Installation EM Program - Air Force Emergency Management Program Course (AFEMPC) (ZZ133131)

The ancillary missions of the Air Force Emergency Management Program are to support homeland defense and civil support operations and to provide support to civil and host-nation authorities.

True

The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to ________ _

all of the above

In response to HSPD-5, the Department of Defense established-----􀀜 which directs policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for developing, implementing, and sustaining installation emergency management programs at DOD installations worldwide for "all-hazards:

DODI 6055.17

Examples of this program element include audible signals, intelligible voice communications, cable override, text messaging, and computer notification.

Notification and warning

The active and passive measures taken to protect the area, population and infrastructure of the United States and its possessions and territories.

Homeland defense and civil support operations

The Air Force Emergency Management Program is the single, integrated Air Force program whose purpose is to coordinate and organize efforts to---􀀕 prepare for, respond to, and recover from the direct and indirect consequences of an emergency; whether it is natural, man-made, or technological.

Prevent

These efforts provide individuals and teams the requisite knowledge and skills to efficiently and effectively prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from natural, man-made, and technologically­caused hazards.

Education and training

Upon taking command of a unit, senior leaders are provided an AFEM immersion briefing on the installation's emergency management program by the _________________

Installation's Office of Emergency Management

This function of your installation's ORF provides response and recovery support to the incident commander as directed by the emergency operations center and mission support to the installation commander as directed by crisis action team.

Unit Control Centers

This function of your installation's DRF is a command and control node that assists in directing installation emergency management and response actions.

Command Post

The ___________ at your installation is comprised of four functions that provide an overall cross-functional installation risk management program for developing threat/hazard plans and budgets.

Planning and Management Staff

The _________ at your installation is comprised of eight functions that provide strategic, operational, and tactical emergency response capabilities.

Disaster Response Force

The strategic planning and management staff at your installation is comprised of four functions; the Office of Emergency Management, the Unit Emergency Management Representative, the Emergency Management Working Group, and the _______ _

Wing Inspection Team

Comprised of senior leaders from various functional areas, this function of your installation's planning and management staff oversees the implementation of Air Force policy on all-hazard emergency management threats to sustain operations at your installation.

Emergency Management Working Group

This function of your installation's planning and management staff collaborates with the installation's Office of Emergency Management to ensure they have the appropriate information, products, and support needed to execute and maintain a successful unit emergency management program.

Unit Emergency Management Representative

_______ deploy immediately to the scene to provide initial command and control, to save lives, and to suppress and control hazards.

First responders

Incident types are determined based on the number of resources and the ______ needed to properly handle the incident.

amount of time

The AFIMS provides the framework with which your installation's DRF responds to all-hazard events.

True

National, DOD, and Air Force guidance requires the use of ICS for all incident responses.

True

Originally created to help manage large numbers of people and resources during wildfires in the 1970s, the ________ was the system used throughout the United States to organize emergency response.

Incident Command System

What is a factor that affects the control of an incident?

Both A and B

________ is an occurrence, natural, man-made, or technologically-caused that requires some level of a response to protect life, property, or the environment.

Incident

The phases of the AFIMS are response, recovery, and ____ _

Mitigation

Incident type also described as ______ is the combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident.

incident complexity

Which type of incident is typically handled within the first hour after resources arrive on scene and include vehicle fires and personal injuries?

Type 5

Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) directed the establishment of a single,

comprehensive National Incident Management System?

HSPD-5

You may be called upon to serve your installation's emergency management program in a variety of ways; from attending localized emergency preparedness briefings to being a member of a specialized team.

True

The Readiness and Emergency Management Flight is designated the _____ _

Installation's Office of Emergency Management

Threats that may affect your installation are only man-made, and a disaster resulting from a threat happens with significant warning.

False

The Air Force Emergency Management Program relies on everyone's participation for it to be successful.

True

The incident commander is a trained and experienced responder that provides on-scene tactical control using subject matter experts and support from other functions.

True

This function of your installation's DRF provides a central dispatch capability for the installation. It includes the core functions of the fire alarm communications center, base defense operations center, and medical dispatch (where applicable).

Emergency Communications Center

This function of your installation's planning and management staff provides a multitude of support for the installation's emergency management program, which includes authoring and maintaining the IEMP 10-2 and performing functions within the EOC.

Office of Emergency Management

This function of your installation's ORF updates the crisis action team (CAT) with continuing incident status and request support through the CAT when on-scene requirements surpass the installation's inherent cumulative capabilities.

Emergency Operations Center

Which type of incident requires multiple fire and patrol vehicles and is usually limited to one operational period?

Type 4

The AFIMS includes how many phases of incident management?

Three

Which type of incident require resources that exceed the initial response and include aircraft crashes and hostage situations?

Type 3

The incident command system is organized around five major functional areas: command, finance and administration, logistics, operations, and planning.

True

Which type of incident is the most complex and includes nuclear weapons incidents, hurricane recovery, and terrorist attacks?

Type 1

By direction of DODI 6055.17, the Air Force incorporated their policies, guidance, structure, roles, and responsibilities to execute these missions into _______ .

AFI 10-2501

Led by the mission support group commander, this function is the integrator of your installation's strategic planning and management staff and the DRF elements.

Emergency Management Working Group

This function of your installation's DRF directs strategic actions supporting the installation's mission and activated to provide a command, control, and communication link to higher headquarters and comparable civilian agencies, and coordinates the incident response.

Crisis Action Team

Emergency responders deploy after the first responders to expand command and control and provide additional support.

True

This function of your installation's DRF is the command and control support element that coordinates information and resources to support the installation's actions before, during, and after an incident.

Emergency Operations Center

Incident Types 3, 4, and 5 make up what percentage of all incidents?

95%

The AFIMS includes a core set of concepts, principles, terminology, and technologies covering incident command, emergency operations centers, training, identification and management of resources, qualifications and certification, and the collection, tracking, and reporting of incident information and incident resources.

True

Which type of incident extends beyond the installation resource capabilities for response; requiring local, state, and federal response resources to effectively manage the incident and includes wildfires and floods on and off the installation?

Type 2

A Type 1 incident is considered the least complex, whereas a Type 5 incident is deemed the most complex.

False

Fall Protection Awareness Course

A swing-stage scaffold is another name for a ______ type suspension scaffold fall protection system.

two-point

A ________ person is one who can identify existing and predictable hazards in their surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.

competent

The head and _____ areas are the most often injured during a fall.

back

Once a system has been developed, there is no need about improving it.

False

What is the proper procedure, regarding the fall protection equipment, to follow after a fall has occurred?

