)

a. Vehicles 2 and 3.
b. Vehicles 1 and 3.
c. Vehicles 2 and 4.

a. Vehicles 2 and 3.

What does the driver of vehicle 2 have to do? (para 20a(3) and signs 206 and 301)

a. Wait at a point where he or she can see along the
priority road.
b. Let vehicle 1 move ahead first.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

What does the driver of vehicle 3 have to do? (para 19g and sign 306)

a. Yield to vehicle 1.
b. Move on.
c. Yield to vehicle 2.

b. Move on.

When may vehicle 1 proceed? (para 19g and signs 306
and 306 with 1002-12)

a. Before vehicle 2.
b. After vehicle 2.

a. Before vehicle 2.

Which vehicle is the last to go? (paras 20a(3) and (4), and signs 206 and 306)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.
c. Vehicle 3.

b. Vehicle 2.

Which vehicle has the right-of-way? (para 19b and sign 267)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

a. Vehicle 1.

In what order must the vehicles proceed? (paras 19f and g, and signs 306 with 1002-12 and 205 with 1002-21)

a. 2-3-1.
b. 3-1-2.
c. 2-1-3.

c. 2-1-3.

Which vehicle has the right-of-way? (para 19g and sign 306 with 1002-12)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

a. Vehicle 1.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (paras 19a and
20a(3), and signs 205 and 306)

a. 1-2-3.
b. 1-3-2.
c. 2-1-3.

b. 1-3-2.

The driver of vehicle 1 wants to turn left. To do so, the driver must pull up to the middle of the intersection in front of vehicle 2 and then allow vehicle 3 to pass in front of her. (paras 19b and 20a(3))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Does vehicle 2 have to wait? (para 19g, sign 205 with 1002-21, and sign 306 with 1002-12)

a. Yes.
b. No.

b. No.

In what order must the vehicles proceed? (para 20a(3) and signs 205 and 306)

a. 3-2-1.
b. 2-1-3.
c. 1-2-3.

b. 2-1-3.

In what order must the vehicles proceed? (para 20a(3) and signs 206 and 306)

a. 2-3-1.
b. 2-1-3.
c. 3-2-1.

c. 3-2-1.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (paras 19g and
20a(3) and signs 205 and 306)

a. 2-1-3.
b. 3-2-1.
c. 3-1-2.

c. 3-1-2.

In what order may the vehicles proceed? (para 19g and sign 306 with 1002-12)

a. 2-3-1.
b. 3-1-2.
c. 2-1-3.

a. 2-3-1.

U-turns are prohibited on autobahns. (paras 21i(1) and 30d)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

The turn indicator must be used for all turns and to warn other traffic of the driver's intention to do which of the following? (para 24f)

a. Pass another vehicle or change lanes of traffic.
b. Pull away from a curb or parked position.
c. Leave a traffic circle.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

When a streetcar comes up behind a driver's vehicle while the driver is waiting to make a left turn, the driver must do which of the following? (para 20a(3)(d))

a. Move to the next block or to some point where a
left turn can be made without holding up the
streetcar.
b. Maintain his or her position, because the
streetcar does not have the right-of-way.
c. Wait until oncoming traffic is clear and then make
the turn.

a. Move to the next block or to some point where a
left turn can be made without holding up the
streetcar.

A driver on the right-hand side of the road who wants to turn left should do which of the following?
(para 20a(3))

a. Move next to the center line, watch traffic to the
rear, and give a directional signal.
b. Watch traffic to the rear, give a directional signal,
and move next to the center line.
c. Give a directional signal, move to the center, and
watch traffic to the rear.

b. Watch traffic to the rear, give a directional signal,
and move next to the center line.

Which vehicle must give a directional signal? (paras
19g(4) and 20a(3))

a. Vehicle 2.
b. Vehicles 2 and 3.
c. Vehicles 1 and 3.

c. Vehicles 1 and 3.

Whose position is incorrect for the left turn? (para 20a(3))

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.
c. Vehicles 1 and 3.

c. Vehicles 1 and 3.

What position is correct for a left turn? (para 20a(3))

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.
c. Vehicle 3.

b. Vehicle 2.

A vehicle is considered to be parked when the driver leaves the vehicle or the vehicle has been stopped for longer than which of the following? (para 23d)

a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.

b. 3 minutes.

On what streets is parking on the left permitted? (para 23a)

a. On one-way streets and on streets that have
streetcar tracks that do not permit parking on the
right side.
b. On two-way streets.
c. On country roads.

a. On one-way streets and on streets that have
streetcar tracks that do not permit parking on the
right side.

Outside city limits, the minimum distance for parking cars from a warning cross indicating a railroad crossing is 50 meters (165 feet). (para 23e(8))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

What is the minimum distance to park cars from marked or unmarked junctions or pedestrian
crosswalks? (para 23e(5))

a. 5 meters.
b. 10 meters.
c. 50 meters.

a. 5 meters.

Stopping is prohibited at which of the following? (paras 21i(2) and 23a)

a. On the autobahn.
b. On either side of a one-way street.
c. Both of the above.

a. On the autobahn.

Parking is prohibited at which of the following? (para 23e and signs 229, 283, and 286)

a. In front of a private driveway or an entrance.
b. At taxi stands.
c. Wherever official signs expressly forbid it.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

How close to a public transportation stop is stopping or parking allowed? (para 23e(6))

a. 15 meters (45 feet).
b. 5 meters (15 feet).
c. 2 meters (6 feet).

a. 15 meters (45 feet).

Drivers may park beside a traffic island as long as their parking lights are on. (para 23e(9))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

POVs may be left unattended and unlocked if no property of value is left in plain view. (para 12)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

A driver is required to warn approaching traffic when his or her vehicle is stopped for any reason on any road. (paras 13b(1)(b) and 27b)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

At what distance should the warning triangle be placed if a vehicle breaks down on any road other than an autobahn? (paras 13b(1)(b) and 27b)

a. 50 meters (150 feet).
b. 100 meters (300 feet).
c. 150 meters (450 feet).

b. 100 meters (300 feet).

Emergency warning equipment should be stored where? (para 27a)

a. In the trunk of the car.
b. In the passenger compartment under the front
seat.
c. In the garage or storage area until needed.

b. In the passenger compartment under the front
seat.

If involved in a traffic accident that is investigated by only German officials, U.S. Forces drivers are not required to notify the military police or security forces. (paras 13b(1)(d) and 13d(2))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

Under the Good Samaritan Law in Germany, drivers are required to render first aid to persons injured in a traffic accident if reasonably possible. (para 28)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

A person who is involved in a traffic accident and flees the scene may be prosecuted. (paras 13b(1)(a) and 13b(2)(c))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When are drivers required to switch on headlights? (para 30h(1))

a. At dusk and dawn.
b. When weather conditions require it.
c. When driving through fog.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

When is the use of fog lights and low-beam headlights permitted in daylight? (para 30h(3))

a. If visibility is reduced by fog or snowfall.
b. If visibility is reduced by rain.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

When are drivers allowed to use only the parking lights while driving? (para 30h(2))

a. At dusk or dawn.
b. Not at all.
c. When there is adequate street lighting.

b. Not at all.

Headlights must be dimmed for oncoming traffic and when following another driver to reduce the glare in his or her rearview mirror. (para 30h(4))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When either nighttime or daytime visibility is substantially reduced by fog, rain, or snowfall, use of
low-beam headlights is required. (para 30h(1))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

What is the minimum speed a vehicle must be able to maintain on the autobahn? (para 21a)

a. 50 kph (31 mph).
b. 60 kph (37 mph).
c. 80 kph (50 mph).

b. 60 kph (37 mph).

If a vehicle breaks down on the autobahn, help can be obtained by which of the following? (para 21g)

a. Calling the nearest autobahn gas station.
b. Flagging down another driver.
c. Using one of the telephone boxes located at
regular intervals along the autobahn.

c. Using one of the telephone boxes located at
regular intervals along the autobahn.

How long may a driver remain in the passing lane while traveling at a high rate of speed? (para 21d)

a. Only as long as necessary to pass other vehicles. b. Until the vehicle ahead completes its passing
maneuver.
c. As long as there is no driver behind flashing
lights to move ahead.
d. Both a and b above.

d. Both a and b above.

Stopping (except in emergencies or in designated parking areas), making U-turns, and backing up are prohibited on autobahns. (para 21i)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

If a driver misses an autobahn exit, the driver must drive to the next exit and use the overpass or underpass. (para 21c)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

What parts of the autobahn are particularly prone to becoming ice hazards? (para 18a(5)(a))

a. Bridges.
b. Stretches leading through forests.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

Drivers who run out of gas on the autobahn may be fined for stopping on the autobahn. (para 21i(3))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When vehicles are halted at railroad crossings at night waiting for a train to pass, drivers must turn
on high-beam headlights. (para 22g)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

What must a driver do when passing a streetcar that has stopped to take on and let off passengers on the roadway? (para 23b)

a. Wait until the streetcar proceeds.
b. Pass at a moderate speed and at such a distance
that boarding and unboarding passengers are not
bothered.
c. Stop and proceed only after the streetcar doors
are closed and the roadway is clear of
pedestrians.

c. Stop and proceed only after the streetcar doors
are closed and the roadway is clear of
pedestrians.

What must a driver do when approaching a railroad crossing without a warning cross? (para 22c)

a. Approach with caution and look both directions
for approaching trains.
b. Listen for sounds that indicate an approaching
train.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

When are drivers required to wait at a railroad crossing? (para 22a)

a. When there is a flashing red light.
b. When a train has just passed.
c. When there is more than one track.

a. When there is a flashing red light.

When may drivers cross the tracks of an unguarded railroad crossing marked by a flashing light when a train has just passed? (para 22a)

a. As soon as the train clears the crossing.
b. When the flashing red light goes out.
c. When the flashing green light goes on.

b. When the flashing red light goes out.

What must a driver do when approaching a railroad crossing where the barriers are open? (para 22c)

a. Approach at a moderate speed and observe the
tracks to the right and left.
b. Proceed without slowing down.
c. Come to a complete stop, look to the left and
right of the tracks, then continue to drive.

a. Approach at a moderate speed and observe the
tracks to the right and left.

In a housing area controlled by the U.S. Forces, what are drivers required to do when approaching a school bus that has come to a stop? (para 20b(6)(b))

a. Slow down and pass with caution.
b. Stop, regardless of whether or not approaching or
following the bus, and do not continue until the
bus begins to move again.
c. Stop only if the bus is on the driver's side of the
road.

b. Stop, regardless of whether or not approaching or
following the bus, and do not continue until the
bus begins to move again.

When a streetcar has stopped at a pedestrian island, drivers must watch out for passengers getting
on and off, but may proceed carefully on the right. (para 23b)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

Passing a vehicle at a railroad crossing is illegal. (para 20b(1)(e))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

If a vehicle breaks down on the autobahn, the vehicle may be towed to the which of the following?
(para 30j)

a. The next gas station on the autobahn.
b. The next autobahn exit.
c. The original destination on the autobahn,
provided a tow bar is used.
d. All of the above.

b. The next autobahn exit.

Under what conditions may drivers pass other vehicles at zebra crossings? (para 20a(5)(b))

a. If the crossing is hard to see.
b. If there are no pedestrians waiting to cross.
c. None. Drivers must not pass other vehicles at
zebra crossings.

c. None. Drivers must not pass other vehicles at
zebra crossings.

When a driver sees a pedestrian wearing a yellow armband marked with three black dots attempting to cross the street, the driver must do which of the following? (para 20a(5)(c))

a. Slow down and stop if necessary to allow the
pedestrian to cross.
b. Proceed if the pedestrian is accompanied by
another person or a guide dog.
c. Both of the above.

a. Slow down and stop if necessary to allow the
pedestrian to cross.

Which vehicle or vehicles must stop? (para 20a(5) and signs 293 and 350)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicles 2 and 3.
c. Vehicles 1, 2, and 3.

b. Vehicles 2 and 3.

Drivers may not pass cars at a pedestrian crosswalk even if no pedestrian is in sight. (para 20a(5)(b))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

The light is green. What must the driver do? (para 20a(4))

a. Wait and permit the pedestrians to cross.
b. Urge the pedestrians to hurry by honking the
horn.
c. Keep moving, because the pedestrians must wait.

a. Wait and permit the pedestrians to cross.

The basic rule in observing hand signals given by German police officers is that traffic parallel to the outstretched arms of the officer may proceed. (para 30f and figs 1 through 5)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When approaching a congested intersection and the light is green, the driver should do which of the following? (para 30a(5))

a. Proceed across the intersection with caution.
b. Stop before the intersection until the intersection
is clear.
c. Proceed across the intersection, flashing
headlights to warn other vehicles.

b. Stop before the intersection until the intersection
is clear.

