JKO Medical Readiness Healthcare Portal Training

Which of the culture mandates relates to applying standards in a systematic and uniformed manner?

consistency

Which term takes into account the mental and physical fitness of the soldier?

Deployable

Which of the following is true of the new DOD PHA?

1. It is completed online
2. It is available across all service branches
3. It includes mental health assessments

What has changed about MRC categories?

They have been streamlined

Which MRC category meets all individual medical readiness (IMR) requirements and has a dental readiness class (DRC) 1 OR 2?

MRC1

Which MRC category means that a soldier's status is unknown, the soldier is missing the periodic health assessment (PHA), or the soldier has a dental readiness (DRC) 4?

MRC4

Which portal allows personnel to update profile condition codes and view assigned task force items?

Administrative Portal

Which of the following statements about the Medical Readiness Assessment Tool (MRAT) are true?

It is an effective tool to help identify trends affecting a unit's health

Which form provides visibility into a soldier's current functional and assignment limitations?

DA form 3349

Which of the following are considered responsibilities shared by everyone?

1. Emphasize preventive measures
2. Maintain data integrity
3. Use designated tools
4. Follow established IMR elements

What is the best way to initiate the PMRT process?

Self directed

Why is the healthcare support staff important to the assessment decision?

They are information gate keepers

Which of the following should a commander do before deciding deployability?

1. Communicate with provider, if needed
2. Review profile

What are the two categories of roles in the Administrative Portal?

Reporting staff and post board staff

Which tab would you select to get a Profile Condition Roster?

Reports

When creating a new profile condition, which tool allows you to pre-populate most of the profile condition details with commonly used information

profile condition template

Which of the below is not a portion of the DOD PHA?

MAR2 capture

JKO JMESI - Conflict Management One: Principles

Which of the following tactics are used to break up stalemates?

TACTICS FOR OVERCOMING DEADLOCKS

What is the most important part of the negotiation process?

PREPARTION

What negotiation style often involves splitting the difference?

COMPROMISE

Which key variable in negotiation is often the result of past history of the parties in resolving conflicts?

LEVEL OF TRUST

Which consensus-testing method is used when words and body language suggest that the group has reached consensus?

MIRROR ON THE GROUP (POSITIVE SIGNS)

Which norm of fairness results in each party getting an allocation of resources that is proportional to their input?

EQUITY

What is the purpose of the devil's advocate during consensus-testing?

WARD OFF GROUP THINKING

What do the integrative bargaining and principled negotiation strategies have most in common?

SEEKING WAYS TO SATISFY MUTUAL INTEREST

Which of the following tactics for gathering information is used to get an initial reaction?

OPEN QUESTION

Which of the following is a step of the Integrative Bargaining Strategy?

SET PRIORITIES ON YOUR INTERESTS AND THOSE OF THE OTHER PARTY

Which of the following is a tactic used to overcome deadlocks?

CAUCUS

True or False: To avoid group think you should invite inside experts to observe and react to group processes.

FALSE

JKO OT REQUIRED READING: National Security Strategy (NSS)

what are "instruments of national power" (IOP)?

-refers to the tools a nation uses to influence other nations or international organizations or even non-state actors
-there are 4 different kinds

what are the 4 kinds of instruments of national power?

1) diplomatic
2) informational
3) military
4) economic
(acronym = DIME)

true/false: IOP's are NOT proprietary to the united states

true (this is because they work best when used together!)

diplomatic instruments of national power definition

-the principal instrument for engaging with other states and foreign groups to advance national values, interests and objectives
-to solicit foreign support for military operations
-principal means for organizing coalitions and alliances
-comes from the type and stability of the government, soundness of foreign policy, participation in political process and international commitments and alliances
-overall: advancing political interests

diplomatic instruments of national power examples

-embassies/ambassadors
-recognition
-negotiations
-treaties
-policies
-international forums

informational instruments of national power definition

-information and information operations
-infrastructure, networks, satellites, cables, devices
-extends to non-state actors like terrorists and transnational criminal groups who use information to further their causes
-the more literate a nation is, the more it should be able to use that informational power
-overall: no lead agency, propaganda to information storage, retrieval and transmission

informational instruments of national power examples

-military information
-public diplomacy
-public affairs
-communications resources
-international forums
-spokespersons, timing, media and venues for announcements

military instruments of national power definition

-coercive in nature, opposes external coercion
-application of force (and threat of force) to compel adversaries or to prevent from being compelled
-characterized by the size of its armed forces, readiness and sustainment capability
-overall: most visible, last resort, used everyday

military instruments of national power examples

-military operations
-engagement, security cooperation deterrence
-use of force
-military technology
-size and composition of force
-this is the most visible IOP

economic instruments of national power definition

-strong economy with free access to global markets and resources is fundamental to the general welfare of a strong national defense
-derived from population, natural resources and stability of the nation's monetary system
-works with other international financial institutions to encourage economic growth, raise standards of living and predict/prevent economic crises
-overall: no lead agency, based on market strength use of tariffs, sanctions, embargoes

economic instruments of national power examples

-trade policies
-fiscal and monetary policies
-embargoes
-tariffs
-assistance

it's important to remember that of the 4 instruments of national power, these instruments are ___ and work best when used ____

interrelated and work best when used together (they should rarely be used in isolation!)

the national military strategy is the means of supporting broader ____ objectives

broader national objectives

the national military strategy serves as "first step" guidance for the individual services support of the _____

national defense strategy (NDS)

WHO is ultimately responsible for producing the national security strategy (NSS) annually?

the president (POTUS)

WHO is ultimately responsible for the NDS and the NMS?

-NDS: secretary of defense (SecDEF)
-NMS: chairman of joint chiefs of staff (CJCS)

who can declare war?

congress

who advises the president on national security policy and its integration into the NSS?

national security council (NSC)

to accomplish the integration of the instruments of power, the direction from the president causes ____ and ___ to interact and develop a mutual understanding of the capabilities, limitations and consequences of military and civilian actions

to accomplish the integration of the instruments of power, the direction from the president causes departments and agencies to interact and develop a mutual understanding of the capabilities, limitations and consequences of military and civilian actions

what is the "grand strategy"?

-a grand strategy identifies overall national objectives and describes how instruments of national power should be used to accomplish those national objectives
-linked to the NSS

what drives the grand strategy?

the national objectives

what are "ends"?

the national objectives and explains what needs to be accomplished (NSS)

what are "ways"?

the strategic concepts and courses of action that explain how the ends are to be accomplished (NDS)

what are "means"?

the specific resources that are to be used in applying the concepts to accomplish the objectives (NMS)

therefore, national objectives are "___" and the 4 instruments of power are the "___"

therefore, national objectives are "ends" and the 4 instruments of power are the "means"

what does the national security strategy aim to do?

to restore respect for the united states abroad and renew american confidence at home; strategic confidence enables the US to protect its vital national interests

the NSS articulates and advances the president's concept of ____

principled realism

what are the pillars of the national security strategy?

