Oxygen Is Attached To _______.

Oxygen is attached to _______.

a. an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
b. a calcium atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
c. a calcium atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin
d. an iron atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin

a. an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin

The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is evaluated using _______.

a. hematocrit measurements and cholesterol measurements
b. hemoglobin measurements
c. hematocrit measurements
d. hematocrit measurements and hemoglobin measurements
e. cholesterol measurements

d. hematocrit measurements and hemoglobin measurements

Release of which of the following hormones results in higher levels of erythrocytes?

erythropoietin
testosterone and erythropoietin
estrogen
estrogen and erythropoietin
testosterone

testosterone and erythropoietin

Which type of anemia is a genetic disorder resulting in abnormally shaped erythrocytes?

aplastic anemia
sickle cell anemia
pernicious anemia
polycythemia

sickle cell anemia

The blood sample from which of the following had the highest hematocrit?

a healthy female living in Boston
a healthy male living in Boston
a healthy male living in Denver
a healthy female living in Denver

a healthy male living in Denver

The blood sample(s) from which of the following displayed polycythemia?

a. a healthy male living in Denver
b. a healthy female living in Denver and a healthy male living in Denver
c. a healthy female living in Denver
d. a healthy male living in Boston and a healthy male living in Denver
e. a healthy male living in Boston

b. a healthy female living in Denver and a healthy male living in Denver

The hematocrit for the female with iron-deficiency anemia was _______.

a. below normal
b. above normal
c. normal
d. above normal and indicative of polycythemia
e. indicative of polycythemia

a. below normal

Which of the samples are from patients that suffer from a condition in which insufficient oxygen is transported to the body's cells?

samples 1 and 3
samples 1 and 2
samples 3 and 4
samples 5 and 6

samples 5 and 6

Which of the following would indicate a worsening of the disease?

a. decreased ESR with angina
b. increased ESR with rheumatoid arthritis
c. decreased ESR with acute appendicitis
d. decreased ESR with pelvic inflammatory disease

b. increased ESR with rheumatoid arthritis

Rouleaux formation is characterized by _______.

an increase in ESR
a decrease in ESR
a decrease in ESR and a decrease in fibrinogen production
an increase in ESR and a decrease in fibrinogen production
a decrease in fibrinogen production

an increase in ESR

ESR is useful in distinguishing between _______.

a. rheumatoid arthritis and bone cancer

b. angina and a myocardial infarction as well as acute appendicitis and ruptured ectopic pregnancy

c. acute appendicitis and ruptured ectopic pregnancy

d. angina and a myocardial infarction

e. All of the above are correct.

Erythrocyte sedimentation relies upon _______.

filtration
blood pressure
gravity
centrifugation

gravity

The tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach is called the ________.

trachea
esophagus
small intestine
oral canal

esophagus

This GI tract organ stores food temporarily, and continues the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.

oral cavity
small intestine
stomach
esophagus

stomach

The tube that leaves the stomach (and is the first part of the small intestine) is called the ________.

duodenum

This GI tract organ acts like a drying oven. It absorbs water from its contents, and consolidates and propels the unusable components of food toward elimination from the body.

large intestine

The lining of the alimentary canal is a ________.

mucous membrane

This enzyme, produced by the salivary glands, digests carbohydrates.

salivary amylase

This fat-digesting enzyme does the major work of digesting fats in the small intestine.

lipase

Emulsifies fat, keeping tiny fat droplets suspended in the aqueous contents of the gut

bile

Which type of movement in the GI system propels food along the entire alimentary canal?

peristalsis

enamel

what is number 1?

dentin

what is number 2?

gingiva

what is number 3?

cementum

what is number 4?

root canal

what is number 5?

periodontal ligament

what is number 6?

crown

what is number 7?

neck

what is number 8?

root

what is number 9?