Which vehicle is allowed to proceed? (para 30f and fig 2)

a. Vehicles 1 and 2.
b. Vehicle 3.
c. Vehicles 2 and 3.

c. Vehicles 2 and 3.

Which vehicle is allowed to proceed without stopping?
(para 30f and fig 5)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.
c. Vehicle 3.
d. Vehicles 1, 2, and 3.

d. Vehicles 1, 2, and 3.

Which vehicle must wait? (para 30f and figs 1 and 4)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.
c. Vehicle 3.
d. Vehicles 1 and 2.

d. Vehicles 1 and 2.

When a yellow light is flashing at an intersection, the
driver must do what? (para 30a(3)(d))

a. Approach cautiously and yield the right-of-way if
necessary.
b. Wait until the light changes.
c. Always stop.

a. Approach cautiously and yield the right-of-way if
necessary.

What must the driver do when approaching an intersection and seeing the traffic light turn from green to yellow? (para 30a(2))

a. Increase speed to get through the intersection
before the light turns red.
b. Stop.
c. Slow down and prepare to stop if this can be
done without endangering vehicles to the rear.

c. Slow down and prepare to stop if this can be
done without endangering vehicles to the rear.

If the driver of a passenger vehicle wants to turn left and a streetcar traveling in the same direction left of the passenger vehicle is proceeding straight ahead, which vehicle has to wait? (para 20a(3)(d))

a. The streetcar.
b. The passenger vehicle.

b. The passenger vehicle.

A police officer controls traffic at an intersection and the traffic lights are in operation. Which signals must drivers obey? (para 30f)

a. The police officer's.
b. The traffic light's.
c. Neither, because the "right-before-left" rule
applies in both cases.

a. The police officer's.

The yellow light is flashing. Which vehicles have to stop? (paras 30a(3)(c) and (d))

a. Vehicles 1 and 2.
b. Vehicles 2 and 3.
c. Vehicles 1 and 3.

a. Vehicles 1 and 2.

Which vehicles may proceed? (para 30f)

a. Vehicles 1 and 2.
b. Vehicles 2 and 3.
c. Vehicles 1 and 3.

b. Vehicles 2 and 3.

The illustration shows a signal that indicates the driver may proceed in which direction? (para 30a)

a. To the right.
b. To the left.
c. Straight ahead.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

In this situation, drivers may do what? (para 30a(4)(c))

a. Turn right.
b. Proceed straight ahead or wait if turning left.
c. Both of the above.

a. Turn right.

A driver who notices that an emergency vehicle (for example, ambulance, fire truck, police car) is approaching should do which of the following? (para 19n)

a. Drive to the extreme right and stop.
b. In bumper-to-bumper traffic, as in a Stau, move
to the extreme right from the right-hand lane
and to the extreme left from the left-hand lane
to form a passageway in the middle.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

What do drivers have to do when a vehicle with flashing lights and a multitone horn approaches?
(para 19n)

a. Clear the road immediately.
b. Stop immediately.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

Which vehicle has to wait? (para 19n)

a. Vehicle 1.
b. Vehicle 2.

b. Vehicle 2.

Drunk driving is a felony in Germany and may result in imprisonment for up to 5 years. (para 26a)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

What besides alcohol may impair a person's ability to drive safely? (para 30e)

a. Fatigue.
b. Medication.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

Refusal to undergo a urine or blood alcohol content (BAC) test when requested to do so by the
military police or security forces will result in revocation of driving privileges. (paras 16c(1)(a) and 26b(4))

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

If the German police suspect drivers of driving while intoxicated, they may demand, using force if necessary, that drivers submit to a urine or BAC test. (para 26c)

a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

When may a horn be honked within city limits? (paras 24a and e)

a. When a pedestrian suddenly steps out onto the
roadway.
b. When another vehicle suddenly backs into the
street from a narrow driveway.
c. Both of the above.

c. Both of the above.

During daytime, where is it permitted to use headlights to signal the intention to pass? (paras 24c and d)

a. Outside city limits.
b. Within city limits.
c. Both of the above.

a. Outside city limits.

Inside city limits, drivers may indicate their intention to pass by flashing headlights or sounding the horn. (para 24d)

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

A driver in the passing lane of the autobahn must slow down if he or she sees a vehicle approaching from behind with flashing headlights. (para 20b(9))

a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

When a broken white line and a solid white center line appear together, traffic on the broken-line side is permitted to pass.

TRUE

What must a driver do when passing a streetcar that has stopped to take on and let off passengers on the roadway?

Stop and proceed only after the streetcar doors are closed and the roadway is clear of pedestrians.

What must a driver do when approaching a railroad crossing without a warning cross?

Both answers are correct

A person who is involved in a traffic accident and flees the scene may be prosecuted.

TRUE

Drivers must be especially careful when passing during twilight hours; they must be alert to vehicles without lights coming from the other direction

TRUE

Under the Good Samaritan Law in Germany, drivers are required to render first aid to persons injured in a traffic accident if reasonably possible.

TRUE

A continuous, solid, white center line on the road may not be crossed or even touched by the wheels of the driver's vehicle.

TRUE

The turn indicator must be used for all turns and to warn other traffic of the driver's intention to do which of the following?

All choices are correct.

A driver who notices that an emergency vehicle (for example, ambulance, fire truck, police car) is approaching should do which of the following?


Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) Security Refresher

A security violation involves the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information. Security violations must be reported.

true

You are required to report all foreign travel prior to departure, including day trips to Canada and Mexico.

false

When you signed the SCI NdS, you agreed that anything you gained from unauthorized disclosure of SCI would become the property of the United States Government.

true

Walls in SCIFs must extend from true floor to true ceiling.

true

An SCI document that contains the dissemination control marking NOFORN indicates this document ___________________________________.

a. Is not releasable to foreign nationals

You must report external activist groups you or your co-workers are affiliated with regardless of their nature.

true

Visitors may enter a SCIF without a visitor certification if they are escorted by indoctrinated personnel.

true

If the ISSO permits it, you may share your password in a SCIF.

false

The access control system for unattended SCIF entry must use ____________________ and _______________________ such as an access card and personal identification number (PIN).

b. Authentication, verification

SCI couriers must be appointed __________, have a signed letter of authorization and know the rules and regulations governing couriers and transporting classified material.

in writing

In a SCIF, SCI must always be stored in a GSA-approved container.

false

After setting the alarm on a SCIF, spinning the lock, and displaying the closed sign, you must complete the _____________________ form

b. SF-701 NOT correct

Which is the primary database used to verify personnel access to SCIFs outside DoD?

b. Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) NOT CORRECT

If a SCIF has a high security lock, then an access control system is not required.

false

The SCI control system marking should not be listed in the banner line on a classified document.

false

_____________ is technically derived intelligence data other than imagery and signals intelligence that locates, identifies, or describes distinctive characteristics of targets.

f. Measurement and Signature Intelligence (MASINT)

What piece of information is not required to be recorded on the SCIF visitor control log?

f. Visitor's date of birth

The three primary types of SCIFs are referred to as closed storage SCIF, open storage SCIF, and ___________________.

a. Continuous Operation SCIF

You must report any systemic weaknesses and anomalies.

true

When closing a closed storage SCIF you must ensure all classified material has been stored, security containers are closed and locked, locked sign is displayed on security containers, and the SF-701 form is completed.

true

SCI is required to be stored in a GSA-approved container in a Closed Storage SCIF.

true

One company must be responsible for the installation, maintenance, and monitoring of the Intrusion Detection System (IDS) for SCIFs.

true

SCI Material cannot be stored in _________________________________.

b. An open storage SCIF (WRONG)

_____________ uses imagery, imagery intelligence, or geospatial information to describe, assess, and visually depict physical features and geographically referenced activities on the earth.

b. Imagery Intelligence (IMINT) (WRONG)

Which of the following is the preferred method for transporting an SCI document from one SCIF to another?

a. Defense Courier Service (DCS)

IS components, media, and/or memory may be brought into a SCIF and removed from a SCIF if it has been properly logged and approved by the __________________________.

c. Special Security Officer (SSO) or Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)

Which of the following is an escort in a SCIF not required to do?

d. Process the visitor certifications for their visitors

You've noticed that Sydney has been very unhappy and disgruntled at work lately in the SCIF. You are required to report this information about Sydney.

true

How long must SCIF visitor control logs be retained?

. 1 year after the last entry

Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) is ______________________.

c. Classified national intelligence information concerning or derived from intelligence sources, methods, or analytical processes, which is required to be handled within formal access control systems

You are not required to report adverse information about others who also have SCI access. You are only required to report adverse information about yourself.

false

The ___________________________ processes SCIF visitor certifications.

b. Special Security Officer (SSO) or Special Security Representative (SSR)

_____________ includes representations of objects reproduced electronically or by optical means on film, electronic display devices, or other media which is derived from visual photography, radar sensors, and electro-optics.

c. Imagery Intelligence (IMINT)

SCI material is not required to be stored in a GSA-approved container in an open storage SCIF.

true

Which SCI control system is designed to protect imagery intelligence?

a. TALENT KEYHOLE (TK)

When you signed the _______________, you acknowledged that you were advised that mishandling SCI could cause irreparable harm to the United States and you are obligated not to disclose SCI to anyone who is not authorized to receive it.

a. SCI NdS

Current SCI control systems are HCS, SI, and ________________.

a. TALENT KEYHOLE

A French citizen you met at a party has taken a strong interest in finding out more about your employment. Because you do not return his phone calls, however, this is not considered a foreign contact that must be reported.

false

Who provides construction and security requirements for SCIFs?

a. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) WRONG

Who is responsible for terminating SCI access?

. Special Security Officer (SSO), or designee WRONG

_____________ is the collection of intelligence through public sources.

a. Open Source Intelligence (OSINT)

Who heads the Intelligence Community (IC)?

c. Director of National Intelligence

You must consult your SCIF's ____________to learn what you are or are not permitted to tell your family members about your work location and mission.

b. ISSO WRONG

SCI control systems are additional measures used to protect intelligence sources and methods or analytical procedures that are beyond those used to protect non-SCI classified information.

true

When you sign the SCI Nondisclosure Statement (NdS), you are ________________________.

b. Making a lifelong commitment to protect U. S. Government classified intelligence information

You should never connect classified and unclassified systems together.

true

Equipment used to destroy SCI paper materials must be listed in the ___________________________________________________________.

c. NSA Evaluated Products List of High Security Crosscut Paper Shredders

You are required to remove your name badge as soon as you leave your SCIF so as not to call attention to yourself.

true

When you signed the SCI NdS, you acknowledged that this agreement will last until you retire or separate from the Federal Government, unless you are released in writing by an authorized representative of the department or agency that last granted you with access to SCI.

false

Walls within a SCIF require acoustical protection measures and sound masking systems to protect SCI.

true

SCIF windows must be secured at ground level and up to _____________ above ground level.

18 feet

In a SCIF, SCI must always be stored in a GSA-approved container.

false

You are permitted to discuss SCI outside your SCIF as long as it is with one of your SCIF co-workers.

false

For access to SCIFs during business hours, cipher locks may be used for high security areas and compartments.

true

SCI is required to be stored in a GSA-approved container in a Closed Storage SCIF.

true

SCI Material cannot be stored in _________________________________.

c. An open storage SCIF (WRONG)

SCI material must be _____________________ prior to giving the package to the courier.

double wrapped

Which of the following is true about escorts in SCIFs

c. Only personnel assigned to the SCIF are authorized to escort non-indoctrinated or contractor personnel within the government area.

In a SCIF, reproduction equipment must display a sign indicating the highest level of classification allowed to be reproduced on that equipment

true

You placed a For Sale ad in the local newspaper in an attempt to sell your old car. Because this involves contact with the media, you are required to report it.

false

Equipment leaving latent images on itself or on other material or that has the capability to connect to remote diagnostic centers, such as by telephone line, is prohibited for classified reproduction.

true

____________ is the collection of intelligence through public sources.

a. Human Intelligence (HUMINT) (WRONG)

Visitors who are not certified may access classified information as long as their affiliation or position warrants it.

false

Copies of classified documents are not subject to the same control, accountability, and destruction procedures as the original document.

false

You are required to have a pre-publication review of any material you create based on your access to classified information before it enters _______________.

b. The public domain

The SCIF Fixed Facility Checklist is used to obtain SCIF accreditation.

true

_____________ is technically derived intelligence data other than imagery and signals intelligence that locates, identifies, or describes distinctive characteristics of targets.

c. Measurement and Signature Intelligence (MASINT)

When you signed the SCI NdS, you gave up protection under the Whistleblower Protection Act

false

You should never connect classified and unclassified systems together.

true

We use classification management to determine the nature of information and assign proper classification markings, SCI control system markings, dissemination controls, and declassification instructions.

true

Security violations are required to be reported, but infractions are not required to be reported.

false

Christopher works in a SCIF and is having an Internet relationship in a chat room (outside of work hours) with a woman who is not a U.S. citizen. Christopher is required to report this relationship.

true

What piece of information is not required to be recorded on the SCIF visitor control log?

visitors birth date

_____________ is the collection of intelligence using human sources such as diplomats, military attaches, and spies.

b. Open Source Intelligence (OSINT)

_____________ is the collection of verbal and nonverbal signals from land, sea, and satellite. These signals are protected within the Communications Intelligence, (COMINT) SCI control system.