1) protect the homeland
2) promote american prosperity
3) preserve peace through strength
4) advance american influence

pillar one: protect the homeland

-"our fundamental responsibility is to protect the american people, the homeland, and the american way of life"
-strengthen control of borders and reform immigration
-target threats at their source
-redouble efforts to protect critical infrastructure and digital networks
-deploying layered missile defense system to defend america against missile attacks
-uses the NDS and NMS

pillar two: promote american prosperity

-"a strong economy protects the american people, supports our way of life, and sustains american power"
-rejuvenate american economy
-no tolerance for chronic trade abuses, and will pursue free, fair and reciprocal economic relationships
-lead in research, technology, innovation
-ensure international markets remain open
-protecting the national security innovation base (NSIB)

pillar three: preserve peace through strength

-"an america strengthened, renewed, and rejuvenated will ensure peace and deter hostility"
-rebuild america's military
-use all tools of the statecraft in a new era of strategic competition (DIME) to protect our interests
-strengthen capabilities across domains
-our allies and partners protect our shared interests
-ensure balance of power remains in america's favor

pillar four: advance american influence

-"as a force for good throughout its history, america will use its influence to advance our interests and benefit humanity"
-continue to enhance our influence overseas, protect americans, promote prosperity
-diplomatic and developmental efforts will compete to achieve better outcomes in all arenas to protect our interests
-challenge competators
-seek partnerships with like minded states to promote free market economies
-influence the world as a positive force that helps set conditions for peace, prosperity and the development of successful societies

what IOP's are critical to pillar four?

diplomatic and informational IOP's

what are the three lines of effort/objectives of the national defense strategy (NDS) that support objectives of the NSS?

1) rebuilding military readiness
2) strengthening alliances
3) reforming DoD business practices

national military strategy (NMS)

-provides guidance for distributing and applying military power (military "means") to attain national strategic objectives
-deter, deny and defeat adversaries
-disrupt, degrade and defeat violent extremists
-strengthen our global network of allies and partners

what are the objectives of the current national military strategy (NMS)?

-the NMS is the military's contribution to national security
-the NMS is used to support the other IOP's (diplomatic, informational and economic)
-three broad objectives:
1) deter, deny & defeat state adversaries
2) disrupt, degrade & defeat violent extremist organizations
3) strengthen our global allies/partners

what are the three main threats to the NSS?

-revisionist powers
-rogue regimes
-terrorist organizations and transnational criminal operations

what three major documents help our nation shape the national strategic direction and formulate US military strategy?

1) 2017 NSS
2) 2018 NDS
3) 2015 NMS

national objectives are achieved, in part, by who?

AIRMEN

Who is the lead agency for Diplomacy IOP

State Department

Diplomatic Power is derived from...

type and stability of government, soundness of foreign policy, participation in political process

The effectiveness of the Diplomacy IOP is ...

Depends largely on military IOP

Informational IOP's Lead Agency is ...

NO LEAD AGENCY

Informational IOP includes...

Information, information operations, AND Infrastructure (networks and satellites)

Economic IOP's Lead Agency is

No Lead Agency

Economic IOP's Power is derived from

Population

Natural Resources

Stability of monetary system

IOPs work best...

When used together

Who has the ultimate responsibility for

National Security Policy

The National Security Strategy is produced by the who ....and is what?
(Ends, Ways, or Means)

Potus and Ends (What needs to Happen)

National Defense Strategy is produced by who ... and is what?
(Ends, Ways, or Means)

Security of Defense and Ways (How you are going to do it)

National Military Strategy is produced by who... and is what?
(Ends, Ways, or Means)

Joint Chief of Staff and Means (What resources and support is needed)

What are the pillars of the current National Security Strategy

Protect the homeland

Promote American Prosperity

Preserve Peace Through Strength

Advance
American Influence

What are the lines of effort of the current National Defense Strategy?

○ 1) Rebuilding military readiness; increase Joint Force lethality
○ 2) Strengthening alliance; attract new partners
○ 3) Reforming the Department's business practices; greater performance and affordability

What are the objectives of the current National Military Strategy?

1. Target State and Non-State Adversaries

2. Securing US territory and Global Alliances

3.Developing working partnership globably

JKO Counterinsurgency Course (COIN)

3) Unified action partners must continually analyze the results of the IDAD strategy through _________.

assessment

) Key topics to consider when educating counterinsurgents on cultural and situational understanding are:

Major wars, events, and key figures

The analytical framework used to describe the civil considerations is called _________.

ASCOPE

Use the appropriate ________ when exercising security, restraint, and law enforcement.

level of force

Opportunists tend to exploit vulnerable populations by:

kidnapping for ransom, revenge killings, and trafficking of humans

) Socio-cultural knowledge is one component of this tenet of COIN:

Understand the Operational Environment

Characteristics of cultural understanding includes _____________________.

Awareness of regional sensitivities

An insurgency needs three prerequisites in order to be successful in an area: ___________, ___________, and ____________.

vulnerable population, leadership element, and lack of government control

) A/An _________ is a place where the state or central government is unable or unwilling to extend control or effectively influence the population.

ungoverned area

) Insurgency is an internal threat that uses ______ and ______ to reach political ends.

subversion and violence

) __________ is intended to contain the spread of the insurgency. Diplomatic efforts should attempt to gain international support to politically restrain the insurgency.

Containment

The operational environment includes which of the following: ___________?

Physical Environment


Demographics


Nature and Stability

Internal defense and development are:

All measures undertaken by a nation to promote its growth and protect itself from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism and other threats to its security.

There are 11 __________ that facilitate understanding the threat and define the operational environment

critical variables

A/An _________ is a country that suffers from institutional weaknesses serious enough to threaten the stability of its central government.

fragile state

The context for US involvement in COIN is based on three possible strategic settings:

Assisting an established Host-Nation government; as an adjunct to U.S. major combat operations; or U.S. operations in an ungoverned area.

An effective COIN effort requires:

unified and cooperative actions from both civilian and military agencies and organizations

_________ involves the US government, led by the Department of State and implemented through the relevant COM and country team, working with one or more intergovernmental organizations.

Intergovernmental coordination

Prerequisites are categories wherein each category could have multiple root causes.

True

A COIN operation may be deemed successful when:

All of the answers are correct.

Most insurgencies pass through _________ common phases of development

three

Insurgencies are inherently _____ when compared to the state.

weak

Which U.S. Government department is responsible for implementing U.S. foreign policy and diplomacy efforts and plays a key role in integrating the capabilities of the U.S.? The Department of State is the lead federal agency and oversees U.S. government coordination and support to a host nation's internal defense and development/COIN efforts.

Dept. of State

Counterinsurgents must understand that the military instrument is __________.

only one part of a comprehensive approach through unified action for unity of effort

The need for security forces to act ______ is essential not only for humanitarian reasons but also because this reinforces government legitimacy while denying the adversary an exploitable issue.

legally

Some insurgencies use subversion and violence while using _________ for a more regional and global impact.

wrong

Insurgent ___________ are related to the scope and desired ends of the insurgency

strategic objectives

__________ is intended to contain the spread of the insurgency. Diplomatic efforts should attempt to gain international support to politically restrain the insurgency.