Fats, in the presence of litmus (that indicates pH of the solution), are shown to be digested ________.

when the solution in the test tube turns pink (acidic)

The protein-digesting enzyme that works in the stomach is ________.

pepsin

The GI organ that is the major site of nutrient absorption is the ________.

small intestine

This enzyme, which digests carbohydrates, is found in saliva and in the small intestine.

amylase

This accessory organ of the digestive system makes digestive enzymes that act upon all of the major food types.

pancreas

The digestive function of the liver is to ________.

produce bile

The heart is located in a subdivision of the thorax called the ________

mediastinum

How many heart valves are there?

They lie between the atria and the ventricular chambers on each side of the heart.

Mitral and Tricuspid valves

They enforce a one-way blood flow through the heart, operate passively (no active contraction required), and separate atria from ventricles, and ventricles from the large arteries that leave them.

heart valves

Which side of the heart receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs?

right

The pulmonary trunk and arteries are color-coded ________ on models and in pictures, because they carry ________ blood.

blue, deoxygenated

In the coronary circulation oxygenated blood is provided to the heart muscle by the ________.

right and left coronary arteries

Cardiac muscle tissue ________.

is striated, like skeletal muscle tissue

In sequential order, the components of the intrinsic conduction system, beginning at the SA node, are ________.

Av node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

The QRS complex is associated with ________.

Depolarization of the ventricles

Name the ridged bundles of muscle found projecting inside the right atrium.

Pectinate muscles
Papillary muscles
Intercalated discs
Trabeculae carneae

pectinate muscles

Identify the right atrioventricular valve.

Pulmonary valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Bicuspid valve
Tricuspid valve

tricuspid valve

Identify the valve located at the exit of the right ventricle.

Aortic semilunar valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid valve

pulmonary semilunar valve

The moderator band is found on both the right and left side of the heart.

True
False

false

Oxygenated blood flows through the right side of the heart.

False
True

false

Identify the most muscular chamber.

Right atrium
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle

left ventricle

Name the inner lining of the heart.

Endocardium
Pericardium
Epicardium
Myocardium

endocardium

Identify the valve found between the left atrium and left ventricle.

Bicuspid (mitral) valve

What heart chamber pushes blood through the aortic semilunar valve?

Right atrium
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle

left ventricle

Name the needle like ridges of muscle lining the ventricles.

Papillary muscles
Trabeculae carneae
Chordae tendineae
Pectinate muscles

Trabeculae carneae

What fibrous structure functions to anchor the atrioventricular valves in a closed position?

Papillary muscle
Chordae tendineae
Trabeculae carneae
Moderator band

chordae tendineae

Blood on the right never mixes with blood on the left, once the heart is fully developed.

False
True

true

Identify the ear like flaps that are attached to the top chambers of the heart.

Auricle
Atrium
Coronary sinus
Pectinate muscles

auricle

The first branch off the arch of the aorta is the brachiocephalic artery in both the sheep and the human.

False
True

true

Which chamber of the heart exits into the pulmonary trunk?

Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle

right ventricle

What is the function of the coronary circulation?

Provide a blood supply to the heart

What is the ligamentum arteriosum?

a remanent of the ductus arteriosus

(The ductus arteriosus is a fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta.)

Blood arriving in the right atrium has just come from the ________.

right ventricle
aorta
left atrium
venae cavae and coronary sinus

venae cavae and coronary sinus

Blood has just been discharged into the pulmonary trunk: from which chamber did it exit?

right ventricle

** ASK CALLIE bc i Dont get it *

These vessels carry oxygenated blood.

venae cavae and pulmonary veins
aorta and pulmonary veins
aorta and pulmonary trunk
venae cavae and pulmonary artery

aorta and pulmonary veins

What is the name of the circuit that supplies blood to the brain, heart, and gastrointestinal tract?

systemic circulation

________ is/are found in the ventricles, and attach the flaps of the AV valves to papillary muscle.

chordae tendineae

Bradycardia describes a heart rate of ________.

less than 60 beats/minute

Ventricular fibrillation is ________.

a. slow, strong ventricular contractions
b. rapid, uncoordinated ventricular contractions
c. fluttering of the atria
d. strong, rhythmic atrial contractions

b. rapid, uncoordinated ventricular contractions

The inferior vena cava drains the ________.

abdomen
abdomen and lower extremities
head and upper extremities
thorax

abdomen and lower extremities

In a microscopic field showing an artery and its corresponding vein, you can easily distinguish the two because ________.

a. veins have thinner walls and are irregular in shape
b. arteries are round and larger than veins
c. veins are round and have thicker walls
d. arteries have a larger internal opening than veins

There are two brachiocephalic veins and ________ brachiocephalic artery (or arteries).