Do not re-use and take all the equipment out of service.

On a manually propelled elevated work system, the platform must have a guardrail of _____ plus or minus 3 inches high, a mid-rail, and toe boards at least 4 inches high.

42

When creating a safety system, you must have visible commitment from _____.

all of the above.

Falls most often occur during roofing, scaffold, and ___________ operations.

ladder

Angle straight ladders and extension ladders properly. They should have a ______ sope (height to base).

4 to 1

You can fall from any height and be seriously injured or killed.

True

What are OSHA's three steps to fall protection?

Plan, Provide, Train

If you have questions about fall protection or other safety concerns, who should you ask?

Your supervisor

Watching a fall protection video provides the necessary training workers need to safeguard themselves from fall mishaps.

False

At what height are workers required to wear fall protection according to the Federal OSHA Construction standard?

6 feet

What is the definition of Arresting Force?

Force exerted on the body while stopping a fall.

A ______ ladder has two sections that are hinged at the top and form equal angles with the base and are used in pairs to support planks or staging.

trestle

The use of body belts for fall protection during construction activity was outlawed in 1998; however, the use of a body belt for positioning is still acceptable.

True

When workers participate in the creation of a rescue plan it can become unclear and unfocused. It is best to have a plan that has been created by one person.

False

What chapter in AFI 91-203 covers fall protection?

13

What are the two philosophies in fall protection?

Stop or Prevent the Fall, and Catch the Fall

Who is responsible for performing the daily inspections of a Personal Fall Arrest System?

The worker

After selecting a proper Anchor Point, you can ensure a compatible anchorage connection by ______.

using an anchorage connector such as a cross arm strap, beam anchor or a shock-absorbing lanyard specifically designed for tie-back use to maintain a compatible connection with the anchor point.

The first number in a roof pitch represents the vertical rise in inches.

True

What are the three components of a Personal Fall Arrest System?

Anchor/Anchorage Connector, Body Wear (Harness) and Connecting Device (Lanyard or Retractable)

The fall restrain system allows a person to conduct their duties, but prevents them from reaching a point where a fall could occur.

True

DCSA PH I

In the Beginning

Munitions Fire Fighting

Munitions Fire Fighting

The methodology designed to incorporate the requirements of HSPD-5, NIMS, the NRF, and the Office of the Secretary of Defense guidance while preserving the unique military requirements of the expeditionary Air Force is known as:

AFIMS

The Web-based system use by all three service components for ammunition and explosives information is the:

JHCS

If you need information about ammunition color codes, look in:

TO 11A-1-53

Using the ERG, match each hazardous material to the corresponding ID number

Hydrazine, anhydrous: 2029. Acetylene: 1001. Sulphuric acid: 1830. Tear gas devices: 1693

TO 00-25-172 involves ground servicing of aircraft and static grounding/bombing. Firefighters should be familiar with table 3-1 of this TO because it:

Provides fire protection equipment requirements for various aircraft configurations

Identify three important sections found within TO 11A-1-33, Handling and Maintenance of Explosives-Loaded Aircraft.

Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances. Identification of Explosives-Loaded Aircraft. Fire Fighting Agents.

As a responder, you know the importance of posting fire symbols on explosives-loaded aircraft. Which publication specifies the identification of explosive-loaded aircraft?

TO 11A-1-33

The purpose of NIMS is to give all federal, state, local and tribal authorities:

A standardized approach for domestic incidents.

The Preparedness phase of AFIMS includes activities such as:

Planning, training, and exercises.

In the ICS, the Operation, Planning, Logistics, and Finance Administrative section chiefs are typically members of the IC’s:

General Staff

If you need information about ammunition color codes, look in:

TO 11A-1-53

Where can you find the explosive division or class of a material?

A DOT placard or label

Walking from the dining hall to your dormitory, you see an object made of plastic, with a blue ogive. You should suspect this:

Practice grenade

Identify the PRACTICE grenade

C (clear bottom, blue top)

Follow all of these rules concerning projectiles EXCEPT:

Projectiles with yellow coloring are safe to handle

Where would you find chaff and flares on an F-15E aircraft

Chaff on the left side and flares on the right side

Select three hazards presented by chaff and flares:

Mass fire, Minor blast, Fragmentation

Both the MK 82 and MK 84:

Have a total bomb weight that potentially dangerous (500-2000 pounds)

GP bombs may be fuzed:

In the front and rear

What is one difference between rockets and missles?

A missile has a guidance system, but a rocket does not

What is the correct way to approach a missile?

At a 45 degree angle from the rear

Blue bands on a rocket motor or warhead indicate that the component:

Is used for practice

Which section of a missile contains explosive material that detonates:

Warhead

JP-10 vapors:

Are heavier than air and travel along the ground

This placard division (Yellow diamond with 1.6 on top, 1 on bottom) represents:

Extremely insensitive articles

What is the primary hazard indicated by this fire symbol (yellow triangle with 3)?

Mass fire

What fire symbol would be displayed on a storage area where both HD 1.1 and HD 1.3 materials were stored together?

Yellow octagon with 1

Identify three individuals who make up the Command Staff:

Safety officer, Public information officer, Liaison officer

Hot refueling operations (one or more engines on the aircraft operating during refueling) are expected to be underway on an aircraft carrying munitions. Where would you look to determine the firefighting equipment requirements for this operation?

TO 00-25-172

You are responding to a reported fire and see this symbol (yellow diamond with 4). What fire fighting actions should you expect to take?

Fight these fires, but expect minor explosions and hot fragments as a result of this fire.

Explosives class 1.2 signifies:

Explosives with a projection hazard

In which section of an NFPA 704 HazMat diamond will you find the “use no water” symbol?

White section

Handling decomposed fire damaged composites results in the formation of:

Unhealthy particulates

Response information for specific radioactive materials can be found in:

ERG orange guides 161-164

Inhalation of liquid hydrazine fumes or vapors may cause:

Seizures

Identify the true statement about escorts at explosives storage areas.

If there is an actual fire within a structure, escorts will stay outside the structure at a safe distance.

The aircraft operation requiring a Halon 1211 extinguisher, a fixed or skid mounted Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) system discharging through oscillating nozzles, and an ARFF apparatus standby posture is:

Hot refueling

The technical escort is subordinate to the _____ only in matters that pertain to operations

Aircraft commander

CITI Training Responsible Conduct

Which of the following is the primary criterion for authorship?

Having made a significant intellectual contribution to the work.

Which of the following is an example of plagiarism?

Presenting someone else's ideas or words and claiming them as one's own.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines?