. Geospatial Intelligence (GEOINT) (WRONG)

Equipment used to destroy SCI paper materials must be listed in the ___________________________________________________________.

b. NSA Evaluated Products List of High Security Crosscut Paper Shredders

Destruction of SCI must be conducted by SCI indoctrinated personnel.

true

Which SCI control system is designed to protect signals intelligence including communications intelligence and electronic intelligence?

c. HCS (HCS) (wrong)

You must report any systemic weaknesses and anomalies.

True

Which of the following statements is correct?

c. You must report any part-time employment (WRONG)

The DNI issued several _________________ and ________________ which provide security policy for the protection of national intelligence as well as the personnel security requirements for access to SCI, and physical and technical security requirements for SCIFs.

c. Intelligence Community Directives, Intelligence Community Policy Guidance documents

Jill works in a SCIF. Jill is party to a malpractice lawsuit. Jill is required to report this legal involvement.

True

Spills are deliberate unauthorized disclosures of classified information to the media whereas leaks are accidental or intentional unauthorized disclosures of classified information across computer systems.

False

When you signed the SCI NdS, you acknowledged that any breach of this agreement could result in the termination of your SCI access and your employment as well as prosecution of you under U.S. criminal laws.

true

Which of the following is not a requirement of a secure telephone system in a SCIF?

c. Detects attempted or actual unauthorized human entry into a SCIF

____________________is required to access certain areas of a SCIF and classified information.

a. Need-to-know

Who provides accreditation for DoD SCIFs

b. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

Visitors who have a visitor certification do not require an escort.

false

John has access to SCI and is currently legally separated from his wife. John is required to report his se

true

SCI is one of eight categories of information that require classified protection as outlined in Executive Order 13526.

true

If a SCIF has a high security lock, then an access control system is not required.

false

Walls in SCIFs must extend from true floor to true ceiling.

true

SI is the SCI control system marking abbreviation for which SCI control system?

b. TALENT KEYHOLE (WRONG)

The biggest vulnerability in SCIF forced entry is the ____________________.

a. Emergency exit doors

You signed an SCI Nondisclosure Statement during the __________________ process.

Debriefing (WRONG)

You are required to report suspicious co-worker activities

True

All Sensitive Compartmented Information Facilities (SCIFs) can be used to store Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI).

False

Which SCI control system is designed to protect human intelligence?

c. TALENT KEYHOLE (TK) (WRONG)

Walls within a SCIF require acoustical protection measures and sound masking systems to protect SCI.

true

Jim works in a SCIF. Jim got drunk and passed out in a bar over the weekend. Jim is required to report this incident.

true


USSOUTHCOM Emergency Response and Active Shooter Preparedness

In the event of an emergency, personnel may be required to evacuate the SC HQ building or shelter-in-place, but in either case emergency assistance must be requested by dialing 9-911.

True

The person identified in the Installation Emergency Management plan who has overall authority and responsibility for the management of an incident operation is the:

Incident Commander

In an active shooter situation, it is recommended that personnel follow the three basic courses of action listed below. Which is the correct order?

Run-Hide-Fight

When DES arrives at the scene, all personnel must remain calm, follow DES instructions and?

All of the above

An active shooter is an individual or group of individuals actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

True

JKO USSOUTHCOM Special Access Program (SAP) Refresher (FOUO)

SAP-accessed individuals must report both official and non-official travel to a USSOUTHCOM J3 Security Officer.

True

DoD contractors may participate in SAP if the access requirement:

Is identified in the DD Form 254, "Contract Security Classification Specification." (correct)

JWICS is an approved cryptographic automated information system (AIS) for processing and transmitting SAP information.

False (correct)

SAP information shall be marked (e.g., "TOP SECRET//SPECIAL ACCESS REQUIRED-TAXI GREY") in accordance with DoDM 5205.07 Volume 4 guidance and the _______________ for the specific program.

Security Classification Guide (SCG)

Which of the following are approach methods or techniques used by foreign intelligence services (FIS)?

All of the above (correct)

It's not an individual's job to investigate potential intelligence threats; however, it is an individual's responsibility to __________ suspicious activity so authorities may investigate.

Report (correct)

If SAP information must be stored in paper form, it must be properly accounted and locked within an approved security container inside a SAP Facility (SAPF).

Tru (correct)

Unauthorized disclosure of SAP information could:

All the above (correct)

All SAP-accessed personnel must complete and submit a Pre-Screening Questionnaire (PSQ) annually to maintain access.

True (correct)

Choose the correctly formatted banner line for a TOP SECRET document containing SAP "Blue Fog" information.

TOP SECRET//SPECIAL ACCESS REQUIRED-BLUE FOG (correct)

Anyone finding SAP material out of proper control shall:

Take actions to safeguard the material and immediately notify a USSOUTHCOM J3 SAP Security Officer. (correct)

SAP-accessed personnel must notify the SAP Security Office of employment/position changes, as they may impact ____________________.

Continued need-to-know (NTK) and access to SAP information (correct)

JKO USSOUTHCOM Annual Security Awareness (CUI)

Who does a person that has knowledge of a loss or possible compromise of classified information report to and how soon?

The Security Hotline at 305-437-2345 or the Information Security Office at 305-437-1175 , immediately.

The wearing of a USSOUTHCOM security badge implies "need to know" regarding access to classified information.

False

Cover sheets are not required when handling Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).

False

It is authorized to have classified discussions in the HQ building hallways and/or restrooms, as long as the person you are speaking to has the proper clearance and a need to know.

False

When material is derivatively classified based on "multiple sources," the derivative classifier shall compile a list of the sources used. This list shall be included in, or attached to the derivative document.

True

You received an email on NIPRNET that you believe may contain classified information. You should?

Immediately contact the Security Hotline at (305) 437-2345 or the Information Security Office at (305) 437-1175.

Identify the correct employee type or access.

Contractor (3), (5) TS/SCI Access

Compromise of classified information is defined as:

The unauthorized disclosure of classified information.

When transporting classified materials within the HQ building, which of the following is required?

A classified document cover sheet over the document and placed in a folder or envelope ensuring the classification level of the document is not exposed during transit.

Threats to classified and unclassified government assets include:

All of the provided choices are correct.

What classification level should be applied to information that could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to the national security?

Confidential

If you suspect that information has been over-classified, who must you contact to challenge the classification?

Contact the Original Classification Authority (OCA) of the information.

Choose the correct overall classification for the document.

SECRET/NOFORN


JKO SEJPME Reserve Component

Which of the following is NOT one of the major levels of mobilization:
* Full mobilization
* Limited reserve call-up
* Partial mobilization
* Presidential reserve call-up

Limited reserve call-up

Which mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without declaration of national emergency, not more than 200,00 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support requirements of any operational mission?

Presidential reserve call-up (PRC)

Which type of mobilization entails mobilizing all reserve component units in the existing approved force structure, as well as all individual reservists, retired military personnel, and the resources needed to meet requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, and is for the duration of the emergency plus six months?

Full mobilization (FM)

Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process?

Early in the planning process

Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States?

50 %

There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armesd Forces of the United States?

7

With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies on the ______?
* Army NG
* Army Reserve
* Both Army NG & Army Reserve
* None of the answers

Both Army NG & Army Reserve

Which of the following Reserve Components is NOT part of the DoD?
* Army NG
* Coast Guard Reserve
* Marine Reserve
* Navy Reserve

Coast Guard Reserve

The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws.
* Army Reserve & NG
* Air Reserve & NG
* Navy Reserve & Marine Reserve
* Air NG & Army NG

Air NG & Army NG

Mobilization of the Reserve Component is a clear indication of the U.S.'s resolve, and can be employed as a Military Flexible Deterrent Option (FDO).
* T or F

True


Army PRT

What does FM 7-22 Cover?

The Army's Physical Readiness Training Program

What FM covers Physical Readiness Training Program?

FM 7-22

What does PRT stand for?

Physical Readiness Training

What does PRT prepare Soldiers and units for?

for the physical challenges of fulfilling the mission in the face of a wide range of threats, in complex operational environments, and with emerging technologies

Para 1-3 What is Physical readiness?

Physical readiness is the ability to meet the physical demands of any combat or duty position, accomplish the mission, and continue to fight and win

Para 1-4 Why is Physical readiness training a mandatory training requirement?

1. It is Considered by senior leaders to be essential to individual, unit, and force readiness
2. It is Required by law for all individuals and units

Para 1-5 Where do The tasks, conditions, and standards of PRT activities derive from?

The tasks, conditions, and standards of PRT activities derive from C-METL, D-METL and WTBDs

Para 1-5 What does C-METL stand for?

core mission essential task list

Para 1-5 What does D-METL stand for?

directed mission essential task list

Para 1-5 What does WTBDs stand for?

warrior tasks and battle drills

Para 1-6 What are the seven principles of training that PRT links to?

1. Commanders and Other Leaders are Responsible for Training
2. Noncommissioned Officers Train Individuals, Crews, and Small Teams
3. Train as You Will Fight
4. Train to Standard
5. Train to Sustain
6. Conduct Multiechelon and Concurrent Training
7. Train to Develop Agile Leaders and Organizations

Para 1-7 Who's program is the Physical readiness training program?

The Commander's Program

Para 1-7 Who is essential to a successful PRT program and why?

Senior NCOs because they are often the most experienced trainers in the unit

Para 1-8 What nine things commanders must do to optimize the effect of PRT?

1. Incorporate mission command in PRT
2. Supervise the planning, preparation, execution, and assessment of PRT
3. Align PRT with mission/METL (mission-essential task list) requirements in support of full spectrum Operations
4. Train to standard according to FM 7-22
5. Assess individual and unit physical readiness according to FM 7-22
6. Provide resources required to execute PRT
7. Incorporate safety and composite risk management (CRM)
8. Ensure training is realistic and performance-oriented
9. Ensure training replicates the operational environment as closely as possible

Para 1-9 What do Noncommissioned officers serve as the primary trainers for?

enlisted Soldiers, crews, and small teams

Para 1-9 What are NCO's three responsibilities to accomplish the PRT mission?

1. Identify specific tasks that PRT enhances in support of the unit's C- or D-METL for individuals, crews and small teams
2. Prepare, rehearse, and execute PRT
3. Evaluate PRT and conduct AARs to provide feedback to the commander

Para 1-10 Who is responsible to train junior NCOs and aid in developing junior officers, ensuring mastery of PRT drills, exercise activities, and assessments?

Senior NCO's

Para 1-12 What is the Principle that All Army training is based on?

"Train as you will fight"

Para 1-13 What does the Toughening phase training provide?

provides foundational fitness and fundamental motor skills, which lay the foundation for all other activities in the sustaining phase

Para 1-14 What are the eight tenets of train as you will fight, as they relate to PRT?

1. PRT must support full spectrum operations and promote quick transitions between missions
2. PRT must support proficiency in combined arms operations and unified actions
3. PRT focus is on training the fundamentals first
4. PRT must be performance-oriented, conducted under realistic conditions, and mission focused
5. PRT should incorporate challenging, complex, ambiguous, and uncomfortable situations
6. PRT must incorporate safety and CRM
7. PRT must be conducted under conditions that replicate the operational environment
8. PRT must be conducted during deployments

Para 1-15 How should Army PRT be conducted?

Army PRT should be tough, realistic, and physically challenging, yet safe in its execution

Para 1-15 What is the Objective of PRT being tough, realistic, and physically challenging?

The objective is to develop Soldiers' physical capabilities to perform their duty assignments and combat roles

Para 1-15 What are the fundamental skills that Physical readiness training activities include?

fundamental skills such as climbing, crawling, jumping, landing, and sprinting, because all contribute to success in the more complex skills of obstacle
negotiation, combatives, and military movement

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Employ hand grenades?

1. Run under load
2. jump
3. bound
4. high/low crawl
5. climb
6. push
7. pull
8. squat
9. lunge
10. roll
11. stop, start, change direction
12. get up/down
13. throw

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Perform individual movement Techniques?

1. March/run under load
2. jump
3. bound
4. high/low crawl
5. climb
6. push
7. pull
8. squat
9. lunge
10. roll
11. stop, start, change direction
12. get up/down

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Navigate from one point to another?

1. March/run under load
2. jump
3. bound
4. high/low crawl
5. climb
6. push
7. pull
8. squat
9. lunge
10. roll
11. stop, start, change direction
12. get up/down

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Move under fire?