Containment

Most insurgencies pass through _________ common phases of development

three

Insurgent support from states can come in any combination of _________, informational, military, or economic efforts

diplomatic

An insurgency needs three prerequisites in order to be successful in an area: ___________, ___________, and ____________.

vulnerable population, leadership element, and lack of government control

Insurgent strategies seek to achieve their political aims by using _____, _____, _____, and ______.

will, time, space, and resistance

One important narrative of an insurgency is their __________.

promise of improvements to the existing system of governance

The ________ function is an enabler for the other functions and involves development of the affected nation's whole security sector, including the related legal framework, civilian oversight mechanisms, and the judicial system.

security

_________, ________, ________, and _______ are the four functional components of COIN.

Political, economic, security, and information

An effective COIN effort requires:

unified and cooperative actions from both civilian and military agencies and organizations

A/An _________ is a place where the state or central government is unable or unwilling to extend control or effectively influence the population.

ungoverned area

As with any multinational effort, ________ and ______ bind the entities conducting COIN on common goals and objectives, which is especially important between the host nation and the remainder of the multinational forces.

trust and agreement

Insurgent propaganda may portray their enemies to be ________ of the dominating religion in the area.

non-believers

A ______ is a series of direct and indirect ties from one actor to a collection of others.

network

The host nation and coalition partners must continually analyze the results of the IDAD strategy through _________.

assessment

The dual nature of COIN requires Joint Forces to both ____ and ____ simultaneously depending on the security of the situation and a variety of other factors.

fight and build

_________, _________, _________, and ______ are the four general categories that help define the breadth of an insurgency.

Local, local external support, local global support, and global

Private contractors may be subject to the laws of _____, US law, and international law.

the host nation

________ are among the most difficult for commanders conducting COIN. Examples of these include: aerial ports of debarkation; basing; border crossings; collecting and sharing information; protection (tasks related to preserving the force); jurisdiction over members of the US and multinational forces; overflight rights; and police operations.

Sovereignty issues

Insurgents try to maintain a tempo and intensity of activities that would permit ___________.

a level of effort they can sustain indefinitely

The __________ is that element of the insurgent organization that conducts operations in areas normally denied to the auxiliary and the guerrilla force.

underground

Counterinsurgents must strive to understand the insurgency's motivations, breadth of activity, and _________.

core grievances

A state's authority is dependent upon the successful amalgamation and interplay of four factors: __________, ________, _________, and _________.

mandate, manner, support and consent, and expectations

_________ insurgencies are committed to a radical end state. They often seek to first transform regions leading eventually to the world.

Global

A/An ________ is still viable, but it has a reduced capability and capacity to protect and govern the population.

failing state

Insurgency is an internal threat that uses ______ and ______ to reach political ends.

subversion and violence

A recovering state is moving towards normalcy. A key consideration for the joint force commander is whether the population considers the level of governance to be ________ and _______.

acceptable and viable

Long-term strategic success in COIN normally depends on _____________, and the population's consent to the governing rule.

host nation institution's ability to effectively govern

All of the following are insurgent strengths and vulnerabilities EXCEPT for _________.

their ability to flee to nearby countries

_________ exploit the three prerequisites of a successful insurgency.

Operational objectives

Insurgencies are inherently _____ when compared to the state.

weak

AAn _________ is a country that suffers from institutional weaknesses serious enough to threaten the stability of its central government.

fragile state

The ______ function seeks to provide essential services, thereby generating confidence in the government while reducing the pool of frustrated people from which insurgents can readily recruit.

economic

A/An ________ approach involves a few leaders and military cadre seizing control of government structures or exploiting a revolutionary situation.

conspirational

A ________ approach is waged by small, independent cells that require little or no popular support.

terrorism-focused

The need for security forces to act ______ is essential not only for humanitarian reasons but also because this reinforces government legitimacy while denying the adversary an exploitable issue.

legally

The eagerness of the international media to obtain inside, exclusive stories allow insurgents to control messages that support their _______ or _________.

narrative or core grievances

Insurgents taking a subversive approach either attempt to _________ or use an existing legitimate political party to subvert the government from within.

wrong

The political function is the key function providing a framework of political reconciliation and _________ around which all other COIN activities are organized.

reform of governance

JKO Strategic Planning Three: Population Health Improvement and Social Marketing

What is the foundation of health improvement?

All of the above

Which population health factor relates to new skills that individuals, communities, or organizations need before a behavior can be carried out?

Enabling factor

What is the most widely used method of qualitative research in community health assessments?

Focus groups

What determinant of health focuses on changes to behaviors such as substance abuse, diet, and physical activity?

Individual Behaviors

What determinant of health affects individual and population health at the local, state, and federal level?

Policy Making

Which measures the extent to which a program has caused the intended short-term changes in the target population?

Impact

What approach uses business techniques to influence a target audience to voluntarily accept, reject, modify, or abandon a health-related behavior?

Social marketing

Which factor is concerned with knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, or values that exist prior to engagement of health-related behaviors?

Predisposing factor

What type of evaluation measures the extent to which a program has caused the intended long-term changes in the target population?

Outcome evaluation

What is the first step in the Population Health Improvement Model?

Identify the population

What is the first step in social marketing?

Conduct a situation analysis

What report or model is commonly used in planning health promotion activities?

The Precede-Proceed Model

JKO Organizational Ethics

Of the following, what is the most important ethical duty of healthcare organizations and their leaders?

Upholding the rights of patients

What are the ethical guidelines that are established by professional societies usually called?

Codes of Ethics

What makes Mayo Clinic's value statement particularly effective?

The definition of each organizational value

When developing and communicating clear standards of conduct, the code should:

Provide illustrations and guidelines, particularly in "gray" areas

How should the joint commission (TJC) standards on organizational ethics be viewed?

As a minimum set of ethical responsibilities

True or false: standards and procedures to guide behavior is a structural component of an ethics program.

True

What statement sets an ethical tone and best represents the "soul" of the organization?

Values statement

True or false: "act with an entrepreneurial mindset" is one of the four basic principles of organizational ethics.

False

What defines the organizations basic philosophy, principles, and ideals?

Values or guiding principles statement

True or false: random evaluations of program effectiveness is a recommended structural component for an ethics program

False

What is the most important cultural/leadership component in an ethics program?

Refine management systems to support the ethics program

True or false: the stakeholder that would benefit from implementation of the principle "provide care with compassion" is the employee.

False

JKO Individual Behavior Two: Critical Thinking and Learning

Which knowledge management strategy is used to create situations that bring like-minded people together in a stimulating, knowledge-focused environment?

A: Cultivate knowledge champions

B: Introduce knowledge harvesting

C: Foster "social" opportunities

D: Establish communities of practice

C

Which of the following is an adult learning assumption?

A: Adults value learning that integrates with the demands of their everyday life

B: Adults value the mutual planning of relevant methods and curricular content

C: Adults value diagnosing their own needs to help trigger internal motivation

D: Adults value evaluating their learning so they can develop their skills of critical reflection

A

Which critical thinking attitude is described as holding your own evidence to the same standard of proof to which you hold others?

A: Intellectual perseverance

B: Intellectual integrity

C: Intellectual empathy

D: Intellectual humility

B

What critical thinking skill or approach involves generalization from specific experiences or observations?

Clarification
Inductive reasoning
Divergent thinking
Deductive reasoning

B

Which of the following disciplines fosters a stronger commitment for change and innovation?

A: Mental models

B: Team learning

C: Systems thinking

D: Shared vision

D

Which learning and teaching method would be most appropriate for observation and reflection?