Individuals who do not meet the criteria for authorship but who have made a noteworthy contribution are normally listed in the acknowledgments section.

Which of the following statements is true regarding authorship practices?

Different disciplines have different practices about who should be included as an author.

Which of the following most accurately describes the practice of ghost authorship?

It is a situation where the individual who wrote the manuscript is not listed as an author.

The most important factor in determining whether a research collaboration will be successful is:

Whether there is ongoing communication among the team members about their goals and responsibilities.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the regulations that govern research?

U.S. funded research collaborations are often governed by U.S. regulations no matter where the research takes place.

What is the most appropriate process for research collaborators to use in determining which journal they should submit their work to?

The research team should discuss the issue early on and while the project is ongoing.

Comment

The most effective way to identify a suitable journal is for the research team to discuss the issue both before the work begins and throughout the project.

A research collaboration can be enhanced by:

Discussing intellectual property issues while the collaboration is forming

Which of the following is true regarding industry-sponsored research?

Industry sponsors of research may seek to place restrictions on the disclosure of research results.

Which of the following is true about conflicts of interest?

Conflicts of interest increase the likelihood of bias.

Which of the following most accurately describes an institutional conflict of interest?

It occurs when an institution's financial or non-financial interests could interfere with its research activities.

The entity that normally is supposed to determine whether an academic researcher's conflict of interest can be managed is:

A conflict of interest committee

Which of the following is true about the management of conflicts of interest?

Management plans are often created to reduce the impact of conflicts of interest.

The main focus of NIH's conflict of interest policy is:

Financial conflicts of interest

Which of the following most accurately describes data lifecycle management (DLM)?

It refers to the tools and processes for handling data during a research study and after it concludes.

Which of the following is most likely to own the data resulting from a research project?

The organization that receives federal funding for a project.

What is the primary responsibility of oversight bodies (such as an IRB or IACUC)?

To determine compliance with regulatory requirements, including those relating to protecting research subjects.

Which of the following is true regarding data acquisition?

Data acquisition should follow a detailed collection plan that is set in advance.

Which of the following is true regarding the reporting of research results?

Clear specification of the methods and procedures used is essential.

More answers to tests and quizzes can be found at https://quizfeast.com

what dod instruction implements the dod cui program

What DoD Instruction implements the DoD CUI Program?

DoDI 5200.48, Controlled Unclassified Information

Who is responsible for applying CUI markings and dissemination instructions?

Authorized holder of the information at the time of creation

What is the goal of destroying CUI?

All of the above

What is the purpose of the ISOO CUI Registry?

A government-wide online repository for Federal-level guidance regarding CUI policy and practice

What is CUI Basic?

The subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls

What is controlled unclassified information (CUI)?

Unclassified information requiring safeguarding and dissemination controls, pursuant to and consistent with applicable laws, regulations and government wide policies

Who can decontrol CUI?

All of the above

What is CUI Specified?

The subset of CUI in which the authorizing law, regulation, or government-wide policy contains specific handling controls that it requires or permits agencies to use

CUI documents must be reviewed according to which procedures before destruction?

Records Management

Administrative, civil, or criminal sanctions may be imposed if there is an unauthorized disclosure (UD) of CUI?

True

What level of system and network configuration is required for CUI?

Moderate confidentiality

It is mandatory to include a banner marking at the top of the page to alert the user that CUI is present.

True

Who is responsible for protecting CUI?

DoD military, civilians, and contractors

What marking (banner and footer) acronym (at a minimum) is required on a DoD document containing controlled unclassified information?

CUI

At the time of creation of CUI material the authorized holder is responsible for determining:

CUI category, CUI markings and dissemination instructions

the hipaa minimum necessary standard applies

Under HIPAA, "retrospective research" (a.k.a., data mining) on collections of PHI generally ...

Is research, and so requires either an authorization or meeting one of the criteria for a waiver of authorization.

HHS has reiterated in its guidance that use or disclosure of PHI for retrospective research studies may be done only with patient authorization -- or with a waiver, alteration, or exception determination from an IRB or Privacy Board. However, remember that you generally cannot proceed on your own without some approval from an IRB, Privacy Board, or other designated governing entity.

...

A covered entity may use or disclose PHI without an authorization, or documentation of a waiver or an alteration of authorization, for all of the following EXCEPT:

Data that does not cross state lines when disclosed by the covered entity.

If the data in question meet the definition of PHI and are being used for purposes that fall within HIPAA's definition of research, HIPAA generally requires explicit written authorization (consent) from the data subject for research uses. However, HIPAA provides several alternatives that can bypass such authorizations:
The research involves only minimal risk.
The research is used solely for activities preparatory to research.
Only deceased persons' information is used.
Only de-identified data is used.
Only a "limited data set" is used, under an approved "data use agreement."
It is "grandfathered" research where all legal permissions were in place before HIPAA took effect.

...

If you're unsure about the particulars of HIPAA research requirements at your organization or have questions, you can usually consult with:

An organizational IRB or Privacy Board, privacy official ("Privacy Officer"), or security official ("Security Officer"), depending on the issue.

If you are unsure about the particulars, consult with your organization's IRB, Privacy Board, or privacy official. For data security issues, consult with your organization's security official. Consulting with an experienced colleague can always be helpful, but their advice is not authoritative. Do not assume that a representative of the funder will know all the rules, or that the generic advice of a professional association will be applicable to your organization's particular rules.

...

HIPAA's protections for health information used for research purposes...

Supplement those of the Common Rule and FDA.

Under HIPAA, a "disclosure accounting" is required:

For all human subjects research that uses PHI without an authorization from the data subject, except for limited data sets.

HIPAA's relatively new data-focused protections, which took effect starting in 2003, supplement Common Rule and FDA protections; they are not a replacement. Institutional Review Board (IRB) protocol reviews using Common Rule and FDA criteria remain as before, including aspects related to data protection. IRBs may have the responsibility for addressing HIPAA's additional requirements in their reviews when those apply; or some responsibilities may be given to another kind of body that HIPAA permits (a Privacy Board) or to an institutional official that HIPAA requires (a privacy officer). These federal standards complement states' and accreditation bodies' requirements.

...

In addition to being limited to external disclosures, disclosure accounting is not required for disclosures made under authority of a consent/authorization, on the theory that the data subjects are aware of what they have expressly permitted for that research. Neither is an accounting required for disclosures to the data subject directly about him/herself. Nor is it required for limited data set disclosures subject to a data use agreement. Nor, finally, is any accounting required for de-identified information that no longer qualifies as PHI.