Arteries that supply the intestines arise from the aorta. Veins that drain the intestines ________.

a. empty into the hepatic veins
b. enter the inferior vena cava directly
c. join to form the common intestinal vein that enters the vena cava
d. ultimately drain into the hepatic portal vein

Which of the following had the fastest sedimentation rate?

a. the individual with sickle cell anemia
b. the individual with angina pectoris
c. the healthy individual
d. the individual suffering a myocardial infarction

Which sample did NOT settle at all in one hour?

a. the healthy individual
b. the individual suffering a myocardial infarction
c. the individual with angina pectoris
d. the individual with sickle cell anemia

In comparing the sedimentation rate for the individual with angina pectoris with that of the healthy individual, which of the following statements is true?

a. The sedimentation rate was greater for the individual with angina pectoris.
b. The sedimentation rate was greater for the healthy individual.
c. The sedimentation rates were the same for both individuals.
d. The sedimentation rate was not measured for the individual with angina pectoris.

Which of the following explains the result for the individual with sickle cell anemia?

a. The lack of iron in the red blood cells allowed them the settle faster.
b. The shape of the red blood cells allowed them to settle faster.
c. The shape of the red blood cells prevented them from settling.
d. The lack of iron prevented the red blood cells from settling.

c. The shape of the red blood cells prevented them from settling.

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry ______________ oxygen molecule(s).

one
three
four
two

four

Which of the following does NOT result in an increase in hemoglobin levels?

congestive heart failure
polycythemia
living at high altitudes
hyperthyroidism

hyperthyroidism

has oxygen attached to the iron atom

Oxyhemoglobin

Which of the following individuals had the highest hemoglobin level?

the healthy female
the healthy male
the male with polycythemia
the female Olympic athlete

the female Olympic athlete

Which of the following blood samples did NOT have a normal ratio of PCV to Hb?
?
a. the male with polycythemia

b.the female with iron-deficiency anemia and the healthy female

c. the female with iron-deficiency anemia

d. the female with iron-deficiency anemia and the male with polycythemia

e.the healthy female

c. the female with iron-deficiency anemia

Which of the following individuals had the highest hemoglobin level?

the healthy female
the healthy male
the male with polycythemia
the female Olympic athlete

the female Olympic athlete

Which of the following describes the blood sample for the female Olympic athlete?

Her hemoglobin level and her hematocrit were above normal.

A person with type O blood has _______.

neither A nor B agglutinogens
neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins
O agglutinins
O antigens

neither A nor B agglutinogens

With respect to ABO and Rh blood groups, there are __________ different blood types.

eight

A person with type AB blood has _______.

A and B antigens and neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies.

A person with A+ blood has _______.

a. the A antigen on the surface of the red blood cells

b. Rh antigen on the surface of the red blood cells

c. anti-B antibodies

d.all of the above

d. all of the above

Which blood sample contained the universal recipient?

sample 5

Which of the following terms can be used interchangeably?

antigen and agglutinin
agglutinogen and agglutinin
antigen and antibody
antigen and agglutinogen

antigen and agglutinogen

Blood type A- would give which of the following results?

a. agglutination with anti-A antibodies and agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies
b. agglutination with anti-B antibodies
c. agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies and agglutination with anti-B antibodies
d. agglutination with anti-A antibodies
e. agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies

Which of the blood samples tested could donate to a person with type A+ blood?

samples 1 and 4

LDLs contain?

cholesterol and protein

In the activity for blood cholesterol we measured?

total blood cholesterol

Hypercholesterolemia is linked to _______.

low levels of serotonin

The cholesterol determination is _______.

enzymatic and colorimetric

Which of the following were disposed of in the biohazardous waste disposal?