Small-group discussion
On-the-job training
Laboratory exercise
Internship

A

According to Knowles's Learning Assumptions and Principles, adult learners:

A: Value learning that integrates with the demands of their everyday life

B: Want presenters to use lectures with little participant involvement

C: Are motivated by external drivers

D: Prefer constant direction

A

Which of the following is rapidly becoming a core strategy for promoting knowledge flow?

A: Process-action team

B: Action-learning team

C: Steering group

D: Communities of practice

D

Which critical thinking skill is used to analyze diverse opinions and judgments, remove irrelevant data, draw inferences about relevant data, and explore possibilities to obtain accurate conclusions?

A: Reasoning

B: Clarification

C: Reflection

D: Divergent thinking

D

Which of the following would best define critical thinking?

A: Making observations and quickly taking action

B: Intellectual courage

C: The use of reasoning

D: The art of thinking about your thinking

Not C

Which of the following is a critical thinking skill?

Intellectual humility
Divergent thinking
Intellectual empathy
Intellectual courage

B

Which of the following is an example of what to say when exploring the critical thinking of others?

A: What leads you to conclude that?

B: What do you think about what I just said?

C: Do you see any flaws in my reasoning?

D: Do you see it differently?

A

What is the sequence for Kolb's Model of Experiential and Action Learning?

A: Observation and reflection, formation of concepts, concrete experience, application of concepts

B: Concrete experience, observation and reflection, formation of concepts, application of concepts

C: Formation of concepts, concrete experience, application of concepts, observation and reflection

D: Concrete experience, observation and reflection, application of concepts, application of concept

B

JKO Individual Behavior

The leader balances competing priorities by:

A:Using process improvement teams

B: Conducting stress management seminars

C: Using consensus building techniques

D: Rewarding those who live up to standards and values

C

Which of the following statements is true?

A: The leadership characteristic of political astuteness includes that of being a servant leader

B: Mentorship should be used as a way of keeping closer tabs on an employee

C: In mentoring, both mentor and protege should define their goals in writing

D: The Leadership Practices Inventory identifies the behavioral preferences and dichotomy of thinking vs. feeling

C

Which of the following is a function of positional mentoring?

A: Coaching

B: Role modeling

C: Counseling

D: Confirmation

A

During which phase of the mentoring cycle would written ground rules for the mentoring relationship be established?

A: Choose a mentor

B: Set expectations

C: Define goals

D: Grow the relationship

B

Which of the disciplines for the learning organization fosters a stronger commitment for change and innovation?

A: Systems thinking

B: Team learning

C: Mental models

D: Personal mastery

B

Which of the following is a guideline for managers when considering the use of Process Motivation theories?

A: Rewards can be economic or non-economic

B: Commitment to goals is not relevant

C: Goals should be general/broad

D: Rewards should be contingent on goal achievement

D

Which caveat for mentorship addresses the need for the mentor to guide the thought process of the protege?

A: Using mentoring as a disciplinary tool

B: Picking the wrong person

C: Failing to respect the supervisory roles

D: Lecturing rather than listening

D

When considering the use of Content Motivation theories, a manager should:

A: Not elicit employee input

B: Ensure that incentives chosen are attractive to employees

C: Be concerned with both hygiene factors and motivators

D: Only be concerned with hygiene factors

C

Which of the five disciplines of the learning organization underlies all of the others?

A: Shared vision

B: Personal mastery

C: Systems thinking

D: Mental models

C

Which of the following organization-wide approaches to motivation specifically is done to satisfy the psychological needs of the employee with respect to their job?

A: Performance improvement teams

B: Job redesign

C: Employ empowerment processes

D: Autonomous work groups

B

Which of the following defines a transformational leader?

A: Daily direction

B: Advocating for staff and own department or service

C: Within the box thinking

D: Outside of the box thinking

D

Which section of the appreciative inquiry interview process is used to introduce the topic?

A: Peak experience question

B: Positive preface

C: Values question

D: Hopes for the future question

B

Which phase of the 5-D Model of Appreciative Inquiry engages in dialogue around high-point experiences?

A: Design

B: Delivery

C: Dream

D: Discovery

Not B

JKO Intracranial Pressure (ICP) Monitor Operator Course

You are reviewing the setup of the ICP EXPRESS Monitor and notice several situations. Which of the following situations would be considered a safety issue that needs to be addressed or remedied immediately?

A: Three prong using two prong adapter

B: wall outlet ground pin grounded

C: patient connections electrically isolated Type CF

D: Patient leakage current limited internally to 10uA

E: solvents and anesthetics located close by

F: monitor stacked on top of patient monitor

A: issue
B: No
C: No
D: No
E: issue
F: issue

To ensure the safety of your patient, your equipment, and yourself, which of the following precautions would you NOT adhere to?

A: Only allow qualified personnel to remove any panel from the monitor unit.

B: Use strict sterile technique when connecting the ICP EXPRESS Cable to the MicroSensor

C: Disconnect the monitor unit from all external AC power sources before charging fuses.

D: Ensure a two-prong adapter is used to ensure proper grounding to wall outlet.

D

When it comes to the operation of the ICP EXPRESS Monitor and associated equipment, which of the following statements is NOT true?

A: The ICP alarms will retain their reset LO and HI setting whenever the ICP EXPRESS Monitor power is turned off.

B: The MicroSensor must be zeroed at atmospheric pressure prior to implantation, and the transducer tip must remain wet during the zeroing process.

C: The rear panel sensitivity selection switch must e set in the appropriate position prior to connecting to the patient monitor.

D: Do not submerge the tip of the MircoSensor or ventricular catheter vertically in a cup of sterile water or saline during the zeroing process.

A

You just received your new ICP EXPRESS Monitor along with associated accessories and equipment for your patient monitoring system. What steps would you perform in sequence in order to properly set it up?

A: Power up the system

B: Zero the transducer

C: Adjust alarm settings

D: Zero and calibrate patient monitor

E: Connect transducer

F: Connect to patient monitor

A
F
D
E
B
C

You are about to attach and zero the ICP MicroSensor Transducer to the ICP EXPRESS Monitor. Once the transducer is attached, the zero reference value of the transducer is automatically stored for which device?

A: ICP EXPRESS Monitor

B: ICP EXPRESS Cable

C: ICP MicroSensor Transducer

D: Patient Monitor

B

You have unpacked the ICP EXPRESS Monitor and plugged the unit into an appropriate power supply. Place the steps below in the correct sequence to complete the setup procedure.

A: Turn on the ICP EXPRESS Monitor

B: Zero patient monitor with ICO EXORESS Monitor

C: Plug patient monitor interface cable into front of patient monitor

D: Set the sensitivity selection switch on rear panel to correct position (according to patient monitor sensitivity)

E: Plug patient monitor interface cable into rear panel of ICO EXPRESS Monitor

NOT
E
D
C
A
B

NOT
E
C
D
A
B

Once the patient monitor displays ___ mmHg, press the ___ key on the ICP EXPRESS Monitor to proceed. Following the ICP EXPRESS Monitor prompt to calibrate the patient monitor, start by pressing certain buttons depending on the patient monitor pressure display scale.