...

A HIPAA authorization has which of the following characteristics:

Uses "plain language" that the data subject can understand, similar to the requirement for an informed consent document.

Authorizations are required unless the proposed use meets one of the exceptions listed in the HIPAA regulation. It is never at the researcher's discretion. When they are required, authorizations must be: In "plain language" so that individuals can understand the information contained in the form, and thus able to make an informed decision. Executed in writing, and signed by the research subject (or an authorized personal representative). Authorizations must include a specific description of the PHI to be used or disclosed, the name(s) or other identification of persons involved in the research, and description of each purpose of the requested use or disclosure. Authorizations can be combined with other documents and can always be revoked by the data subject.

...

HIPAA includes in its definition of "research," activities related to:

Development of generalizable knowledge.

Like the Common Rule, HIPAA defines research as a "systematic investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation, designed to develop and contribute to generalizable knowledge" (Protection of Human Subjects 2018; Security and Privacy 2013).

...

The HIPAA "minimum necessary" standard applies...

To all human subjects research that uses PHI without an authorization from the data subject.

Uses and disclosures of data for research that are allowed to bypass the authorization requirement are still subject to the "minimum necessary" standard - that is, the uses/disclosures must be no more than the minimum required for the described research purpose. A covered entity may rely on a researcher's documentation - or the assessment of an IRB or Privacy Board - that the information requested is the minimum necessary for the research purpose. By contrast, research information obtained using an authorization is not bound by the minimum necessary standard - on the theory that the data subject has given explicit permission in accordance with the signed authorization. However, be aware that while HIPAA may not require a minimum necessary justification at all times, an IRB's evaluation of risks and burdens on human subjects arguably does.

...

Recruiting into research ...

Can qualify as an activity "preparatory to research," at least for the initial contact, but data should not leave the covered entity.

It is still permissible under HIPAA to discuss recruitment into research with patients for whom such involvement might be appropriate. This common practice is considered to fall within the definition of treatment, at least when the conversation is undertaken by one of the patient's healthcare providers. If the contact will be made by someone other than the patient's healthcare provider, permission will be required.

...

Where fewer than 50 subjects' records are involved, the listing must be more specific and detailed, commensurate with the requirements for other kinds of PHI disclosure accounting, including: specific date(s) of disclosures; names of entities to which PHI was disclosed; description of the PHI involved in the disclosure; and purpose of the disclosure.

...

When required, the information provided to the data subject in a HIPAA disclosure accounting ...

must be more detailed for disclosures that involve fewer than 50 subject records.

which of the following is a benefit of unified command

 Which of the following is a benefit of Unified Command?

A.  Whole Community

B.  Joint Priorities (correct)

C.  National Incident Management System

D.  Multiple Jurisdictions acting independently

For non-Stafford Act Incidents, who activates the appropriate coordinating structures?       

A. Agency with primary legal authority (correct)

B.  Federal government

C.  Agency with the most responders

D.  First responding agency

who designates the process for transferring command

Which selection organizes, assigns, and supervises tactical response resources?

Operations

Which ICS functional area sets the incident objectives, strategies, and priorities, and has overall responsibility for the incident?

Command

Who has overall responsibility for managing the on-scene incident?

Incident Commander

Which General Staff member directs all responses and tactical actions to achieve the incident objectives?

Operations Division Director

Which General Staff member negotiates and monitors contracts, maintains documentation for reimbursement, and oversees timekeeping for incident personnel?

Finance/Administration Section Chief

Which ICS functional area establishes tactics and directs all operational resources to achieve the incident objectives?

Operations

The Incident Command System (ICS) is:

A standardized approach to incident management that is applicable for use in all hazards.

The Whole Community approach refers to different organizations within the Federal Government.

False

The Operations Section Chief:

Develops and implements strategies and tactics to achieve the incident objectives.

Who designates the Incident Commander and the process for transferring command?

The jurisdiction or organization with primary responsibility for the incident.

One of the benefits of ICS is that it provides an orderly, systematic _____ process.

Planning

Which ICS functional area monitors costs related to the incident and provides accounting, procurement, time recording, and cost analysis?

Finance/Administration

Check-in, Incident Action Planning, Personal Responsibility, and Resource Tracking are all necessary to ensure:

Accountability

The Liaison Officer:

Arranges for resources and needed services to support the incident objectives.

To ensure efficient, clear, communication, the National Incident Management System Characteristics recommend the use of:

Common terminology

Which position is always staffed in ICS applications?

Incident Commander

In a Unified Command, members representing multiple jurisdictions and agencies work together to establish:

Incident Objectives

The NIMS Management Characteristic of Chain of Command and Unity of Command means that each person:

Reports to only one ICS supervisor.

The NIMS Management Characteristic of information and intelligence Management may include surveillance of disease outbreaks.

True

Which NIMS Management Characteristic refers to personnel requested through appropriate authorities and established resource management systems?

Dispatch/ Deployment

Which member of the Command Staff interfaces with other agencies to meet incident-related information requirements?

Public Information Center

Chain of Command prevents personnel from directly communicating with each other to share information.

False

Establishment of the ICS modular organization is the responsibility of the:

Incident Commander

Which of the NIMS Management Characteristic may include gathering, analyzing, and assessing weather service data from technical specialists?

Incident Facilities and Locations

The Incident Commander or Unified Command establishes incident objectives that include:

Identifying strategies, tactics, tasks, and activities to achieve the objectives.

When partners representing multiple jurisdictions or agencies work together to establish the incident objectives, what type of Command is being used?

Unified Command

Which item is included in the NIMS Management Characteristic of Accountability?

Check-In/Check-Out of incident personnel

Qualification, Certification, and Credentialing Personnel are part of which NIMS Management Characteristic?

Comprehensive Resource Management

Depending on the incident size and complexity, various types of support facilities may be established by:

Incident Command

Which General Staff member is responsible for ensuring that assigned incident personnel are fed and have communications, medical support, and transportation as needed to meet the operational objective?

Logistics Section Chief

Selection of Incident Commanders is done by the:

Jurisdiction or organization with primary responsibility for the incident

Selection of Incident Commanders is done by the:

Selection of Incident Commanders is done by the: A. Jurisdiction or organization with primary responsibility for the incident B. Planning Officer C. Emergency Operations manager D. Public Information Officer

Selection of Incident Commanders is done by the: Jurisdiction or organization with primary responsibility for the incident.

Which member of the Command and Staff interfaces with other agencies to meet incident-related information requirements?

Public Information Officer

Which ICS functional area establishes tactics and directs all operational resources to reach the incident objectives?