Run fast under load, jump, bound, crawl, push, pull, squat, roll, stop, start, change direction, and get up/down
1. Run fast under load
2. jump
3. bound
4. crawl
5. push
6. pull
7. squat
8. roll
9. stop, start, change direction
10. get up/down

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Perform Combatives?

1. React to man-to-man contact
2. push
3. pull
4. run
5. roll
6. throw
7. land
8. manipulate body weight
9. squat
10. lunge
11. rotate
12. bend
13. block
14. strike
15. kick
16. stop, start, change direction
17. get up/down

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Assess and Respond to Threats (Escalation of Force)?

React to man-to-man contact: push, pull, run, roll, throw, land, manipulate body weight, squat, lunge, rotate, bend, block, strike, kick, stop, start, change direction, and get up/down. Run under load, jump, bound, high/low crawl, climb, push, pull, squat, lunge, roll, stop, start, change direction, get up/down, and throw
1. React to man-to-man contact
2. push
3. pull
4. run
5. roll
6. throw
7. land
8. manipulate body weight
9. squat
10. lunge
11. rotate
12. bend
13. block
14. strike
15. kick
16. stop, start, change direction
17. get up/down
18. Run under load
19 jump
20. bound
21. high/low crawl
22. climb
23. push
24. pull

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task React to contact?

Run fast under load, jump, bound, crawl, push, pull, squat, roll, stop, start, change direction, and get up/down

Table 1-2 What are the Physical requirements to perform WTBD task Evacuate a casualty?

Squat, lunge, flex/extend/rotate trunk, walk/run, lift, and carry

Para 1-17 What are the critical components of physical conditioning?

strength, endurance, and mobility

Table 1-3 What are the PRT Components that make up Strength?

Muscular Strength and Muscular Endurance

Table 1-3 What are the PRT Components that make up Endurance?

Anaerobic Endurance and Aerobic Endurance

Table 1-3 What are the eight PRT Components that make up Mobility?

1. Agility
2. Balance
3. Coordination
4. Flexability
5. Posture
6. Stability
7. Speed
8. Power

Table 1-4 Name 6 PRT Activities?

Conditioning Drill 1, Conditioning Drill 2, Conditioning Drill 3, Guerrilla Drill, Climbing Drill 1, Climbing Drill 2, Strength Training Circuit, Military Movement Drill 1, Military Movement Drill 2, 30:60's, 60:120's, 300-yd Shuttle Run, Ability Group Run, Unit Formation Run, Release Run, Terrain Run, Hill Repeats, Foot Marching, Obstacle Course Negotiation, Combatives

Para 1-18 What should be the goal of all training?

mastery, not just proficiency

Para 1-18 What are the three tenets of standards-based training?

1. Leaders know and enforce standards 2. Leaders define success in the absence of standards 3. Leaders train to standard, not time

Para 1-20 How do Commanders intensify training experiences?

by varying training conditions

Para 1-20 To prepare Soldiers to meet the physical demands of their profession, a system of training must focus on what?

the development of strength, endurance and mobility, plus the enhancement of the body's metabolic pathways

Para 1-20 Standards are achieved through precise control of what four things?

1. Prescribe appropriate intensity and duration to which Soldiers perform PRT
2. Properly distribute external loads across the major joints of the body
3. Integrate and balance the components of strength, endurance, and mobility
4. Provide adequate rest, recovery, and nutrition

Para 1-22 What is the key to maintaining unit proficiency despite personnel turbulence and operational deployments?

Sustainment training

Para 1-23 What is Multi-echelon training?

Multi-echelon training is the simultaneous training of more than one echelon on different tasks

Para 1-23 What are the distinct characteristics of Multi-echelon training?

1. They require detailed planning and coordination by commanders and leaders at each echelon
2. They maintain battle focus by linking individual and collective battle tasks with unit METL tasks and within large-scale training event METL tasks
3. They habitually train at least two echelons simultaneously on selected METL tasks and require maximum use of allocated resources and available time

Para 1-24 When does Concurrent training occur?

Concurrent training occurs when a leader conducts training within another type of training

Para 1-25 What are three training phases of PRT?

1. Initial conditioning
2. Toughening
3.Sustaining

Para 1-26 Who has an opportunity to lead every day during PRT?

Noncommissioned officers have an opportunity to lead every day during PRT

Para 1-27 What is the objective of PRT?

to prepare Soldiers to meet the physical demands related to mission and C- or D-METL

Para 1-27 Why are exercises, drills, and activities methodically sequenced?

to adequately challenge all Soldiers through progressive conditioning of the entire body while controlling injuries

Para 2-1 What is the definition of Army physical readiness?

the ability to meet the physical demands of any combat or duty position, accomplish the mission, and continue to fight and win

Para 2-1 What is the goal of the Army Physical Fitness Training Program?

to develop Soldiers who are physically capable and ready to perform their duty assignments or combat roles

Para 2-2 What does the initial conditioning phase do?

prepares future Soldiers to learn and adapt to Army PRT

Para 2-2 What does the Toughening phase activities develop?

foundational fitness and fundamental movement skills that prepare Soldiers to transition to the sustaining phase

Para 2-2 What does the Sustaining phase activities develop?

a higher level of physical readiness required by duty position and C- or D-METL

Para 2-2 What does Reconditioning do?

restores Soldiers' physical fitness levels that enable them to safely re-enter the toughening or sustaining phase and progress to their previous level of
conditioning

Para 2-2 What are the types of PRT training?

Types of PRT training include on-ground, off-ground, and combatives

Para 2-2 What are three fundamental components within the types of training?

strength, endurance, and mobility

Para 2-2 What principles does Phase training follow?

precision, progression, and integration

Para 2-3 What is the purpose of the initial conditioning phase?

to establish a safe starting point for people considering entering the Army

Para 2-3 When is the initial conditioning phase conducted?

it is conducted before enlistment or pre-commissioning

Para 2-4 What is the purpose of the toughening phase?

to develop foundational fitness and fundamental movement skills

Para 2-4 During the toughening phase what does a variety of training activities with precise standards of execution ensure?

that bones, muscles, and connective tissues gradually toughen, rather than break

Para 2-4 What do the essential skills of the Toughening phase activities develop?

jumping, landing, climbing, lunging, bending, reaching, and lifting

Para 2-4 When does the toughening phase occur?

during IMT, basic combat training (BCT), one station unit training (OSUT) (red/white/blue phases), and Basic Officer Leader Course A (BOLC A)

Para 2-5 What is the purpose of the sustaining phase?

to continue physical development and maintain a high level of physical readiness appropriate to duty position and the requirements of the unit's C- or
D-METL as it applies to ARFORGEN

Para 2-5 When are the Sustaining phase activities conducted?

in unit PRT throughout the Army

Para 2-6 What is the objective of reconditioning?

to restore physical fitness levels that enable Soldiers to reenter the toughening or sustaining phase safely, and then progress to their previous levels of conditioning

Para 2-6 When may Soldiers participate in reconditioning?

after rehabilitation and recovery from injury or illness, and then re-enter training in the toughening or sustaining phases

Para 2-7 What factors can cause Soldiers to move from the toughening or sustaining phases to reconditioning?

extended deployment, field training, block leave, and recovery from illness or injury

Para 2-8 What principles does the conduct of Army PRT follow?

the principles of precision, progression, and integration

Para 2-9 What is Precision?

Precision is the strict adherence to optimal execution standards for PRT activities

Para 2-9 What is Precision based on?

Precision is based on the premise that the quality of the movement or form is just as important as the weight lifted, repetitions performed or speed of
running

Para 2-9 What does the Adherance to precise execution standards in the conduct of all PRT activities ensure?

the development of body management and fundamental movement skills

Para 2-10 What is Progression?

Progression is the systematic increase in the intensity, duration, volume, and difficulty of PRT activities

Para 2-10 What happens if proper PRT progression is not followed?

the Soldier is unable to adapt to the demands of training, the Soldier is then unable to recover, which leads to overtraining or the possibility of injury

Para 2-11 What is Integration?

the use of multiple training activities to achieve balance and appropriate recovery between activities in the PRT program

Para 2-11 What do Military movement drills (MMDs) improve?

running form and movement under direct or indirect fire

Para 2-11 What do guerrilla drill (GD) develop?

the strength and skill associated with casualty evacuation and combatives

Para 2-12 What are the three components of training?

Strength, Mobility and Endurance

Para 2-13 What is Strength?

Strength is the ability to overcome resistance

Para 2-13 What are the two subcomponents of Strength?

absolute muscular strength and muscular endurance

Para 2-13 What is absolute muscular strength?

the capacity of a muscle/muscle group to exert a force against a maximal resistance

Para 2-13 What is muscular endurance?

the capacity of a muscle/muscle group to exert a force repeatedly or to hold a fixed or static contraction over a period time

Para 2-14 What is Endurance?

the ability to sustain activity

Para 2-14 What are the two subcomponents of Endurance?

anaerobic and aerobic

Para 2-14 What is anaerobic?

the ability to sustain high-intensity activity of short duration

Para 2-14 What is aerobic?

low-intensity activity of long duration

Para 2-15 What are Examples of anaerobic training?

speed running, individual movement techniques, and negotiation of obstacles

Para 2-15 What are Examples of aerobic training?

foot marching, sustained running, cycling, and swimming

Para 2-16 What is Mobility?

the functional application of strength and endurance

Para 2-17 What are the eight Qualitative performance factors for improved mobility?

1. Agility
2. Balance
3. Coordination
4. Flexability
5. Posture
6. Stability
7. Speed
8. Power

Para 2-17 What is Agility?

the ability to stop, start, change direction, and efficiently change body position

Para 2-17 What is Balance?

the ability to maintain equilibrium

Para 2-17 What is Coordination?

the ability to perform multiple tasks

Para 2-17 What is Flexibility?

the range of movement at a joint and its surrounding muscles

Para 2-17 What is Posture?

any position in which the body resides

Para 2-17 What is Stability?

the ability to maintain or restore equilibrium when acted on by forces trying to displace it

Para 2-17 What is Speed?

rate of movement

Para 2-17 What is Power?

the product of strength and speed

Para 2-18 What are the three types of training incorporated in the PRT system?

1. On-ground training
2. Off-ground training
3. Combatives

Para 2-19 What is On-ground training?

activities in which Soldiers maintain contact with the ground

Para 2-20 What is Off-ground training?

activities that take place off the ground briefly (jumping and landing) or while suspended above ground for longer periods (climbing bar and negotiation
of high obstacles)

Para 2-21 What is Combatives?

techniques that deter or defeat opponents using projectile (weapons), striking and/or close range (grappling)

Para 3-1 What does success or failure of the PRT program depends upon?

the quality of its leadership

Para 3-2 How do officers, NCOs, and PRT leaders set and enforce standards PRT standards?

through complete mastery of FM 7-22 and the PRT Program

Para 3-2 Who should be able to explain and demonstrate all PRT activities?

officers, NCOs, and PRT leaders

Para 3-2 What is the first step in officers, NCOs, and PRT leaders developing confidence, assurance, and poise?

Mastery

Para 3-3 What affects the PRT leader effectiveness?

The personal appearance and physical qualifications of the PRT leader

Para 3-4 How do PRT leaders gain the confidence of the Soldiers?

by winning their respect

Para 3-4 What happens if Soldiers are exercised too violently?

they become so stiff and sore that they look upon the next PRT session with apprehension; Soldiers can develop an antagonistic attitude toward the leader and Instead of cooperating, they will malinger at every opportunity

Para 4-2 How long does it take for positive changes in physical fitness levels to take affect?

it takes at least six to eight weeks

Para 4-21 What is the purpose of the Army Pregnancy Postpartum Physical Training (PPPT) Program?

to maintain health and fitness levels of pregnant Soldiers and to assist them in returning to pre-pregnancy fitness levels after the end of their pregnancy

Para 4-21 Who is responsible for the PPPT Program?

The U.S. Army Medical Command has responsibility for the Army Pregnancy Postpartum Physical Training (PPPT) Program

Para 5-1 What are the three Exercise Principals?

1. Precision
2. Progression
3. Integration

Para 5-2 What is Precision?

strict adherence to the best execution standards for PRT activities

Para 5-4 What is Progression?

the systematic increase in the intensity or duration of PRT activities

Para 5-4 During Progression, what are the three things gradually increased to produce the desired physiological effect?

1. Intensity
2. Exercise volume
3. Duration

Para 5-4 What is Intensity?

resistance and pace of an exercise

Para 5-4 What is Exercise Volume?

number of sets and repetitions

Para 5-4 What is Duration?

Time


United States Army Awards

hat regulations covers Army Awards?

AR 600-8-22

What are the categoreis of individual awards?

a. Decorations.
b. AGCM.
c. Campaign and service medals.
d. Service ribbons, badges, and tabs.
e. Certificates and letters.

What is the time limit on an award?

within 2 years of the act achievement, or service to be honored

What award is the acception to the 2 year time limit?