0 mmHG

MENU/ENTER

If the patient monitor pressure display is between 0 and 40mmHg, press the ___ button; if the pressure display is greater than 100mmHg, press the ___ button. Once the patient monitor calibration is complete, press the MENU/ENTER key to process.

A: ZERO
B: 0
C: 100
D: 20
E: MENU/ENTER

Not A & D

NOT B & D

With the patient monitor calibrated, the new ICP MicroSensor Transducer needs to be connected and zeroed. Below are seven steps that need to be done properly perform these functions. You already began by pressing the MENU/ENTER button the first time. Which the proper sequence for the remaining steps?

A: Plug cable into front panel of monitor (ICP EXPRESS)

B: Connect four pin end of the ICP EXPRESS Cable to connector on the ICP MicroSensor Transducer

C: Place catheter tip in well of sterile blister

D: After recording zero reference value, press the MENU/ENTER key to proceed

E: Pour sterile water or saline into well

F: Press the ZERO key on the ICP EXPRESS Monitor front panel

G: Record the displayed xero reference value on the MicroSensor connector housing

B
A
C
E
F
G
D

The ___ alarm will flash in reverse video approx. once per second when the mean ICP exceeds the HI or falls beneath the LO user programmable limits. An audible tone is cycled on and off once per second when the alarm condition is triggered.

HI and LO Mean ICP

Ensure you have the correct HI and LO ICP alarm settings values. The default setting for HI is ___ mmHg and for LO is ___ mmHg.

20

0

The ___ message will appear in reverse video at the bottom center portion of the screen hent he battery has less than approx. ___ minutes of life remaining.

BAT. LOW
15

JKO JMESI - Epidemiology One: Principles and Tools

The field of epidemiology contributes to the management of healthcare organizations in all of the following ways except:

Determining the extent of disease in the community so healthcare organization leaders can plan for services
Creating healthy communities through the use of health promotion and prevention
Providing a basis for developing policy and regulatory decisions
Evaluating existing and potential preventative and therapeutic methods of healthcare delivery

b

What probability measure suggests there is a real difference when comparing events?

Epidemiological evidence
Association
Statistical significance
Cause or causation

c

What term is used to describe the study of how disease is distributed in the population?

Observational research
Population research
Epidemiology
Determinants of Health model

c

Which of the following epidemiology principles results in or contributes to the occurrence of another?

Scientific evidence
Association
Causation
Statistical significance

c

What epidemiology principle does not involve any intervention or change imposed by the investigator?

Epidemiological evidence
Experimental study
Determinants of Health model
Observational study

d

What measure is used to find all the cases of a particular disease?

Incidence
Prevalence
Sensitivity
Specificity

c

What measure is key in the health surveillance of forces during deployment?

Prevalence rates of disease
Disease and Injury (D&I) rates
Relative risk
Sensitivity rate to illness

not c

Of the following terms, which one describes a relationship (usually a statistical correlation) between two or more events?

Statistical relation
Epidemiological evidence
Association
Causation

c

What measure compares the incidence of disease in the exposed population with that in the unexposed population for a specific factor or determinant of health?

Adjusted risk
Comparative risk
Absolute risk
Relative risk

not b

During a lecture, an epidemiologist refers to factors underlying the determinants of health and the interplay between them. Which of the following factors is considered a Determinant of Health?

Access to quality healthcare
Physical environment
Policy Making
Knowledge of the medical system

c

What measure looks at the number of new events during a given period of time?

Prevalence
Crude rate
Adjusted rate
Incidence

d

What are the two key measures of the occurrence of disease?

Sensitivity and specificity
Association and causation
Incidence and prevalence rates
Adjusted and crude rates

not b

What occupies the majority of epidemiological activities?

Epidemiological studies
Surveillance of disease
Ongoing risk assessments
Data reporting

b

Which of the following is a role of epidemiology in population health and in the management of healthcare organizations?

Preventing disease through study of the cause of the disease and its risk factors by eliminating or reducing exposure to those factors
Examining the determinants of health of all deployed troops
Establishing a health surveillance program for retired military personnel
Creating healthy communities through the use of health promotion and prevention

a

What measure is used remove the effect of a variable such as age and gender?

Exclusion rate
Specific rate
Crude rate
Adjusted rate

d

JKO JMESI - Ethical Decision Making

True or false: Utilitarianism is based on the premise that moral rightness (or wrongness) of a decision is whether it brings more good than other alternatives.

T

True or False: Natural rights pertain to moral obligations to the larger community.

F

True or False: Respect for autonomy is a norm that obliges us to respect the decisions (self determination) of adults who have decision making capacity.

T

What concept or approach focuses on factual investigation of current and actual moral conduct and beliefs?

A: Common morality
B: Professional morality
C: Non-normative ethics
D: Normative ethics

not b

What ethical philosophy/theory is based on the premise that there is an independent right or wrong, regardless of the consequences?

A: Utilitarianism
B: Natural Law
C: Deontology/Kantianism
D: Natural Rights

c

What ethical principle applies the moral obligation to act for the benefit of others?

A: Beneficence
B: Non-maleficence
C: Respect for autonomy
D: Justice

a

What principle obliges us to equitably distribute benefits, risks, costs, and resources?

A: Respect for autonomy
B: Beneficence
C: Justice
D: Non-maleficence

not A

Which one of the following is used to compare various alternatives against criteria (values or principles) in analyzing an ethical dilemma?

A: Decision matrix
B: Nash's 12 Questions
C: Hosmer's 10 Principles
D: Baylor's Seven-Step Model

a

Which one of the following should be used as a final check before implementation of a decision that is made to resolve an ethical dilemma?

A: Decision matrix
B: Hosmer's 10 Principles
C: Nash's 12 Questions
D: Baylor's Seven-Step Model

not c

Which step in ethical analysis involves determining the patients autonomy and ensuring the patient understands all information?

A: Developing and presenting options

B: Gathering facts of the case

C: Identifying all relevant decision makers

D: Deciding what ethical principles are the most relevant to the situation

D

Which step in moral reasoning involves providing compelling and sufficient moral reason that is consistent with an established moral principle?

A: Justifying
B: Analyzing
C: Choosing
D: Weighing

A

What concept refers to the set of universal norms that all ?morally serious persons share??

A: Normative ethics
B: Common morality
C: Natural law
D: Professional morality

B

What approach examines existing practices and particular cases, and then builds rules, principles, and theory?

A: Deontology
B: Deductive
C: Inductive
D: Rationalization

c

Which of the following is an effective tool to identify and weigh alternatives?

A: Baylor's Seven-Step Model

B: Alternative analysis

C: Risk assessment

D: Decision matrix

D

What sequence would be used in an inductive approach for ethical justification?

A: Rules-Principles-Judgments-Theories

B: Theories-Principles-Rules-Judgments

C: Principles-Theories-Rules-Judgments

D: Judgments-Rules-Principles-Theories

D

What sequence would be used in a deductive approach for ethical justification?

A: Rules-Principles-Judgments-Theories

B: Principles-Theories-Rules-Judgments

C: Judgments-Principles-Theories-Rules

D: Theories-Principles-Rules-Judgments

D

Which one of the following is a TRUE statement?