the alcohol wipe, the lancet, and the cholesterol strip

Which patient sample(s) tested in the elevated range?

sample 2

Which patient sample(s) tested in the desirable range?

sample 1 and 3

Which patient sample(s) tested in the borderline elevated range?

sample 4

The autorhythmicity of cardiac pacemaker cells is made possible by the reduced permeability of _______.

potassium

The repolarization of cardiac muscle is due to _______.

potassium exiting the cell

The total refractory period of cardiac muscle _______.

is longer than the total refractory period for skeletal muscle

Skeletal muscle is capable of which of the following?

wave summation and fused tetanus

Delivering single shocks in succession to stimulate the frog heart _______.

did not increase the height of the ventricular systole wave

The doublet that results with more frequent stimulation of the frog heart represents _______.

an extrasystole and an extra contraction of the ventricles

When the ventricles beat rapidly in succession, _______.

a compensatory pause followed

When multiple stimuli were applied at 20 stimuli/sec, _______.

extrasystoles were produced

The effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart is to _______.

increase the heart rate and increase the force of contraction

Which branch of the autonomic nervous system dominates after a large meal?

the parasympathetic branch

The sinoatrial node is located _______.

in the right atrial wall of the human heart

Excessive vagal stimulation of the heart will result in _______.

a decrease in heart rate and, eventually, a temporary cessation of the heartbeat

When vagus nerve stimulation was applied to the frog heart, _______.

the heart rate slowed and eventually stopped

What part of your tracing illustrates vagal escape?

the part where the heart resumed beating

Research shows that in the absence of neural and hormonal influences, the SA node generates action potentials at a frequency of about 100 times per minute. However, the resting heart rate is about 70 beats per minute. What would the approximate heart rate be if the vagus nerve were severed?

about 100 beats per minute

the SA node

Organisms that have temperature fluctuations that coincide with the external temperature and lack internal homeostatic temperature regulatory mechanisms are?

poikilothermic

Which part of the human body regulates temperature?

hypothalamus

Heat-releasing mechanisms include which of the following?

vasodilation and sweating

For the frog heart, temperature and heart rate are _______.

directly proportional

If the human heart were experiencing hyperthermia, what do you think would be the effect on the heart rate? (elevated body temperatures)

the heart rate would increase

what does ringers solution contain?

cations, anions and electrolytes

Which of the following affect heart rate through the use of a cAMP (second messenger) system?

epinephrine and norepinephrine
acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine
epinephrine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Which of the following decreases the rate of depolarization in the heart?

acetylcholine

The sinoatrial node has receptors for _______.

acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine

An adrenergic drug that worked in opposition to epinephrine would _______.

be an antagonist and decrease heart rate

Muscarine is a poison found in poisonous mushrooms. Muscarine binds to acetylcholine receptors and mimics its action. Which of the following describes the effect of muscarine?

Like pilocarpine, it decreases the heart rate.

Beta blockers are used to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). Which receptors do you think are being blocked?

muscarinic
nicotinic
alpha-adrenergic

beta-adrenergic

With respect to heart rate, which of the following worked in opposition to each other?

digitalis and atropine

With respect to heart rate, which of the following had the same effect?

digitalis and pilocarpine as well as atropine and epinephrine

When the cardiac muscle cell is at rest, the concentration of _____________ is greater on the outside of the cell.

sodium and calcium

Modifiers that affect the force of contraction of the heart are _______.

inotropic

The movement of _______________ into the cardiac muscle cell depolarizes the cardiac muscle cell.

sodium and calcium

Modifiers that affect heart rate are _______.

chronotropic

Which ion(s) at least initially lowered the frog heart rate in the activity you just performed?

potassium and sodium

What effect does potassium have on the resting membrane potential of the cardiac cell?

Increasing extracellular potassium causes the resting membrane potential to become more positive.

The cardiac cell plasma membrane is most permeable to _______________________.

potassium

Calcium channel blockers block the movement of calcium _______.

into the cell and decrease heart rate

A ___________________ drug increases the force of contraction of the heart.

positive inotropic