The purple heart or if either the recommender or awardee was prisoner of war (POW), missing in action, or in a medically incapacitated status; award
of the Silver Star (SS) or lesser decorations may be approved without regard to elapsed time since the act, achievement, or service occurred that is to be honored

What are the time lines on the Medal of Honor, Distinguish service cross and distinguish service medal?

submitted 3 years from date of event and awarded within 5 years

What is the time limit on appealing a disapproval, or upgrading an award?

1 year

What happens to awards that were upgraded?

The previous award is taken off the record

At what level do upgrades stop?

MSM will not go towards a valor award

Can flagged soldiers recieve awards for valor or heroism?

ONly ABCP and PT failures can. The soldier must have an honorable record up to the event. The purple heart does not apply

What is the period of an award?

For meritorious service it should be within the time the soldier has been at the requesting commands unit.
Retirement is the period of service requested
Valor is just a different scope of an award

Explain the process of interim awards:

When a soldier was submitted for a very lengthy award process (Distinguished Flying Cross or Soldier's Medal) an appropriate commander will issue an ARCOM until the award is approved (or denied) upon approval a seperate permanent order will remove the ARCOM from the soldiers record

What is the purpose of an Impact Award?

intended to recognize a single specific act or accomplishment, separate and distinct from
regularly assigned duties, such as a special project
The
achievement covers a short period of time with a definitive beginning and ending date.

What devices are issued in a Succeeding award?

For each succeeding act or period of meritorious service or achievement that justifies the award of a decoration, an oak
leaf cluster or numeral device will be awarded. The exception is when decorations are presented to foreigners and
posthumous awards presented to primary next of kin.

Can posthumous awards be mailed to the next of kin?

Absolutely not. All available efforts will coordinate a presentation

What is the order of next of kin?

descending order of precedence, surviving
spouse; eldest surviving child (natural or adoptive); father or mother, unless legal exclusive (sole) custody was granted to a person by reason of a court decree or statutory provision; blood or adoptive relative who was granted legal custody of the person by a court decree or statutory provision; eldest surviving brother or sister; eldest surviving grandparent; and eldest surviving grandchild

Describe replacing a posthumous award or medal:

the next of kin can request one, submitted with proof of relationship. Replacement Medals of Honor, DSCs, and Distinguished Service Medals are the only awards replaced at no cost.

Describe ammending orders:

A commander will issue new orders in the event of a typo (SSN, mispelling, number or oak leaf clusters) if more revision is necessary it is sent back to order issuing command, if that command no longer exists, it goes to HRC

Presentation of the Medal of Honor:

President to awardee or next of kin. Seperate ceremony with the flag. Next of kin can decline any presentation

Presentation of the AGCM:

At troop formation. No ceremony

Presentation of The Purple Heart, DOD awards, and other service awards:

At troop formations, only one ceremony. not duplicated for those who missed the ceremony

Presentation of the Army Lapel Button

formally presented at troop formation or ceremony

Presenation of badges:

No need for formalities, but formations and ceremonies are authorized and encouraged (as possible)

What items do not require a formal presenation

Conversion or retroactive entitlement awards
campaign medals and service ribbons
Reissue of awards, decorations, and badges
Foreign decorations

What is engraved on the back of the Medal of Honor?

The grade, name, and organization of the awardee

What is engraved on the back of the other awards?

The name only of the
awardee

What entitlements do Medal of Honor recipients recieve?

Members on the MOH roll are guranteed a special pension, supplementary uniform allowance, use of military flights when not on duty, commissary and exchange priveledges, admission to US academies for family, burial honors, invitations to presidential inaugrations

Who is allowed increase pension? Why?

. Any awardee of the MOH, the DSC, Navy Cross, or Air Force
Cross satisfies the requirement for extraordinary heroism

What is the order of presidence of awards?

(1) U.S. military decorations.
(2) U.S. nonmilitary decorations.
(3) POW Medal.
(4) AGCM.
16 AR 600-8-22 • 25 June 2015
(5) U.S. Army Reserve Components Achievement Medal (ARCAM).
(6) U.S. service medals and service ribbons.
(7) U.S. Merchant Marine decorations.
(8) Foreign decorations (excluding service medals and ribbons).
(9) Non-U.S. service medals and ribbons.

What does Chapter 2 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

Department of Defense Awards and Decorations

What is an example of a solider not getting awarded the PH?

If it is a result of thier own negligence.

When was the NDSM authorized?

1953

When was the GWOTSM authorized?

2003 after 11 SEPT 2001 --TBD

When was the KDSM authorized?

2003 for all SMs who served after 28 July 1954

What does chapter 3 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

U.S. Army Individual Decorations

What is the order of presidence for Individual decorations?

(1) MOH.
(2) DSC.
(3) DSM.
(4) SS.
(5) LM.
(6) DFC.
(7) SM.
(8) BSM.
(9) MSM.
(10) AM.
(11) ARCOM.
(12) AAM

Who can recommend an individual decoration?

a senior grade or have first hand knowledge. The recommending official must have seen it, or have been informed from an eyewitness

When was the medal of honor established?

12 July 1862 (amended by Acts of 9
July 1918 and 25 July 1963)

When was Distinguished Service Cross established?

,9 July 1918 (amended by Act of 25 July 1963).

When was the Distinguished Service Medal established?

s 9 July 1918

When was the Silver Star established?

9 July 1918 (amended by Act of 25 July 1963)

When was the Legion of Merit established?

20 July 1942. EO 9260, 29 October 1942 prescribed the criteria for the award and was amended by EO 10600, 15 March 1955

When was the Distinguished Flying Cross established?

Act of Congress 2 July 1926

When was the Soldier's Medal established?

2 July 1926, as amended by 10 USC 3750

A SM recommendation that is downgraded will be approved as an ARCOM.

When was the Bronze Star Medal established?

EO 9419, 4 February 1944 (superseded by EO 11046, 24 August 1962, as amended
by EO 13286, 28 February 2003 and PL 111-383, Section 571 of the 2011 National Defense Authorization Act).

When was the MSM established?

EO 11448, 16 January 1969 as amended by EO 12312, 2 July 1981, as amended by
EO 13286, 28 March 2003.

When was the air medal established?

EO 9158, 11 May 1942, as amended by EO 9242-A, 11 September 1942

When was the ARCOM established?

War Department Circular 377, 18 December 1945 (amended in DAGO
1960-10, 31 March 1960).

When was the AAM established?

established by the SECARMY, 10 April 1981, as announced in DAGO 1990-15

What is the form for recommendation for award?

DA Form 638

What are the rules for preparing a citation?

a. Proposed certificate citations submitted to HRC, ADB for approval of heroism awards (SM and higher) and for
the DSM will be typed double-spaced, no more than 12-inch font, on 8 1/2 by 11-inch paper, and may be continued on
one double-spaced typewritten page. Do not submit actual certificates to HRC.
b. Certificate citations for the LM, BSM, AM with "V" device and ARCOM with "V" device are limited to a
maximum of nine lines, 12-inch font.
c. Certificate citations for the MSM, ARCOM, and AAM are limited to six lines
d. avoid acronyms

What does Chapter 4 of AR 600-8-22cover?

AGCM and Reserve Components achievement medal

When was the AGCM established?

The AGCM was established by EO 8809, 28 June 1941 and was amended by EO 9323, 1943 and by EO 10444, 10
April 1953

What is a DA Form 4950?

AGCM certificate. Only given as first award and retirement

Chapter 5 of AR 600-8-22 covers what?

Service Medals and Service Ribbons

When was the Overseas service ribbon established?

10 April 1981 as announced in DAGO 1990-15.
Numerals will be used to denote second and subsequent awards of the OSR

When was the Army Service ribbon established

n 10 April 1981 as announced in DAGO
1990-15
issued upon completion of IET

When was the WWII Victory Medal established?

Act of Congress 6 July 1945 (59 Stat 461). It is awarded for
service between 7 December 1941 and 31 December 1946, both dates inclusive

When was the Civil War Campaign medal established?

War Department General Order 12, 1907. It is awarded for service between 15 April
1861 and 9 April 1865, or in Texas between 15 April 1861 and 20 August 1866.

What does Chapter 6 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

Appurtenances, Lapel Buttons, and Miniature Decorations

Describe an Oak Leaf Cluster:

A bronze or silver twig of four oak leaves with three acorns on the stem, 13/32-inch long for the suspension ribbon,
and 5/16-inch long for the service ribbon bar and the unit award emblem is issued to denote award of second and
succeeding awards of decorations

Describe Numerals:

Arabic numerals 3/16 inch in height are issued instead of a medal or ribbon for second and succeeding awards of
the AM, Multinational Force and Observers Medal, OSR, the NCOPDR, AFRM, and the ARCOTR

Describe the "V" device:

The "V" device is a bronze block letter, V, 1/4-inch high with serifs at the top of either side of the V. It is worn to
denote participation in acts of heroism involving conflict with an armed enemy. It was originally worn only on the
suspension and service ribbons of the BSM to denote an award made for heroism (valor). Effective 29 February 1964,
the "V" device was also authorized for wear on the AM and ARCOM for heroic acts or valorous deeds not warranting
awards of the DFC or the BSM with "V" device. Effective 25 June 1963, the "V" device was authorized additionally
for wear on the Joint Service Commendation Medal when the award is for acts of valor (heroism) during participation
in combat operations. In the case of multiple "V" devices for the same award, only one "V" device is worn on the
service ribbon.

Describe the "M" device:

The "M" device is a bronze letter, M, 1/4-inch high with serifs at the bottom of either side of the M. It is
authorized for wear on the AFRM by members of the RCs who are called to or who volunteer and serve on active duty
in support of specific U.S. military operations or contingencies designated by the Secretary of Defense, as defined in
10 USC 101(a)(13).

Describe a Clasp

The AGCM clasp is a bar 1/8-inch by 1 3/8 inches, of bronze, silver, or gold, with loops indicative of each period
of service. Paragraph 4-9 describes the clasps authorized for second and subsequent awards of the AGCM

Clasps are authorized for wear on the AGCM, World War I Victory Medal, ADSM, Army of Occupation Medal, and
Antarctica Service Medal. All clasps, except the AGCM clasp, are worn only on the suspension ribbon of the medal.

Describe a Service Star:

A service star
is a bronze or silver five-pointed star 3/16-inch in diameter.

Describe an Arrowhead

The arrowhead is a bronze replica of an Indian arrowhead 1/4-inch high. It denotes participation in a combat parachute
jump, helicopter assault landing, combat glider landing, or amphibious assault landing, while assigned or attached as a
member of an organized force carrying out an assigned tactical mission. A Soldier must actually exit the aircraft or
watercraft, as appropriate, to receive assault-landing credit.

Describe a 10-year device:

The 10-year device is authorized for wear on the AFRM to denote each 10-year period as follows:
a. A bronze hourglass will be awarded upon completion of the first 10-year period award.
b. A silver hourglass will be awarded upon completion of the second 10-year period award, denoting 20 years of
Reserve service.
c. A gold hourglass will be awarded upon completion of the third 10-year period award, denoting 30 years of
Reserve service.
d. A gold hourglass, followed by a bronze hourglass will be awarded upon completion of the fourth 10-year period
award, denoting 40 years of Reserve service.

What are approved lapel buttons for badges

Presidential Service Badge.
b. Vice Presidential Service Badge.
c. Office of the Secretary of Defense Identification Badge.
d. Joint Chiefs of Staff Identification Badge.
e. Army Staff Identification Badge

What does Chapter 7 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

United States Unit Awards

What Preceeded the Presidential Unit Citation?

On 3 November 1966, the Distinguished
Unit Citation was redesignated the PUC (Army)

Describe the Meritorious Unit Commendation

awarded to units for exceptionally
meritorious conduct in the performance of outstanding services for at least 6 continuous months during the period of
military operations against an armed enemy occurring on or after 1 January 1944

Describe the Army Superior Unit Award

recognize outstanding
meritorious performance by a unit during peacetime of a difficult and challenging mission under extraordinary
circumstances. Circumstances may be deemed to be extraordinary when they do not represent the typical day-to-day
circumstances under which the unit normally performs, or may reasonably be expected to perform, its peacetime
mission

What does Chapter 8 of Ar 600-8-22 cover?

Badges and Tabs

What is required to earn a Drivers Badge?

an active 346, be assigned duties and responsibilities as a driver for a minimum of 12 consecutive months or 8,000 miles without an accident (ainment of a high degree of skill in the operation and maintenance of motor vehicles.
)

What are Identification Badges?

to denote service performed in
specified assignments in the White House; in the Office of the Secretary of Defense; in the Organization of the Joint
Chiefs of Staff; as a member of HQDA; as a member of Guard, Tomb of the Unknown Soldier; as a participant in the
Army Reserve Officers' Training Corps Nurse Cadet Program; as a drill sergeant; and as a U.S. Army recruiter, an
ARNG recruiter, or a career counselor

What does Chapter 9 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

Foreign and International Decorations and Awards to U.S. Army Personnel

What does Chapter 10 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

Certificates, Memorandums and letters

What form is a Certificate of Acheivement?