A: Utilitarianism is based on the premise that moral rightness of a decision is whether it brings more good than other alternatives

B: Respect for autonomy is a norm that obliges us to examine both risks and benefits for the individual

C: The principle of justice holds that there is an obligation not to inflict harm on others

D: Natural rights pertain to moral obligations to the larger community

A

What category of healthcare ethics would deal with the ethical dilemma of restricting healthcare services to the community?

A:Professional
B: Bioethical
C: Personal
D: Organizational

D

Which one of the following provides an overall framework to assist in resolving ethical dilemmas?

A: Nash's 12 Questions
B: Hosmer's 10 Principles
C: Baylor's Seven-Step Model
D: Decision matrix

c

JKO Military Mission Decision-based Module

Scenario #1: Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) Increases

You have scheduled a series of town-hall meetings with various community groups to make them aware of the BRAC increases.

Decision you need to make:
1. Given the above scenario, what info would you present first at the town hall meetings?

A: The missions of military health system

B: The missions of the military

C: The long term vision for Ft. Nicholson

D: DoD strategic guidance

B

Scenario #2: Mission Focus

You are now preparing to give an overview on the 10 missions of the military.

Decisions you need to make:
2. Given the above scenario and the fact that you have limited time to present, which mission would you focus on?

A: Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent

B: Provide a stabilizing presence

C: Counter weapons of mass destruction

D: Defend the homeland and provide support to civilian authorizes

D

Scenario #3: Specific Mission Focus

In your briefings to the community you also want to present a mission specific to the 937th.

Decisions you need to make:
3. Given the above scenario, which one of the following missions would you specifically cover in you talk?

A: Health service support (HSS)

B: Force health protection (FHP)

C: Organic and area medical treatment

D: Definitive medical care

c

Scenario #4: Questions from the Audience

At the end of your briefing, you are asked by one of the community leaders about how the DoD determines its priorities.

Decisions you need to make:
4. Given the above scenario, how would you respond?

A: State that priorities are primarily based on lessons learned from combatant commands

B: Explain the planning, programming and budgeting system (PPBS)

C: State the priorities are primarily determined by the national security objectives

D: State the priorities are primarily determined by the input from the services

c

Scenario #5: Priority for the Military Community

Your briefings to the Hillsboro community have been successful. Now you wish to turn to your own community- service members and their families at Ft. Nicholson.

Decisions you need to make:
5. Given the above scenario, what should you make as your highest priority?

A: Recreational programs

B: Quality of life for service members and their families

C: Environmental compliance and conservation

D: Family housing

B

Scenario #6: Program sustainment

You want efforts in the military to be sustained, particularly preserving and keeping faith with service members and their families.

Decisions you need to make:
6. Given the above scenario, what would you do?

A: Establish a community interest group in prevention and wellness

B: Continue to improve their safety, health, readiness and resilience

C: Follow-up quarterly with community groups on programs effectiveness

D: Appoint a project officer from the 937th

B

Scenario #7: Health Advocacy

You want to advocate for a healthy and fit force at Ft. Nicholson.

Decisions you need to make:
7. Given the above scenario, which one of the following is the most comprehensive approach with respect to ensuring a healthy and fit force?

A: Deployment health

B: Health surveillance

C: Health risk communication

D: Force health protection (FHP)

D

Scenario #8: Force Health Protection (FHP)

You want the 937th to have a major impact on meeting the mission of FHP.

Decisions you need to make:
8. Given the above scenario, where would you place emphasis?

A: medical treatment

B: Health surveillance

C: Preventative care

D: measurement system to collect and analyze health related data

C

Scenario #9: Planning- getting started

In your role as the Director of Planning and training at the 937th, you need to revitalize the planning process to ensure that the 937th focuses on the right areas and effectively plans for contingencies and training exercises.

Decisions you need to make:
9. Given the above scenario, which planning element would you start with first?

A: Strategies
b: goals
C: objectives
D: missions

D

Scenario #10: Guidance

You now have clarity on your missions. Thus, you need to tune missions into specific actions for operational success.

Decisions you need to make:
10. Given the above scenario, what would serve as your primary guide?

A: Defense planning guidance

B: Guiding principles

c: Proven tactics

D: Doctrine

D

JKO Medical Staff Bylaws

Credentialing is required for which two categories of medical personnel?

A: Healthcare provider
B: Front office staff
C: Clinical support staff
D: Janitorial staff

A & C

If a healthcare practitioner has no history of adverse action, their documentation files are retained for how many years after they leave the DoD?

A: 1 year
B: 5 years
C: 10 years
D: Indefinitely

C

True or False: Convictions under the Uniform Code of Military Justice are reportable to the National Practitioner Protection Data Bank.

T

Which Clinical Review Function is responsible for recommending and reviewing the drug formulary?

A: Blood and blood components review

B: Pharmacy and therapeutics monitoring

C: Surgical case review

D: Medication (drug use)

B

Which Medical Staff Committee is responsible for establishing a mechanism to review credentials and grant clinical privileges?

A: Provider Health Ad Hoc Committee

B: Risk Management and Patient Safety Committee

C: Credentials Committee

D: Executive Committee of the Medical Staff

not A

In the last month, the nursing staff, neonatologists, and quality director have been concerned about obstetrician-gynecologist Dr. Haynes' competence in performing C-sections and vaginal deliveries (specifically, there have been high complication rates and an excessive use of instrumentation). As CO of the healthcare organization , you conducted a formal investigation, found the allegations to be true, and suspended Dr. Haynes' OB privileges (but not his GYN privileges) pending the results of a hearing panel. After the appeal, Dr. Haynes' clinical privileges were changed to require that he practice OB care "under supervision". Of the below, which level of supervision would be most appropriate?

A: Verbal
B: Physically present
C: Available "in house"
D: Indirect

B

Which committee or review function evaluates clinical pertinence?

A: Credentials Committee

B: Medical record review

C: Discharge planning

D: Quality Assurance or Patient Safety Committee

B

Which review function is responsible for evaluating criteria for and adequacy of caring for patients whose diagnosis, problems, or psychosomatic circumstances require discharge planning?

A: Medication (drug use)

B: Utilization management and clinical practice patterns

C: Pharmacy and therapeutics monitoring

D: Medical record review

B

What is the process whereby a healthcare provider is granted permission to independently provide specified medical or dental care?

A: Credentialing
B: Privileging
C: Delineating
D: Appointing

B

What committee or structure reviews reports from medical staff committees and medical departments?

A: Hospital Executive Committee

B: Risk Management Committee

C: Executive Committee of the Medical Staff

D: Quality Assurance Committee

b

Which special type of privilege is defined as clinical privileges that are given to practitioners assigned to a healthcare organization for a short period of time?

A: Courtesy privileges
B: Temporary privileges
C: Disaster privileges
D: Consultant privileges

not B

Where is the documentation maintained for the credentials for healthcare providers in the Department of Defense?

A: Individual Professional File

B: Military Personnel File

C: Individual Credentials File

D: None of the above

C

Dr. Haynes has been assigned to your healthcare organization (MHS Community Hospital) as an obstetrician-gynecologist. In the last month, the nursing staff, neonatologists, and quality director have been concerned about Dr. Haynes' competence in performing C-sections and vaginal deliveries (specifically, high rates of complications and an excessive use of instrumentation; high rates of C-sections compared with the national average). Given these concerns, what action would be most appropriate?