Operations

The Whole Community approach refers to different organizations within the Federal Government.

False

The Incident Command System
(ICS) is only applicable to large, complex incidents.

False

Selection of Incident Commanders is done by the:

Jurisdiction or organization with primarily responsibility for the incident

Which ICS functional area arranges for resources and needed services to support achievement of the incident objective?

Logistics

Which ICS function is responsible for documentation for mutual aid agreements?

Finance/ Administration

Which section organizes, assigns, and supervises tactical response resources?

Operations

One of the benefits of ICS is that it provides an orderly, systematic _______________ process

Planning

If the incident Commander designates personnel to provide public information, safety, and liaison services, the personnel are collectively referred to as the:

Command Staff

To avoid overburdening the incident command, resources should not self-dispatch
(spontaneously deploy).

True

Which General staff member is responsible for ensuring that assigned incident personnel are fed and have communications, medical support, and transportation as needed to meet the operational objective?

Logistics Section Chief

Which General Staff member directs all responses and tactical actions to achieve the incident objectives?

Operations Section Chief

Which General Staff member prepares Incident Action Plans, manages information, and
maintains situational awareness for the incident?

planning section chief

The Incident Command System (ICS) can be used to manage any type of incident, including planned events

true

The Liaison Officer:

Is the point of contact for other response organizations

Qualification, Certification, and Credentialing Personnel are part of which NIMS
Management Characteristic?

Comprehensive Resource Management

Which NIMS Management Characteristic is necessary for achieving situational awareness and facilitating information sharing?

Integrated

Which command is transferred, the process should include a(n)

Briefing

An Incident Action Plan is captured and communicates overall operational and support activities for an incident

True

Which position is always staffed in ICS applications?

Incident Commander

To ensure efficient, clear, communication, the National Incident Management System Characteristics recommend the use of:

Common Terminology

Within the National Incident Management System Characteristics, the concept of common terminology covers all of the following EXCEPT:

Technical Specifications

At the incident scene, who handles media inquires?

Public Information Officer

The Incident Command System (ICS) is?

A standardized approach to incident management that is applicable for use in all hazards

Which ICS functional area tracks resources, collects and analyzes information, and maintains documentation?

Planning

Who designates the Incident Commander and the process for transferring command?

The Jurisdiction or organization with primary responsibility for the incident

Which NIMS Management Character
istic may include gathering, analyzing, and assessing weather service data from technical specialists?

Information and Intelligence Management

Which NIMS Management Characteristic refers to personnel requested through appropriate authorities and established resource management systems?

Dispatch/ Deployment

The Incident Commander or Unified Commander establishes incident objectives that include:

Identifying strategies, tactics, tasks, and activities to achieve the objectives.

Which of the following are typical incident facilities?

All of the Above

Check-in, incident Action Planning, Personal Responsibility, and Resource Tracking are all necessary to ensure:

Accountability

Which General Staff Member negotiates and monitors contracts, maintains documentation for reimbursement, and oversees timekeeping for incident personnel?

Finance/ Administration

Establishment of the ICS modular organization is the responsibility of the:

Incident Commander

When partners representing multiple jurisdictions or agencies work together to establish the incident objectives, what type of Command is being used?

Unified Command

Acquiring, Storing, and Inventorying Resources are part of which NIMS Management Characteristic?

Comprehensive Resource Management

Who has overall responsibility for managing the on-scene incident?

Incident Commander

In a Unified Command, members representing multiple jurisdictions and agencies work together to establish:

Incident Objectives

Command is:

Directing, ordering, or controlling by virtue of explicit statutory, regulatory, or delegated authority

Which ICS functional area monitors costs related to the incident and provides accounting, procurement, time recording, and cost analysis?

Finance/Administration

Manageable Span of Control refers to:

The number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can effectively manage during an incident

Which of the following is not an example of CUI

Which of the following is NOT an example of CUI?

Press release data

Which of the following is NOT a correct way to protect CUI?

CUI may be stored on any password-protected system

Which of the following does NOT constitute spillage?

Classified information that should be unclassified and is downgraded

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to protect against inadvertent spillage?

Use the classified network for all work, including unclassified work

Which of the following should you NOT do if you find classified information on the internet?

Download the information

CPCON 1

Very High DoD Risk Level; Priority Critical Functions

CPCON 2

High DoD Risk Level; Priority Critical and Essential Functions

What should the employee do differently?

Remove his CAC and lock his workstation

What should the employee do differently?

Decline to let the person in and redirect her to security

When is it appropriate to have your security badge visible?

At all times when in the facility

What should the owner of this printed SCI do differently?

Retrieve classified documents promptly from printers

What should the participants in this conversation involving SCI do differently?

Physically assess that everyone within listening distance is cleared and has a need-to-know for the information being discussed

What level of damage to national security can you reasonably expect Top Secret information to cause if disclosed?

Exceptionally grave damage

Which of the following is true about telework?

You must have your organization's permission to telework

Which of the following is true of protecting classified data?

Classified material must be appropriately marked

Social Media Profile Privacy Settings

everything Friends Only except your Name and Profile Picture - turn off "Check in location via GPS"

Information Environment Awareness

Q: Which headline example of disinformation could cause individuals to doubt orders or policy, and dwell on the consequences of action?

A: New Russian capability disables US Navy ships

Q. Adversaries can determine how close Airmen are connected to others by __________.

A. analyzing the volume, frequency, and pattern of Airmen’s communications

Q. The aim of cognitive warfare is the same as other warfighting domains.

A. True

Q. When using the SMART model and analyzing information based on the Motives phase, which of the following is the most critical set of indicators of establishing negative motives for disinformation?

A. To sell or advocate for a particular political, religious, or personal agenda

Q. What does cognitive warfare attempt to accomplish?

A. Alter people’s perceptions, which forms the foundation for their actions

Q. Are cheapfakes exceptionally dangerous and easy to spread?

A. Yes, they are easy to create and post through social and mass media

Q. What makes it cheap and easy to target Military and veterans for intelligence gathering and influence campaigns?

A. Social media

Q. Why are social-media-generated facts increasingly the information weapons of choice?

A. All of these

Q. What must an Airmen do to protect vital information and influence to increase or preserve combat power effectiveness?

A. Take defensive and offensive actions, within the information environment.

Q. Which of the following influence availability bias?

A. Information that is readily accessible and easily recalled

Q. When is the most conclusive time to assess the final truth of the event?

A. Day after to week of event

Q. Why are influence operations efficient and effective?

A. The Internet and social media have resulted in a qualitatively new landscape of influence operations, persuasion, and mass manipulation.