DA Form 2442

What does Chapter 12 of AR 600-8-22 cover?

Distinguished U.S. Army Service School Awards


Army Land Navigation

What are the basic colors of a map and what do they represent?

Black- man made features
Red-brown- cultural features, all relief features and contour lines on a red-lens reading map
Blue- water features
Brown- relief features
Red- Population areas, main roads, and boundaries

Where is the legend on a map found?

Lower left corner.

What are contour lines?

Imaginary lines on the ground connecting equal elevation, they represent high and low ground elevation.

What are the three types of contour lines?

Index
Intermediate
Supplementary

How many mils are in a degree?

17.7 mils

How many norths are there on a military map?

True north
Magnetic north
Grid north

What are the 5 major terrain features?

Hill
Valley
Ridge
Saddle
Depression

Hidden Valley Ranch Salad Dressing

hill

A hill appears as contour lines forming closed circles. The inside of the smallest circle is the hilltop.

valley

A valley is a stretched-out groove in the land. A valley usually has water running through it.

If you are standing in a valley, three directions offer high ground, while the fourth offers low ground.

ridge

A ridge is a sloping line of high ground.

If you are standing on the center of a ridge, you will normally have low ground in three directions and high ground in one direction.

Contour lines forming a ridge tend to be U-shaped or V-shaped. The closed end of the contour line points away from high ground.

Note that a ridgeline is different from a ridge. A ridgeline is the top of the mountain that you see. It's the line connecting the highest points along a ridge.

saddle

A saddle is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. A saddle is not necessarily the lower ground between two hilltops. It may be simply a dip or break along a level ridge crest.

depression

A depression is a low point, or hole, in the ground.

What are the three minor terrain features?

Draw
Spur
Cliff

draw

A draw is a less developed stream course than a valley. In a draw, there is essentially no level ground and, therefore, little or no maneuver room within it.

spur

A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge. A spur is often formed by two roughly parallel streams cutting draws down the side of a ridge.

cliff

A cliff is a vertical or near-vertical feature. It is an abrupt dropoff.

On a map, cliffs are shown by contour lines very close together or touching each other. They may have tick marks pointing to low ground.

What are the two supplementary features?

Cut
Fill

cut

A cut is a man-made feature. It results from cutting through high ground, usually to form a level bed for a road or railroad track.

Cuts are shown on a map when they are at least 10 feet high, and they are drawn with a contour line along the cut line. This contour line extends the length of the cut and has tick marks that extend from the cut line to the roadbed, if the map scale permits this level of detail.

fill

Like the cut, a fill is a man-made feature. It results from filling a low area, usually to form a level bed for a road or railroad track.

On a map, fills are shown on a map when they are at least 10 feet high, and they are drawn with a contour line along the fill line. This contour line extends the length of the filled area and has tick marks that point toward lower ground.

What is a map?

A map is a graphic representation of a portion of the Earth's surface drawn to scale, as seen from above.

What is an azimuth?

A horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise manner from a north base line, expressing direction.

What is a vertical distance?

The distance between the highest and lowest points measured.

What is the distance between grid lines?

1 kilometer

How many mils are in a circle?

6400

Which north is used when using a map, when using a compass?

Grid north when using a map and magnetic north when using a compass.

Name two ways to hold a compass.

Compass-to-cheek method
Center-hold method

What colors are used on a map overlay?

Blue- friendly
Red- enemy
Black- boundaries
Yellow- contaminated area
Green- engineer obstacles

What is a back azimuth?

The opposite direction of an azimuth.

What is a declination diagram?

Shows the angular relationship between magnetic, grid and true north.

What is the general rule for reading military grid coordinates?

Right and up.

What is a benchmark?

A man-made marker showing points of elevation.

The lensatic compass has a bezel ring; each click of the bezel ring equals how many degrees?

3 degrees.

Two ways to orient a map?

Compass
Terrain association

What does FLOT mean?

Forward Line of Troops

What does intersection mean?

Finding a location by the intersection of two azimuths.

What is resection?

Finding your location by using the interaction of two back azimuths from two known points.

What are the four quadrants of a map?

Northeast
Northwest
Southeast
Southwest

What three things are needed to dead reckoning?

Known starting point
Known distance
Known azimuth

What is a polar coordinate?

Plotting a point using an azimuth and a distance from a known starting point.

The border line around the edge of the map is called what?

The neat line.

What is the contour level?

It is the vertical distance between contour lines. It can be found in the marginal information on the map.

What are the types of slopes?

Gentile
Steep
Concave
Convex

How close will a 8 digit grid get you to your point?

10 meters

How close will a 6 digit grid get you to your point?

100 meters

What would you use on a map to measure actual ground distance?

The bar scale

What does MGRS stand for?

Military Grid Reference System

What does UTM stand for?

Universal Transverse Mercator

What does UPS stand for?

Universal Polar Stereographic

What does UGS stand for?

Universal Grid System

What is the UGS?

The combination of the UTM, MGRS, UPS, and USNG (United States National Grid)

The UGS decides the Earth into what?

Grid Zone Designators

What are Grid Zone Designators divided into?

100,000 M Square Identifier

The 100,000 M Square Identifiers are divided into what?

1,000 M Grid Squares

Wear and Appearance of the Army Uniform

What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?

(AR 670-1/DA PAM 670-1)

Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?

The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the wearer moves forward.

What AR covers the issues and sale of personal clothing?

AR 700-84

When is wearing a combination of civilian and military clothing authorized?

Only when prescribed in AR 670-1 or directed by the Secretary of the Army.

When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear with uniform?

When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but ones the travel is complete, protective headgear must be removed and the army head gear donned.

Soldiers will wear headgear with the Army uniform except under which circumstances?

1)Headgear is not required if it would interfere with the safe operation of military vehicles.
2)the wear of military headgear is not required while in or on a privately own vehicle, a commercial vehicle, or a on public conveyance.
3)Soldiers will not wear headgear inside unless under arms in an official capacity, or when directed by the commander, such as for indoor ceremonial activities.
4)Male and Female soldiers are not required to wear headgear to evening social events(after Retreat) when wearing the Army blue and white uniform, the Army green maternity dress uniform(females only), or the mess and evening mess uniforms.

Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap?

Chaplains

How is the beret properly worn?

The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the head; therefore, soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret.

When is the wear of the Army uniform prohibited?

1)In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment
2)When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations , except as authorized by competent authority.
3)when attending any meetings or events that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization.
4)When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army.
5)When specifically prohibited by Army regulations.

When must Identification Tags be worn?

1)Soldiers will wear identification tags at all times while on duty in uniform unless otherwise directed by the commander
2)Personnel will wear identification tags around neck,except when safety considerations apply (such as during PT)

What does "ECWCS" stand for?

Extended Cold Weather Clothing System

What does DUI stand for, in according to AR 670-1?

Distinctive Unit Insignia

What does RDI stand for, according to AR 670-1?

Regimental Distinctive Insignia

What is the purpose of conservative?

Traditional in style or manner, avoiding novelty or showiness

What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?

Corporal-SGM of the army and also Officers

What does one service strip represent?

3 years of service

How are service stripes placed on the Army Blue Service uniform?

The service stripe is worn centered from seam-to-seam on the outside bottom half of the left sleeve the first stripe is sewn on at an of 30 degrees, with the lower end inserted in the front inside seam, 1/4 inches above the cuff braid. the upper end of the stripe is inserted in the back seam of the sleeve . each additional stripe is spaced 1/8 inch apart from the last, and above the first stripe.

What is the most noticeable difference between the Army Blue Service Uniform trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC and those worn by NCOs in the ranks of CPL through SMA?

The trousers worn by PVT-SPC will not have a gold strip along the legs, but will be found on the pants legs of CPL-SMA

As a "rite of passage" when a soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO Corps, what is added to the Army Blue Service Uniform?

The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be replaced with a Service cap.

What is a CVC uniform?

Combat Vehicle Crewman's Uniform (Tanker's Uniform)

what are the categories of badges authorized for wear on Army uniforms?

1)Marksmanship badges and tabs
2)Combat and special skill badges and tabs.
3)Identification badges
4)Foreign badges

How is the Ordnance insignia worn on the ASU collar?

Enlisted soldiers wear the branch insignia on the left coat lapel (1 inch for males from notch, and 5/8 inch from the notch for females), opposite the "U.S." insignia disk. Branch insignia were first worn prior to the Civil War in the 1850s by Army personnel.

How is the name plate worn on the male dress uniform?

Centered left to right on the flap of the right breast pocket, centered between the top of the pocket and the top of the button.

How is the name plate worn on the female uniform

Worn 1 to 2 inches above the top button of the coat and centered horizontally on the wearer's right side. Females may adjust the placement to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How will ribbons be worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

The ribbons will be center, 1/8 inch above the left breast pocket

How will ribbons be worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

The ribbon will be worn center on the left side ,with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate, Females may adjust the placement of the ribbon to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Blue Service Uniform?

The RDI (C) is worn centered, 1/8 inch above the top of the right pocket flap, or 1/4 inch above any unit award or foreign badges that are worn, when the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of the unit award (B) or the nameplate (A). Also seek (Example 1) aka Flashcard (#21)

Example 1

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Blue Service Uniform?

The RDI (C) centered 1/2 inch above the nameplate, or 1/4 inch above any unit award or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of the unit award (B) or the name plate(A). Also seek (Example 1) aka Flashcard (#21)

Where are unit awards worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

Emblems (B) with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8 above the right breast pocket.

Where are unit awards worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

Emblems (B) with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1/2 inch above the top edge of the name plate(A).

How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

Marksmanship badges (F) are worn One badge: centered on the pocket flap from left to right with the upper portion of the badge 1/8" below the top of the pocket. Two or more badges: equally spaced on the pocket from left to right with the upper portion of the badge 1/8" below the top of the pocket.

How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

Marksmanship Badges (I) are worn 1 Badge: Centered ¼ inch below the bottom ribbon row. 2 Badges: Equally spaced ¼ inch below the bottom ribbon row, and with at least 1 inch between badges. 3 Badges: Equally spaced ¼ inch below the bottom ribbon row. *Females may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Army Blue Service Uniform?

No more then 3

What are the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?

No more then 3

How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted males wear their branch insignia (E) centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the dick approximately 1 inch above the notch , with the center line of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel.

How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted females wear their branch insignia (E) on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5/8 inch above the notch with the center line of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the collar.

How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted males wear their U.S. insignia (D) centered on the Right collar, with the bottom of the dick approximately 1 inch above the notch , with the center line of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel.

How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?

Enlisted females wear their U.S. insignia (F) on the Right collar, with the bottom of the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5/8 inch above the notch with the center line of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the collar.

Witch direction does the belt tab on the male ASU face?

The wearers left

Witch direction does the belt tab on the female ASU face?

The wearers right

Can soldiers wear headphones in ASU'S and or during the Army Physical Fitness Test?

Soldiers may wear head phones, including wireless or non-wireless devices and ear pieces, in uniform while preforming individual physical training in indoor gyms or fitness centers. Soldiers may not wear headphones while taking the Army Physical Fitness Test. Soldiers may not wear headphones beyond the permitted area in any manner, including around the neck or attached to the uniform.

What does ALARACT stand for?

All-Army-Activities

What 4 types of tattoos or branding is prohibited anywhere on a soldiers body?

1)Extremist related tattoos/brands
2)Indecent tattoos/brands
3)Racist tattoos/brands
4)sexist tattoos/brands

What is the purpose of grooming your hair in the military?

To maintain uniformity

What haircuts are not authorized?

1)Extreme
2)Eccentric
3)Faddish haircuts or hairstyles

What hair color is not authorized?

Any unnatural color such as pink,green,blue, (fire-engine red, fluorescent or neon colors, etc.

Describe the male hair cut according to AR 670-1

The top of the head must be neatly groomed. the length and bulk of the hair may not be excessive or present a ragged, unkempt, or extreme appearance.the hair must present a tapered appearance. a tapered appearance is one where the outline of the Soldiers hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the base of the neck.

What male hair cuts are not authorized?

Braids, cornrows, dreadlocks, mohawks, etc.

According to AR 670-1 how far does an individuals sideburns extend?

1/8 when fully extended. sideburns with not extend the bottom of the opening of the ear, Side burns will not be styled,flair, or come to a point.

What are the tree types of female hairstyles?

Short, medium,long

How is short hair defined?