A: Revocation of privileges
B: Abeyance of privileges
C: Reduction of privileges
D: Suspension of privileges

B

You have conducted a formal investigation that included a number of clinical reviews of medical records, surgical cases, etc. You found that what was described about Dr. Haynes was in fact true. You make the initial decision to summarily suspend Dr. Haynes's privileges to conduct any type of OB care. However, he retains privileges to see GYN patients. Given that you have suspended part of his privileges, what action is now most appropriate?

A: Formally report this action to your higher headquarters per DoD 6025.13

B: Provide written notification to Dr. Haynes of his right to appeal

C: Notify National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB) of the reduction of privileges

D: Set up a hearing panel

not B

Which of the following is an example of privileges under indirect supervision?

A: Supervision that consists of a retrospective review of selected records, where the criteria of review relates to quality of care, quality of documentation, and authorized scope of practice

B: Supervision whereby the supervisor is present physically through all or a portion of care

C: Supervision where the supervisor is contacted by phone or informal consultation before implementing or changing a regimen of care

D: Supervision where the supervisor is involved in the decision-making process with the patient

A

How many days after the hearing panel is the peer review report due?

A: 14 days
B: 15 days
C: 10 days
D: 28 days

A

Which Medical Staff Committee oversees the policies and procedures for collecting data on and dealing with sentinel events and other adverse events (e.g., falls, needle sticks, medical errors, etc.)?

A: Executive Committee of the Medical Staff

B: Provider Health Ad Hoc Committee

C: Risk Management and Patient Safety Committee

D: Credentials Committee

C

JKO Medical Liability

Claimants Mr. and Mrs. Brown filed suit against Dr. Smith for allegedly negligently injuring their son, Brian, during his birth at a US hospital in Italy. The suit proceeded under the FTCA and was dismissed. Why?

A: Dr. Smith was performing an activity that was not included under his scope of employment.

B: The FTCA does not cover individuals for criminal activity, such as assault and battery.

C: The FTCA does not apply in cases where the injury was sustained abroad.

D: All of the above

C

A general physician was sued for negligence bc he failed to administer a pregnancy test to a 14 year old girl, presenting with symptoms of dizziness, nausea, and a missed menstrual periods. In this case, whose expert testimony can establish the standard of care?

A: General physician
B: Obstetrician
C: Internist
D: All of the above

D

While conducting exercises in the Mediterranean aboard the USS American Eagle, a Marine accidentally shot an Ensign in the foot. This incident involved non-combatant activities and was caused by naval personnel acting within the scope of their employment. Which act would apply to the circumstances of this case?

A: Military Claims Act
B: Feres Doctrine
C: Gonzalez Act
D: None of the above

B

Before making a claim under the Federal Tort Claims Act, the claimant must have exhausted all available administrative remedies. How many months does the agency have to take action once the claim has been presented?

A: Twelve months
B: One month
C: Six months
D: Three months

not D

Dr. Jones has recently been named in a malpractice suit. He consults with hospital lawyers and is upset by the false claims of negligence. The patient claims that Dr. Jones, a family physician, performed an inappropriate surgical procedure (e.g., excision of a mole on the patient's back) that resulted in significant pain and scarring, when he should have given a referral to a general and/or plastic surgeon. Of the following, which factor is relevant in establishing the standard of care in this case?

A: The Reasonable Physician
B: Locality Rule
C: Justifiable Circumstances
D: The School Rule

A

True or False: Duty to exercise reasonable care is one of the elements required to show legal proof of medical negligence.

T

True or False: It isn't necessary for an expert witnesses brought into a negligence case to be practicing in the same specialty or even following the same school of medicine, as long as he or she can demonstrate familiarity with the standard of care.

T

True or False: The "get even" or revenge factor is a strong, underlying theme in many negligence suits.

T

The comparison of care provided by healthcare practitioners in the same general line of practice is known as the:

A: Locality rule

B: National standards rule

C: School rule

D: Reasonable physician rule

not B

A 21-year-old woman was 34 weeks pregnant and diagnosed with placenta previa. This condition usually requires a C-section as the placenta is overlying the cervix. Dr. Smith has followed the patient. The patient calls the clinic, stating that she thinks she is having contractions and that she would like to talk to Dr. Smith or another doctor. The nurse at the clinic tells her that a doctor is not available but that she should drink some water and that a doctor will call her back. After six hours (and no call-back from the clinic), the patient comes into the hospital and is nearly fully dilated. Dr. Jones delivers the baby vaginally, however the patient has a massive hemorrhage and goes into shock. The doctor attempts to treat the woman who is now in great danger. The patient does not respond and the code team is finally called. Despite the code team's best effort, the patient dies. The baby survives but has a number of complications. A few weeks later, the patient's family files a malpractice claim. Of the below, what basic problem underlies this case?

A: Lack of adequate informed consent of the risk of different treatment options or possibilities

B: Decentralized and fragmented health system

C: Lack of an environment and culture of patient safety

D: Absence of a good monitoring system for high-risk patients

B

A 60-year-old gentleman is brought into the emergency room with complaints of abdominal distension and discomfort. He looks quite ill and is unable to provide a history due to increasing drowsiness. The nurse caring for him at the nursing home informs the ER physician, Dr. Ross, that the patient has not urinated in the last four days. Dr. Ross initially orders a foley catheter and some blood work. The patient is admitted for acute renal failure and is taken up to the ward. A few days later, the patient suffers a myocardial infarction and sadly, passes away. Of the following, what should be the first thing that Dr. Ross should do after the adverse outcome?

A: Disclose outcome to spouse/next of kin

B: File an incident report

C: Inform the risk management office

D: Call the JAG office

not D

How or by whom is the standard of care determined?

A: How other practitioners would have managed care under similar circumstances

B: By the Joint Commission

C: By each professional society

D: By the Quality Assurance Committee

not B

When communicating with the patient after a procedure is performed, a healthcare provider should:

A: Inform the patient about the likelihood of achieving goals

B: Discuss the reasonable alternatives

C: Provide information that is objective, factual, and complete

D: Address possible results of not receiving care, treatment, and services

not A
not D

What is one of the greatest sources of medical errors?

A: Inexperienced staff

B: Lack of staff

C: Decentralized and fragmented healthcare system

D: Lack of a team approach

C

A patient discovered that a surgical needle had been left in her abdomen during a procedure that took place 25 years earlier. What are the patient's options for receiving compensation for this negligent act?

A: She cannot seek damages because the needle did not cause any injury or treatment complication for 25 years

B: She can sue for damages because the statute of limitations continues until the claimant has all the information necessary to discover the injury and its probable cause

C: She cannot sue for damages because the surgeon who performed the procedure 25 years ago is no longer working at the same hospital

D: She cannot seek damages because the statute of limitations on this case expired two years after the procedure

B

Medical records are easily obtained by the claimant's attorney and are usually among the first pieces of evidence used to determine negligence. Which of the following elements do lawyers consider when evaluating the merits of a case based on corrections made to the record?

A: Authenticated entries
B: Completeness of record
C: Organization of record
D: Credibility of record

C

A general physician was sued for negligence because he failed to administer a pregnancy test to a 14-year-old girl, presenting with symptoms of dizziness, nausea, and missed menstrual periods. In this case, whose expert testimony is not needed to establish the standard of care?