Q. What is the most effective strategy for resisting persuasion?

A. Airmen must be able to recognize the influence of effort or attempt.

Q. What model can be used to separate truth from fiction?

A. Sources, Motives, Authority, Review, Two-source test (SMART)

what is cui basic

What DoD Instruction implements the DoD CUI Program?

DoDI 5200.48, Controlled Unclassified Information

Who is responsible for applying CUI markings and dissemination instructions?

Authorized holder of the information at the time of creation

What is the goal of destroying CUI?

All of the above

What is the purpose of the ISOO CUI Registry?

A government-wide online repository for Federal-level guidance regarding CUI policy and practice

What is CUI Basic?

The subset of CUI for which the authorizing law, regulation, or Government-wide policy does not set out specific handling or dissemination controls

What is controlled unclassified information (CUI)?

Unclassified information requiring safeguarding and dissemination controls, pursuant to and consistent with applicable laws, regulations and government wide policies

Who can decontrol CUI?

All of the above

What is CUI Specified?

The subset of CUI in which the authorizing law, regulation, or government-wide policy contains specific handling controls that it requires or permits agencies to use

CUI documents must be reviewed according to which procedures before destruction?

Records Management

Administrative, civil, or criminal sanctions may be imposed if there is an unauthorized disclosure (UD) of CUI?

True

What level of system and network configuration is required for CUI?

Moderate confidentiality

It is mandatory to include a banner marking at the top of the page to alert the user that CUI is present.

True

Who is responsible for protecting CUI?

DoD military, civilians, and contractors

What marking (banner and footer) acronym (at a minimum) is required on a DoD document containing controlled unclassified information?

CUI

At the time of creation of CUI material the authorized holder is responsible for determining:

CUI category, CUI markings and dissemination instructions

RAT - Basic Communication

Which proword notifies the sender that the message was received? Acknowledge

The standard message format includes three major sections; what are they? Heading, Text, and Ending

What is the purpose of the call sign? It gets the attention of the reciever and identifies the sender.

Which letters are easy to confuse with each other when spoken over the radio? B, D, T, V

What are the phonetic words that replace the letters G, H, J, and M? Golf, Hotel, Juliett, Mike

How is the number "3" pronounced over the radio? Tree

How is the number "5" pronounced over the radio? Fife

Wait and Execute are prowords; which of the following is not? Repeat

Which proword indicates the separation of the text from other parts of the message? Break

What does precedence indicate when communicating a message? Level of urgency

Match each precedence term with its meaning: Immediate - Messages relating to the security of friendly forces or the populace Routine - Messages that do not need special treatment but still need to be delivered as quickly as possible. Flash - Not considered a term for precedence. Priority - Messages that take precedence over routine traffic.

Match the description with the correct network. NIPRNET - The preferred Internet protocol for defense and military systems. SIPRNET - Deals primarily with the transfer of classified data. JWICS - DoD's secure intranet system that handles top-secret and sensitive compartmented information. BICES - Accommodates communications between our coalition partners. Free net - When an NCS authorizes individual stations to transmit to other stations freely. Directed net - When stations must first obtain permission from the NCS before communicating directly.

Authentication codes change frequently and vary from one network to another. True

Using the authentication table shown, what is the authentication code Foxtrot 3? Romeo

If your radio network isn't a secure network, what should you do? Authenticate your identity

Place each rule in the correct category, then click Submit Do's - Use authorized prowords; Always assume the enemy is listening; Transmit clear, complete, and concise messages Don'ts - Transmit an operator's name; Violate radio silence; Use profane, indecent, or obscene language

What communications methodology does PACE represent? Primary, Alternate, Contingency, and Emergency

Select the report format that is typically used for reporting adversary information. SALUTE

Select the report format that is typically used for communicating the status of equipment or supplies. LACE

Select the report format that is most often used in medical and ordnance-oriented situations. 9-LINE

Match the letters of the acronym LACE with the reporting item they represent. L - How much water do you have? A - How much of this commodity have you expended or need? C - Do you have any wounded and what is their status? E - Are your supplies still usable for the mission?

An Operation Order, or OPORD, represents which of the following: The commander's intent

An OPORD is formatted to organize an operation using which of the following formats? SMEAC

Mission Command is the conduct of military operations through decentralized execution based upon mission-type orders. True

Match the definition to the correct term. Situation - Describes the conditions of the operational enviroment that can impact operations. Mission - Covers the specific who, what, when, where, and why. Logistics and Communications - Delineated C2 channels and provides guidance for communications if they are degraded. OPORD - Describes the unit's situation and what supporting activities the unit will conduct to achieve its commander's objectives.

From an individual Airman's standpoint, many civilian and military systems that interact with the EMS may actually hinder operations. Select all items that can pose a security risk in a CDO Select all answers

Fall Protection Awareness

A Fall Arrest Anchor Point must be capable of supporting how many pounds per attached worker?

5,000 lbs

Falls most often occur during roofing, scaffold and _____ operations.

ladder

On a manually propelled elevated work system, the platform must have a guardrail of _____ plus or minus 3 inches high, a mid-rail, and toe boards at least 4 inches.

42

Only technicians who work by themselves should know how to perform self-rescue.

False

Wooden ladders should not be painted because this can hide defects; instead, they should be coated with a clear lacquer.

True

Retraining in fall protection should be re-accomplished _____.

when workers do not recognize fall hazards safe practices, changes in the workplace, or in the fall-protection systems.

When inspecting snap-hooks, look for ____.

all of the above

Personal fall-arrest, restraint, or positioning-device systems only need quarterly inspections.

False

What is the proper procedure, regarding the fall protection equipment, to follow after a fall has occurred?

Do not re-use and take all the equipment out of service.

You can fall from any height and be seriously injured or killed.

true

It takes as little as _____ for someone to die from suspension trauma.

30 minutes

After selecting a proper Anchor Point, you can ensure a compatible anchorage connection by_____.

using an anchorage connector such as a cross arm strap, beam anchor or a shock-absorbing lanyard specifically designed for tie-back use to maintain a compatible connection with the anchor point.

Fall hazards are foreseeable and can be eliminated or controlled by prescreening.

True

When workers participate in the creation of a rescue plan it can become unclear and unfocused. It is best to have a plan that has been created by one person.

False

Angle straight ladders and extension ladders properly. They should have a _____ slope (height to base).

4 to 1

What are the three components of a Personal Fall Arrest System?