Short hair is defined as hair length that extends no more than 1 inch from the scalp (excluding bangs). Hair may be no shorter that 1/4 inch from the scalp (unless due to medical conditions or injury), but may be evenly tapered to the scalp within 2 inches of the hair line edge. Bangs (if worn) may not fall below the eye brows, may not interfere with the wear of all the headgear, must lie neatly against the head, and not be visible underneath the front of the head gear. The width of the bangs may extend to the hairline at the temple.

How is medium length hair defined?

Medium hair is defined as hair length that does no extend beyond the lower edge of the collar (in all uniforms), and extend more then 1 inch from the scalp. Medium hair may fall naturally in uniform, and is not required to be secured. When worn loose, graduated hair style are acceptable, but the length, as measured from the edge of the total hair length to the base of the collar , may not extend 1 inch difference in length from the front to the back. Layered hair is also authorized, so long as each hair's length , as measured from the scalp to the hair's end is generally the same length giving a tapered appearance......... No portion of the bulk of the hair, as measured from the scalp will exceed 2 inches.

How is long length hair defined?

Long hair is defined as hair length that does extend beyond the lower edge of the collar, long hair will be neatly and inconspicuously fasted or pinned , except bangs may be worn. The regulations for the wear of bangs detailed in paragraph (a) apply. No portion of the bulk of the hair, as measured from the scalp, will exceed 2 inches except (buns,witch may extend the maximum of 3 inches from the scalp) and be no wide then the width of the head.

Are Dreadlocks authorized for female soldiers?

Yes. Dread locks are defined as any matted, twisted, or locked coils or ropes of hair (or extensions), Any style of dread lock (against the scalp or free-hanging) is not authorized. Braids or cornrows that are unkempt or matted are considered dread locks are not authorized.

How are Cornrows defined?

Cornrows are defined as hair rolled (not twisted using two strand) or braided closely to the scalp producing a continuous, raised row of hair.

How must cornrows be worn?

When worn, cornrows must be of uniform dimension,small in dimension,small in diameter (approximately 1/4 inch), show no more then 1/8 inch of scalp between the cornrows and must be tightly rolled or braided to present a neat, professional, well-groomed appearance. Cornrows must start at the front of the head and continue in one direction in a straight line and end at a consistent location of the head. Only one cornrow style (braided or rolled) may be worn at one time.

Are hair extensions authorized?

Yes. Extensions must have the same general appearance as the individual's natural hair color and otherwise conform to this regulation.

Are eye lash extensions authorized?

No. Unless medically prescribed.

Are pens authorized to be exposed on the combat uniform coat?

Yes. pens and or pencils worn in the pen/pencil slots on the combat uniform coat may be exposed. There are no stipulations on the color of pen/pencil worn in the slots on the combat uniform coat.

Are Females authorized to wear earrings with the service,dress,and mess uniform?

Yes. Earrings may be screw-on, clip-on, or post-type earrings. It must be gold, silver, white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6mm or 1/4 inch in diameter, and they must be unadorned and spherical. When worn , the earrings will fit snugly against the ear. Females may wear earrings only as a matched pair, with only one earring per ear lobe. Females are not authorized to wear earrings with any class C uniform ( combat uniform, hospital duty, food service, physical fitness, field, or organizational)

Are males allowed to wear earrings?

Yes. Only when off duty, the earring can not crate or support ear gauging (enlarged holes in the lobed of the ear, greater than 1.6mm.

Are females allowed to carry a hand bag?

Females may carry a black leather handbag with the female Army dress uniform, during and after duty hours.

What did the APFU (Army Fitness Physical Uniform) replace in 2017?

Improved Physical Fitness Uniform (IPFU)

What does the APFU consist of?

1) Jacket,running, black and gold, with the Army logo
2)Pants, running, black, with gold Army logo
3)Trunks, running, black, with Army logo
4)T-shirt, black, long sleeve, with army logo
5)T-shirt black, short sleeve, with army logo
6)Footwear
7)Socks

Are soldiers allowed to mix the wear of the IPFU with the APFU?

No

How is the Physical Fitness badge worn on the APFU?

Sewn on the wearers upper left front side of the APFU t-shirt above the "Y" in the word Army.
On the APFU running jacket, the insignia is sewn centered 1/2 inch above the Army logo.

Who is authorized to wear the Physical Fitness badge?

Any individual that received an 90/90/90 on the Army Physical Fitness Test.

Who is authorized to wear the tan beret?

Rangers

Who is authorized to wear the green beret?

Special Forces

Who is authorized to wear the maroon beret?

Airborne

What Regulation Covers Army Uniforms?

AR 670-1

What does AR 670-1 Cover?

Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia

What does a Soldier's appearance measure?

Ppart of his or her Professionalism

What is a matter of personal pride for all Soldiers?

Proper wear of the Army uniform

Who has a responsibility for implementing and applying the standards contained in AR 670-1 and to ensure the best interests of the Army, including our shared traditions and customs?

Leaders, at all levels

Are Portions of AR 670-1 punitive?

Yes

What may happen if Soldiers Violate specific prohibitions and requirements of AR 670-1?

Violations may result in adverse administrative action and/or charges under the provisions of the UCMJ

Who can approve coats of arms, decorations, flags, streamers, agency seals, badges, and other types of insignia that are approved for use and/or display?

The Institute of Heraldry (TIOH)

Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Optional uniform items?

No

Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Required uniform items?

Yes they can require the purchase of current issued items of CTA 50-900

Who must Maintain their clothing bag items and any supplemental clothing items they are issued and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to AR 670-1?

All Enlisted Personnel

What does Pride in appearance include?

Includes Soldiers' physical fitness and adherence to acceptable weight standards in accordance with AR 600-9

Are Hair and Fingernail Grooming Standards Punitive under UCMJ?

Yes

What is the purpose of Hair grooming standards?

It is necessary to maintain uniformity within a military population

What should Leaders exercise in determining if a Hairstyle is Neat and Conservative?

Leaders at all levels to exercise good judgment when enforcing Army policy

How can Leaders judge the appropriateness of a particular hairstyle?

By the appearance of headgear when worn

How should the Headgear fit?

Headgear will fit snugly and comfortably, without bulging or distortion from the intended shape of the headgear and without excessive gaps

Are Extreme, eccentric, or faddish haircuts or hairstyles Authorized?

No they are not Authorized

If Soldiers use dyes, tints, or bleaches what color must they use?

They must choose a natural hair color

What Hair Colors are Prohibited?

Colors that detract from a professional military appearance are prohibited

What Colors must Soldiers avoid using?

Soldiers must avoid using colors that result in an extreme appearance

What are some hair colors that are prohibited?

Purple, blue, pink, green, orange, bright (fire-engine) red, and fluorescent or neon colors

Who determines if colors are acceptable based on the Soldiers overall appearance?

Army Leaders

Who may cut a part into the hair?

Only Soldiers who have a texture of hair that does not part naturally

If a Soldier is authorized to cut a part into their hair, how should the part be cut?

The part will be one straight line, not slanted or curved, and will fall in the area where the Soldier would normally part the hair

How must the Hair be on the top of the head for Males?

The hair on top of the head must be neatly groomed

For Males, what appearance must the hair present?

A Tapered Appearance

What is a Tapered Appearance?

A tapered appearance is one where the outline of the Soldier's hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the base of the neck

When the hair is combed how will it Not Fall?

It will not fall over the ears or eyebrows, or touch the collar, except for the closely cut hair at the back of the neck

Is the Block-Cut fullness in the back Authorized?

It is permitted to a moderate degree, as long as the tapered look is maintained

Haircuts with a single, untapered patch of hair on the top of the head Authorized?

No they are considered eccentric and are not authorized

What are some examples of unauthorized male haircuts?

Mohawk, Horseshoe, Tear Drop

Is Hair that is completely shaved or trimmed closely to the scalp Authorized?

Yes

What are Sideburns?

Sideburns are hair grown in front of the ear and below the point where the top portion of the ear attaches to the head

How far down are Sideburns Authorized?

Sideburns will not extend below the bottom of the opening of the ear

What is the maximum authorized length of Sideburns?

The sideburn will not exceed 1/8 inch when fully extended

When are Males required to keep their face Clean-Shaven?

When in Uniform, or in Civilian clothes On Duty

How must Mustaches be kept?

Neatly Trimmed, Tapered, and Tidy they cannot present a Chopped off or Bushy appearance

What is the Authorized size of the Moustache?

No portion of the mustache will cover the upper lip line, extend sideways beyond a vertical line drawn upward from the corners of the mouth or extend above a parallel line at the lowest portion of the nose

Who is authorized beard growth?

Personnel who are Authorized by the appropriate Medical Authority by a Medical Profile

What is the maximum length authorized for medical treatment?

The length of the beard cannot exceed 1/4 inch, but must be specified on the Profile

Are Soldiers that have Profiles allowing Beards Authorized to shape the hair growth?

No, they are not authorized to shape the hair growth

How should Soldiers maintain an authorized medical beard?

Soldiers will keep the growth trimmed to the level specified by the appropriate medical authority

Can males wear wigs or hairpieces while in uniform or in civilian clothes on duty?

No, except to cover natural baldness or physical disfiguration caused by accident or medical procedure

What are the three basic categories of Female Hairstyles?

Short Length, Medium Length, Long Length

What is Short Length hair?

Length that extends no more than 1 inch from the scalp, (excluding bangs)

What is the shortest that a Female's hairstyle is authorized?

No Shorter than ¼ inch from scalp

How must bangs be maintained?

Bangs must not fall below the eyebrows, may not interfere with the wear of all headgear, must lie neatly against the head, and not be visible underneath the front of the headgear

What is Medium Length hair?

Hair length that does not extend beyond the lower edge of the collar (in all uniforms), and extends more than 1 inch from the scalp

Is Medium length hair required to be secured?

No, Medium hair may fall naturally in uniform, and is not required to be secured

What is Long Length hair?

Hair length that extends beyond the lower edge of the collar

How must Long hair be secured?

Long hair will be neatly and inconspicuously fastened or pinned, except that bangs may be worn

Is Female hair Authorized to bulge or distort or make gaps in the headgear?

No, When headgear is worn, hair should not protrude at distinct angles from under the edges

What type of Hair Holding devices are Authorized for wear?

Small plain scrunchies, barrettes, combs, pins, clips, rubber bands, and hair/head bands

What are Some examples of prohibited Hair Holding Devices?

Large, lacy scrunchies; beads, bows, or claw or alligator clips; clips, pins, or barrettes with butterflies, flowers, sparkles, gems, or scalloped edges; and bows made from hairpieces

During PT is Long length hair authorized to be in a pony tail?

Yes, A single pony tail centered on the back of the head is authorized in physical fitness uniforms, except when considered a safety hazard. It is not required to be worn above the collar

What is the Authorized use of Cosmetics allowed for Females?

They must be applied modestly and conservatively, and that they complement both the Soldier's complexion and the uniform

How must Males keep fingernails trimmed?

Males will keep nails trimmed so as not to extend beyond the fingertip unless medically required

What is the Maximum Allowed Length of Fingernails for Females?

No longer than 1/4 of an inch as measured from tip of finger

Can a Female be required to keep nails shorter than the Maximum Allowed length of AR 670-1?

Yes, if the Commander determines that the longer length detracts from a professional appearance, presents a safety concern, or interferes with the performance of duties

What is the Authorized Color of Nail Polish while in Uniform?

Only Clear Nail Polish is Authorized in uniform or while in civilian clothes on duty

What are the types of tattoos or brands that are prejudicial to good order and discipline and therefore prohibited anywhere on a Soldier's body?

Extremist, Indecent, Sexist, Racist

What are Extremist Tattoos?

Extremist tattoos or brands are those affiliated with, depicting, or symbolizing extremist philosophies, organizations, or activities

What are Indecent Tattoos?

Indecent tattoos or brands are those that are grossly offensive to modesty, decency, propriety, or professionalism

What are Sexist Tattoos?

Sexist tattoos or brands are those that advocate a philosophy that degrades or demeans a person based on gender

What are Racist Tattoos?

Racist tattoos or brands are those that advocate a philosophy that degrades or demeans a person based on race, ethnicity, or national origin

Where are Soldiers prohibited from getting tattoos?

On the head, face, neck, wrists, hands, or fingers

How many Tattoos are Soldiers authorized below the elbow or knee?

No more than 4

What is the maximum Authorized size of a Tattoo below the elbow or knee?

Must be smaller than the size of the wearer's hand

What is the date of Soldiers being Grandfathered but can get no more tattoos in unauthorized areas?

31 March 2014

What must Soldiers that were grandfathered to the Old Tattoo Policy do?

They must self identify to their commander with locations and descriptions

What must happen if a Soldier is not in compliance with the Tattoo Policy?

They must be processed out of the Army

What Jewelry is Authorized for wear while in uniform?

Soldiers may wear a wristwatch, a wrist identification bracelet, and a total of two rings

Is a Wedding Set considered two rings?

No, a wedding set is considered one ring

What Identification bracelets are authorized

Medical alert bracelets, missing in action, prisoner of war, or killed in action (black or silver in color only) bracelets

How many items are Soldiers Authorized to wear on the wrist while in uniform or civilian clothes on Duty?

Soldiers are only authorized to wear one item on each wrist while in uniform, or in civilian clothes on duty

Are Soldiers Authorized to have any piercings?

No, only exception is Females can wear earrings with the service, dress, and mess uniforms

What type of earrings are authorized for Females?

Screw-on, clip-on, or post-type earrings in gold, silver, white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6 mm or 1⁄4 inch in diameter

Are Males Authorized to wear earrings off duty?

No

Are Males or Females Authorized to wear Piercings off duty?

No, except females can wear only earring piercings while off duty

Can Males or Females wear Ankle bracelets, toe rings, necklaces, devices, medallions, amulets, and personal talismans or icons while in Uniform or on duty in civilian clothes?

No they are not authorized for wear in Uniform or on duty in civilian clothes

Are gold caps, platinum caps, or caps of any unnatural color or texture for teeth for purposes of dental ornamentation authorized?

No

Are Keys or key chains Authorized on the belt, belt loops, or waistband?

Yes as long as they are Not Visible

Are Soldiers Authorized to wear an Electronic Device on belt, belt loops, or waistband of the uniform?

Yes, but Only One Electronic Device can be worn

What color must the Carrying case of an Electronic Device be?

Black Only; no other colors are authorized

What activities will Soldiers not walk while engaged in?

Activities that would interfere with the hand salute and greeting of the day or detract from a professional image

What are some examples of activities that Soldiers should not walk while engaged in?

Walking while eating, using electronic devices, or smoking cigarettes, cigars, or pipes

Are Soldiers authorized to wear wireless or non-wireless devices/earpieces while wearing Army uniforms?

No, except while operating a commercial or military vehicle

Are Soldiers authorized to place their hands in their pockets?

No, except momentarily to place or retrieve objects

What Color must a shoulder bag be if carried in uniform?

The bag must be black or match the camouflage pattern uniform being worn, and may not have any commercial logos

Are see-through plastic or mesh bags Authorized?

No, The contents of the bag may not be visible

How are Soldiers Authorized to carry shoulder bags?

Soldiers may carry authorized bags by hand, on one shoulder using a shoulder strap, or over both shoulders using both shoulder straps

In what Situation is Wearing Army uniforms prohibited?

(1) In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment.
(2) When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations, except as authorized by the first O-5 in the chain of command.
(3) When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization.
(4) When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army, as determined by the Commander.
(5) When specifically prohibited by Army regulations.

What type of Appearance will Soldiers maintain even when in Civilian Clothing?

Soldiers will ensure that their dress and personal appearance are commensurate with the high standards traditionally associated with Army service

What type of eyeglasses and sunglasses are authorized for wear with the uniform?

They must be conservative

What type of Eyeglasses or sunglasses are not authorized for wear?

Eyeglasses or sunglasses that are trendy or have lenses or frames with conspicuous initials, designs, or other adornments

What types of lenses are unauthorized?

Lenses with extreme or trendy colors, which include, but are not limited to, red, yellow, blue, purple, bright green, or orange

What Lens colors are Authorized?

Lens colors must be traditional gray, brown, or dark green shades

When are Soldiers Authorized to wear sunglasses that contain logos or lens colors that are not Authorized?

Soldiers are authorized to wear ballistic spectacle eye protection issued by the Army

Are Soldiers authorized to wear tinted or colored contact lenses?

No, Tinted or colored contact lenses are not authorized for wear with the uniform

What Chapter of AR 670-1 Covers the wear of the Combat Uniform?

Chapter 4

When are Soldiers Authorized to use an umbrella?

Only in Class A and B, dress and mess uniforms

What type of umbrella may be used?

The umbrella is black, plain, with no logos or designs, and of a commercial design

Which Shoulder flag will be worn while deployed or in a field environment?

Soldiers will wear the subdued tactical flag insignia while deployed or in a field environment

Why is the significance of the stars facing front on the Shoulder Flag?

To give the appearance that Our Army is moving forward and not backwards

What does each service stripe represent on the uniform represent?

3 years of honorable service

What does each Overseas service bar represent on the uniform?

6 months of service in a Combat Zone

What does the "V" device represent on an Award?

Denote an award authorized for acts of heroism involving conflict with an armed enemy

What do Numerals represent?

A second and succeeding awards

What do Service stars represent?

An additional award or service in a named campaign

What does and Arrowhead represent?

Denotes participation in a combat parachute jump, combat glider landing, or an amphibious assault landing while assigned or attached as a member of an organized force carrying out an assigned tactical mission

What are the different types of Badges for wear on the uniform?

Marksmanship, Combat and Special Skill badges, Identification badges, Foreign badges

Can a Female Soldier wear a pony tail when going to a Medical Appointment or a Physical?

No; Pony tail is only Authorized when engaged in PT or when enroute to and from engaging in PT

How are service awards worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

The ribbons are centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset

How are service awards worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

The ribbons are centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences

How are unit awards worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8above the right breast pocket flag

How are unit awards worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate

How are Marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.

How are Marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.

How is the name plate worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

The nameplate is worn centered left to right on the flap of the right breast pocket, and centered between the top of the button and the top of the pocket.

How is the name plate worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

The nameplate is worn 1 to 2 inches above the top button of the coat and centered horizontally on the wearer's right side

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Service Uniform?

The RDI is centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.

How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Service Uniform?

The RDI is centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.

What Regulation Covers Army Uniforms?

AR 670-1

What does a Soldier's appearance measure?

Part of his or her professionalism

What is a matter of personal pride for all Soldiers?

Proper wear of the Army uniform

Who has a responsibility for implementing and applying the standards contained in AR 670-1 and to ensure the best interests of the Army, including our shared traditions and customs?

Leaders, at all levels

Who is Exempt from policies in AR 670-1?

Only Those Units designated for ceremonial duties, such as the Old Guard and the U.S. Army Band, are exempt from the policy to wear the Army service, dress, or utility uniforms in the performance of ceremonial duties

Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Optional uniform items?

NO

Para 2-5 Can Commanders or 1SG's require individuals to purchase Required uniform items?

Yes they can require the purchase of current issued items of CTA 50-900

Why must Commanders conduct periodic inspections of Uniform Items?

1. To ensure Soldiers possess the minimum quantities of uniforms and that uniforms fit properly and are serviceable
2. To ensure Soldiers wear only authorized insignia and awards
3. To ensure Soldiers wear only uniform and heraldic items produced by certified manufacturers, and they meet the specifications for quality and design

Who must Maintain their clothing bag items and any supplemental clothing items they are issued and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to AR 670-1?

All Enlisted Personnel

Who must ensure they Procure and maintain the uniforms and accessories appropriate to their assigned duties and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to specifications of DA Pam 670-1

All Officers

What does Pride in appearance include?

Includes Soldiers' physical fitness and adherence to acceptable weight standards in accordance with AR 600-9

What is a vital ingredient of the Army's strength and military effectiveness?

The pride and self discipline that American Soldiers bring to their Service through a conservative military image

What Chapter of AR 670-1 sets the Standards for Appearance and Grooming Standards?

Chapter 3

Are Hair and Fingernail Grooming Standards Punitive under UCMJ?

Yes

What is the purpose of Hair grooming standards?

It is necessary to maintain uniformity within a military population

What are the guidelines Leaders must use to judge appropriate haristyles?

By guidance in Chapter 3 AR 670-1 Para 3-2A (A) and by the ability to wear all types of headgear (such as beret, patrol cap, or service cap/hat) and any protective equipment (such as protective mask or combat helmet) properly

Who determines if a hairstyle is considered appropriate?

Army Leaders

Who will comply with hair, fingernail, and grooming policies while in any military uniform, or in civilian clothes on duty?

All Soldiers

How can Leaders judge the appropriateness of a particular hairstyle?

By the appearance of headgear when worn

How should the Headgear fit?

Headgear will fit snugly and comfortably, without bulging or distortion from the intended shape of the headgear and without excessive gaps between the headgear and the head

If Soldiers use dyes, tints, or bleaches what color must they use?

They must choose a natural hair color

Who determines if colors are acceptable based on the Soldiers overall appearance?

Army Leaders

Who may cut a part into the hair?

Only Soldiers who have a texture of hair that does not part naturally

If a Soldier is authorized to cut a part into their hair, how should the part be cut?

The part will be one straight line, not slanted or curved, and will fall in the area where the Soldier would normally part the hair

For Males, what appearance must the hair present?

A Tapered Appearance

What is a Tapered Appearance?

A tapered appearance is one where the outline of the Soldier's hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the base of the neck

When the hair is combed what will it not do?

it will not fall over the ears or eyebrows, or touch the collar, except for the closely cut hair at the back of the neck

Is Hair that is completely shaved or trimmed closely to the scalp Authorized?

Yes

When are Males required to keep their face Clean-Shaven?

When in Uniform, or in Civilian clothes On Duty

Are Males required to Shave when Off Duty or on Leave?

No; They only need to be Clean-Shaven When in Uniform, or in Civilian clothes On Duty

How must Mustaches be kept?

Neatly Trimmed, Tapered, and Tidy they cannot present a Chopped off or Bushy appearance

Who is authorized beard growth?

Personnel who are Authorized by the appropriate Medical Authority by issuing a Medical Profile

What is the maximum length authorized for medical treatment?

The length of the beard cannot exceed 1/4 inch, but must be specified on the Profile

Are Soldiers that have Profiles allowing Beards Authorized to shape the hair growth?

No; they are not authorized to shape the hair growth examples include, but are not limited to, goatees, "Fu Manchu," or handlebar mustaches

What are the three basic categories of Female Hairstyles?

1. Short Length
2. Medium Length
3. Long Length

A What is Short Length hair?

length that extends no more than 1 inch from the scalp, (excluding bangs)

What is the shortest that a Female's hairstyle is authorized?

No Shorter than ¼ inch from scalp

How must bangs be maintained?

Bangs must not fall below the eyebrows, may not interfere with the wear of all headgear, must lie neatly against the head, and not be visible underneath the front of the headgear

What is Medium Length hair?

hair length that does not extend beyond the lower edge of the collar (in all uniforms), and extends more than 1 inch from the scalp

Is Medium length hair required to be secured?

No, Medium hair may fall naturally in uniform, and is not required to be secured

What is Long Length hair?

hair length that extends beyond the lower edge of the collar

How must Long hair be secured?

Long hair will be neatly and inconspicuously fastened or pinned, except that bangs may be worn

Is Female hair Authorized to bulge or distort or make gaps in the headgear?

No; When headgear is worn, hair should not protrude at distinct angles from under the edges

What type of Hair Holding devices are Authorized for wear?

small plain scrunchies (elastic hair bands covered with material), barrettes, combs, pins, clips, rubber bands, and hair/head bands

What are Some examples of prohibited Hair Holding Devices?

conspicuous, excessive, or decorative

During PT is Long length hair authorized to be in a pony tail?

Yes; A single pony tail centered on the back of the head is authorized in physical fitness uniforms, except when considered a safety hazard. It is not required to be worn above the collar

What is the Authorized use of Cosmetics allowed for Females?

They must be applied modestly and conservatively, and that they complement both the Soldier's complexion and the uniform

Para 3-2 B 2 How must Males keep fingernails trimmed?

Males will keep nails trimmed so as not to extend beyond the fingertip unless medically required and are not authorized to wear nail polish

What is the Maximum Allowed Length of Fingernails for Females?

No longer than 1/4 of an inch as measured from tip of finger

What is the Authorized Color of Nail Polish while in Uniform?

Only Clear Nail Polish is Authorized in uniform or while in civilian clothes on duty

What are the types of tattoos or brands that are prejudicial to good order and discipline and therefore prohibited anywhere on a Soldier's body?

1. Extremist
2. Indecent
3. Sexist
4. Racist

What Jewelry is Authorized for wear while in uniform?

Soldiers may wear a wristwatch, a wrist religious or identification bracelet, and a total of two rings

Is a Wedding Set considered two rings?

No; a wedding set is considered one ring

What Identification bracelets are authorized?

medical alert bracelets, missing in action, prisoner of war, killed in action (black or silver color only), and religious bracelets similar in size and appearance to identification bracelets

1 What type of earrings are authorized for Females?

screw-on, clip-on, or post-type earrings in gold, silver, white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6 mm or 1⁄4 inch in diameter

What are considered Class C uniforms?

combat, utility, hospital duty, food service, physical fitness, field, or organizational

Are there any Restrictions for Females wearing earrings off duty?

No; except the earrings do not create or support ear gauging (enlarging the holes in the lobe)

Are Males Authorized to wear earrings off duty?

Yes, as long as the earrings do not create or support ear gauging