Anchor/Anchorage Connector, Body Wear (Harness) and Connecting Device (Lanyard or Retractable)

The head and _____ areas are the most often injured during a fall.

Back

Once a system has been developed, there is no need about improving it.

False

A _____ ladder has two sections that are hinged at the top and form equal angles with the base and are used in pairs to support planks or staging.

trestle

The Purpose and Scope clearly define the fall protection program's overall objective.

True

The use of body belts for fall protection during construction activity was outlawed in 1998; however, the use of a body belt for positioning is still acceptable.

True

Who is responsible for performing the daily inspection of a Personal Fall Arrest System?

The worker

Who establishes the standards for operating aerial lift trucks?

ANSI

Nomex and Kevlar are flame-retardant materials and are commonly used in _____ situations.

welding

What is the definition of Arresting Force?

Force exerted on the body while stopping a fall.

earning service revenue on account means cash ______.

Recognizing revenue on account will ______.

balance sheet,
income statement,
statement of changes in stockholders equity

A change in stockholders' equity is caused by ______.

issuing stock,
incurring a cash expense,
earnings

Acquiring cash by issuing common stock ______.

increases cash,
increases common stock

On the statement of cash flows, issuing stock for cash increases cash flow from ______ activities.

financing

Gomez Company borrowed $10,000 from the State Bank on April 1, Year 1. The one-year note has a 6% rate of interest. On the Year 2 income statement, the amount of interest expense reported by Gomez is ______.

$150

Which of the following are found on the statement of changes in stockholders' equity?

Beginning retained earnings,
Dividends

Gomez Company borrowed $10,000 from the State Bank on April 1, Year 1. The one-year note has a 6% rate of interest. On the Year 1 income statement, the amount of interest expense reported by Gomez is ______.

$450

Addison Company borrowed $6,000 from the State Bank on June 1, Year 1. The one-year note has an 8% rate of interest. The cash outflow from operating activities that Addison will report on its Year 2 statement of cash flows is ______.

$480, The total amount of cash is paid at the maturity date May 31, Year 2.

Recognizing an accrued expense is a(n) ______ transaction.

claims exchange

When a company collects an account receivable, revenue is ______.

not affected

Recognizing revenue on account will _____.

have no effect on the statement of cash flows

Decreases in accounts payable are caused by ______.

payment of payables

Recognizing a cash expense for advertising will ______.

cause the amount of assets shown on the balance sheet to decrease,
cause a decrease in the net cash flow from operations shown on the statement of cash flows

Recognizing accrued expense is a claims _____ transaction.

exchange

Gomez Company borrowed $10,000 from the State Bank on April 1, Year 1. The one-year note has a 6% rate of interest. The cash outflow from operating activities that Gomez will report on its Year 2 statement of cash flows is ______.

$600

The collection of cash in settlement of an account receivable is a(n) ______ transaction.

asset exchange

Interest on a Notes Payable is recognized ______.

at the end of the accounting period

When a company recognizes revenue on account, the balance in the ______.

accounts receivable account increases and balance in the revenue account increases

Recognizing accrued interest expense affects the ______.

Balance sheet,
Income statement,
Statement of changes in stockholders equity

Revenues and expenses are recognized in the period in which cash is collected or paid under _____ basis accounting.

cash

True or false: A company recognized an accrued salary expense in Year 1 and paid its employees in Year 2. In Year 2 neither Salaries expense nor Salaries payable will change as a result of this transaction.

False: Salaries expense will not change, but Cash and Salaries payable will.

Issuing a note to borrow money affects the ______.

Statement of cash flows,
Balance sheet

Burns Company borrowed $4,000 from the State Bank on December 1, Year 1. The one-year note carried a 9% rate of interest. When the note is paid off at maturity, Burns Company will decrease cash ______

decrease notes payable and decrease interest payable

Which of the following are required by the Sarbanes Oxley Act?

Independent auditors conducting audits of public companies must register with the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB),
Firms that provide public audits are prohibited from providing a variety of other nonaudit services.

Gomez Company borrowed $10,000 from the State Bank on April 1, Year 1. The one-year note has a 6% rate of interest. On the Year 1 statement of cash flows, the amount of cash flow from operating activities reported by Gomez is ______.

0, Reason:
The total amount of cash is paid at the maturity date March 31, Year 2. Accordingly, zero would be paid in Year 1.

Decreases in accounts receivable are caused by ______.

collections of receivables

True or false: Collecting an account receivable does not affect the balance sheet.

False:
Collecting an account receivable is an asset exchange transaction that does not affect the total amount of assets shown on the balance sheet. Even so, it does affect the balance sheet because it affects the amount of cash versus the amount of accounts receivable shown on the statement.

An account receivable is an expectation to ______ in the future.

collect cash

Which of the following individuals must certify in writing that they have reviewed a company's financial reports and that the reports they reviewed present fairly the company's financial status?

Chief Financial Officer (CFO),
Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

When a company recognizes accrued interest expense, the balance in the expense account increases and the balance in the ______.

interest payable account increases

Declaring and paying a cash dividend ______.

decreases cash and retained earnings

Earning service revenue on account means cash ______.

will be collected in the future, even though the related service has been performed

Which principle of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct requires members to strive continually to improve competence?

Due Care

Policies and procedures that a business implements to reduce opportunities for fraud and to assure that its objectives will be accomplished are called _____ _____.

internal controls

Addison Company borrowed $6,000 from the State Bank on June 1, Year 1. The one-year note has an 8% rate of interest. On the Year 2 income statement, the amount of interest expense reported by Addison is ______.

$200

Accounts receivable is a(n) ______.

asset

Which of the following accounts are reported on the balance sheet?

Accounts receivable,
Salaries payable

Issuing stock in exchange for cash will ______.

increase stockholders' equity,
be reported on the statement of cash flows

Salaries payable is reported on the ______.

balance sheet

Which of the following are reported on the income statement?

Salary expense,
Net income

Which of the following accounts are reported on the income statement?

Salaries expense,
Service revenue

The horizontal financial statements model is ______.

a teaching tool used to show how transactions affect the income statement, balance sheet and statement of cash flows

Collecting an accounts receivable affects financial statements by increasing ______.

cash flow

Gomez Company has a December 31 year end. The company borrows $4,000 from the State Bank on December 1, Year 1. The one-year note has a 9% rate of interest. On the Year 2 income statement, the amount of interest expense reported by Gomez is ______.

$330

When a company incurs a cash expense, the balance in the retained earnings account ______.

decreases

When a company recognizes an accrued expense, the amount of ______.

cash is not affected,
expense increases

True or false: Collecting an accounts receivable decreases stockholders' equity.

False:
The collection of an account receivable affects cash and accounts receivable and as a result has no effect on stockholders' equity

Recording accrued salary expense impacts the ______.

balance sheet,
income statement

When a company collects cash from an account receivable, cash ______.

increases and accounts receivable decreases

Liabilities are ______ related to the recognition of expenses.

sometimes, Liabilities are obligations that arise from both acquiring assets and recognizing expenses.

If a company has assets of $65,000 and liabilities of $30,000 then ______ must equal $35,000.

stockholders' equity

Providing services on account ______.

has no effect on the statement of cash flows

An obligation to pay cash to employees in the future is normally called salaries _____.

payable

True or false: Liabilities are expenses.

False: Liabilities are obligations, not expenses, that may arise from recognizing expenses.

Providing services on account affects the ______.

balance sheet, income statement, statement of changes in stockholders equity

When a company recognizes an expense on account, ______.

accounts payable and expenses increase

Ethical standards ______.

improve credibility,
promote trust

To help you understand how business events affect financial statements, the text uses a(n) _____ statements model.

horizontal financial

Grey Company earned $5,000 of revenue on account during Year 1, but collected the cash associated with the receivables in Year 2. Based on this information alone, under accrual accounting, the company will report ______.

net income of zero and cash inflow from operations of $5,000 in Year 2,
net income of $5,000 and cash inflow from operations of zero in Year 1.

The recognition of interest expense is a(n) _____ _____ transaction.

claims exchange

During Year 1, Silver Sinks, Inc. earned $33,000 of revenue on account. Cash collections of receivables were $28,000. The remainder of the receivables were collected in Year 2. As a result of these transactions, Silver Sink will report Year 1 net income of ______.

$33,000 and cash inflow from operating activities of $28,000 in Year 1 and $5,000 in Year 2

When a company pays cash to settle an account payable, ______.

both cash and accounts payable decrease

Issuing stock for cash increases ______.

cash flow from financing activities,
common stock,
stockholders' equity,
assets

Providing services on account will ______.

cause an increase in the amount of net income shown on the income statement,
cause a increase in the amount of retained earnings shown on the statement of changes in stockholders equity

Accrual accounting is ______ by generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).

required

A deferral occurs when an expense is recognized ______ the associated cash is exchanged.

after

An economic sacrifice resulting from operating activities undertaken to generate revenue is called a(n) _____.

expense

Adjusting entries are normally prepared ______.

at the end of an accounting period before financial statements are prepared

Signing a contract to provide future services ______.

has no effect on financial statements

The total benefits, both cash and other items, received from operating the business are shown on the ______.

income statement

A deferral occurs when revenue ______.

is recognized after the associated cash has been collected

Green Company incurred $5,000 of accrued expenses during Year 1, but paid the cash associated with the payables in Year 2. Based on this information alone, under accrual accounting, the company would report a net loss of ______.

...

Net income and cash flow from operating activities will ______.

...

what is the central idea of this excerpt

Which is a critique of the excerpt?

The effects of slavery are much worse than the effects of materialism.

Which is the central idea of this excerpt?

The Utopians are not concerned about dressing fashionably.

This excerpt is most likely More's reaction to his society's

greed.

What is the central idea of this excerpt?

Utopians are surprised by the great value placed on jewels, cloth, and gold.

Which should be included in a critique? Check all that apply.

the central idea
supporting details
the reader's position
supporting evidence

This detail supports the central idea that riches are not important to Utopians. It is best described as a(n)

anecdote.

Thomas More's fictional text about a society governed by reason and order is most likely a response to the conflict between

the king and church leaders

Which historical fact will best help readers understand this excerpt?

Explorers during this period went to the New World in search of scarce resources.

Which statement provides a critique of the central idea?

Taking from the wealthy to feed the poor discourages hard work.

Thomas More wrote Utopia during a period of

increased prosperity and a growing middle class.

lab 8-2 change runlevels and shutdown or reboot system

A Linux system that is configured to work in graphical mode, what is the run level?

5

Which runlevel shuts down the system and then reboots it with the mentioned level as the default runlevel?

6

Which two commands can be used to change the runlevel? [Choose two.]

init

telinit

Which parameter should be used with the shutdown command to cancel a scheduled shutdown?

-c

Which parameter should be used with the shutdown command to schedule a shutdown?

-r

nadine gordimer wrote many stories about the injustices of apartheid

How is the structure of this story similar to a fairy tale? What elements do they share? Cite details from the text to support your analysis.

The structure of this story is very similar to a fairy tale. Lines 50-51 of this story state, "...there were a man and his wife who loved each other very much and were living happily ever after." The end of line 51 sounds incredibly similar to that of a closing statement in a fairy tale. An element that a fairy tale and this particular story share is

Nadine Gordimer wrote many stories about the injustices of apartheid. She was also active in bringing change to the political entities of South Africa. Even though her books were banned in South Africa for a time, she resolved to stay instead of living in exile. What do you learn about Gordimer's political point of view by reading this story? Explain your ideas using evidence from the story.

Nadine Gordimer believes that the riots and anger in Africa is causing a huge trouble, and that the nation has seen better days. She expresses this in her writing by showing how the once ethereal gardens became metal prison grounds, and multiple citizens were left on the street to rot.

Authors often leave things unstated in a story, leaving the reader with questions about the outcome. What can you infer about what Gordimer leaves unstated at the end of her story? How does it relate to her statements about the family living "happily ever after"?

I can infer that the couple's little boy died. He was bruised, bloody, and his skin was torn apart; he had to have died. It relates to her statement about the family living "happily ever after" by showing that no one actually lives happily ever after, since we will always be going through one hardship after the other.

In lines 58, 136, and 194, the phrase "wise old witch" is used to describe the husband's mother. Explain how the wise old witch can be interpreted to symbolize the government in South Africa.

The wise old witch is interpreted as the South African government. She keeps on urging the family to make their security system stronger, to protect what is most important, and to never let anyone in. This is how the South African government is oppressing their citizens--lying to them that they aren't safe, until it gets to the point where they really aren't safe.

How does the cat symbolize and support the theme of the story? Explain.

The cat that the family owns is supposed to represent how simple their worries are, while they think it's an burglar as it jumps constantly from wall to wall.

What is the theme of this story? Explain how Gordimer develops this theme through the story's elements, such as structure and symbols.

The theme of this story is that not everyone gets a happily ever after. We continue to go through trials and tribulations that test us and how grounded we are. There is no one moment which leads to peace afterwards. Well, unless you count death.