Internist
Healthcare organization Commander
General physician
Obstetrician

B

Which of the following is a true statement?

A: The Westfall Act delineates laws and regulations that address medical liability in the military

B: The Feres doctrine states that military personnel cannot sue the federal government for injury or death resulting from military service

C: The Federal Tort Claims Act applies only to military personnel

D: The Military Claims Act allows for claims against the military or its civilian employees who operate outside of the scope of employment

B

While conducting live-fire exercises at Fort Swampee, Sergeant Snow was accidentally shot in the foot. This incident involved non-combatant activities and was caused by Army personnel acting within the scope of their employment. Which act would apply to the circumstances of this case?

A: Medical Claims Act (MCA)

B: Federal Tort Claims Act Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA)

C: Feres Doctrine

D: Gonzalez (Medical Malpractice Immunity Act)

C

A highly effective tool for managing patient expectations is:

A: Expert testimony
B: Informed consent
C: Communication
D: Risk management

B

Physicians who fail to meet the standard of reasonable care have committed a:

A: Breach of duty
B: Malfeasance
C: Misfeasance
D: Nonfeasance

not B

Mr. Patterson consults with a medical malpractice lawyer following an injury suffered while undergoing a biopsy procedure. He wants to know whether he has a "winning case" against his physician for negligence. The lawyer informs him that to be successful in a negligence case, it must include proof of four key elements: Breach of duty, causation, damages and:

A: Standard of care
B: Malfeasance
C: Negligence per se
D: Duty to exercise reasonable care

D

A young malpractice lawyer is taking on her first negligence case. To be successful, she needs to prove the standard of care and demonstrate that the physician's conduct failed to meet the standard. She reviews the details of the case and begins to strategize legal ways to prove negligence, which include:

A: Justifiable circumstances
B: Malicious intent
C: Lack of duty of care rule
D: Res ipsa loquitur ("the thing speaks for itself")

C

JKO National Disaster Medical System Two: Planning and Applications

What agency or office coordinates the overall response should the National Disaster Medical System be needed in the event of a domestic disaster?

A: Department of the Army (DA)

B: Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)

C: Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

D: Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA))

B

What is one of the key responsibilities of the Director of Planning and Training during a CBRNE event?

A: Maintaining operational control of all medical personnel and equipment for the duration of the emergency

B: Establishing a Logistics Operations Center or internal operating cell to centralize all logistical requirements and direct logistical operations

C: Acting as a point of contact for coordination with higher headquarters and other external agencies

D: Ensuring that a requisite number of medical officers receive training in CBRNE casualties

c

In the Defense Support of Civil Authorities Program, what entity or mechanism is most critical in responding to a major civilian emergency and disaster?

A: The healthcare organization's Emergency Operations Center

B: The Federal Coordinating Center

C: The Special Medical Augmentation Response Teams

D: The medical treatment facility's Logistics Division

c

After treating contaminated patients, decontamination of the emergency treatment area will be done as quickly as possible under the direction of:

A: Preventive Medicine

B: Special Medical Augmentation Response Teams

C: Occupational Safety and Health Administration

D: Environmental Safety Office

A

True or False: When planning for a CBRNE event, the MTF's Director of Administration is responsible for establishing and operating the MTF's Emergency Operations Center.

F

True or False: When planning for a CBRNE event, medical support will continue unless a post-wide evacuation is ordered.

T

In the National Disaster Medical System (NDMS), what role is common to MTFs not designated as a Federal Coordinating Center?

A: Develop Memorandum(s) of Understanding with civilian hospitals participating in NDMS

B: Provide education and information to participating hospitals

C: Assume the more common role of supporting the NDMS with patient care services

D: Represent the federal government in dealing with the civilian medical community, and local and state authorities

c

What should be the first step in developing an Emergency Management Plan for your healthcare organization?

A: Review the adequacy of current Memorandum(s) of Understanding with local and state agencies, and community organizations

B: Obtain estimates of the healthcare organization's and surrounding community hospital's resuscitative surgical and critical-care capabilities

C: Examine how other healthcare organizations have planned for and responded to domestic emergencies, disasters, and chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive incidents

D: Identify, categorize and set priorities for potential threats within your supported region

D

Who is the principal approval authority for requests for assistance from civil authorities?

A: Undersecretary of Defense for Policy

B: Assistant Secretary of Defense for Homeland Defense and Global Security

C: Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

D: Secretaries of the Military Departments

B

What guideline should be incorporated into Emergency Medical Plan (EMP) semi-annual readiness exercises?

A: Involve a mass casualty response of sufficient size to require the activation of the EMP recall system

B: Involve a local training accident

C: Involve only the healthcare organization

D: Involve only remote and austere locations

A

True or False: When planning for a CBRNE event, the MTF's Director of Clinical Services is responsible for ensuring that a requisite number of clinicians receive training in the management of CBRNE casualties.

T

True or False: Joint Commission standard EM.01.01.01 requires MTFs to develop and maintain an EMP.

F

JKO National Disaster Medical System One: Overview

What plan, program, or system provides a comprehensive all-hazards approach to managing domestic incidents?

A: National Disaster Medical System

B: Defense Support to Civil Authorities program

C: Federal Response Plan

D: National Response Framework

D

The NDMS organizational element that determines overall policy and program guidance for the NDMS is the:

A: Federal Coordinating Center Coordination
Working Group

B: Senior Policy Group

C: Directorate Staff

D: Operations Center

B

When supporting the DSCA program, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is responsible for:

A: Serve as the Defense Domestic Crisis Manager

B: Establishing the necessary policies and procedures to ensure the appropriate personnel are trained to execute DSCA plans

C: Establishing DoD policy governing DSCA

D: Identifying available resources for support in response to DSCA requests, and release related orders when approved

D

What organizational element is responsible for day-to-day coordination of planning and operations in NDMS patient reception areas?

A: Emergency Support Functions

B: Federal Coordinating Centers

C: NDMS Operations Support Center

D: Disaster Medical Assistance Teams

B

Who is the principle approval authority for the activation of the DSCA program?

A: The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

B: The HHS Office of Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response (ASPR)

C: The Department of the Army

D: The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Homeland Defense and Global Security (ASD(HD&GS))

D

What plan, program, or system provides medical support when state and local resources are overwhelmed as a result of a disaster?

A: National Response Framework

B: Defense Support to Civil Authorities

C: National Disaster Medical System

D: Federal Response Plan

B

What agency or office would activate the National Disaster Medical System (NDMS) in the event of a catastrophic disaster within the U.S.?

A: Department of Homeland Security

B: Army Surgeon General's Office

C: Department of Health and Human Services

D: The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs

not D

True or False: The primary mechanism for the provision of federal assistance under the NRF is through 15 ESFs.

T

A group of professional and para-professional medical personnel (supported by a cadre of logistical and administrative staff) designed to provide medical care during a disaster or other event are referred to as:

A: Disaster Medical Assistance Teams

B: Public Health Preparedness Teams

C: Disaster Coordination Teams

D: Definitive Medical Care Teams

A

True or False: The National Response Framework (NRF) allows first responders, decision makers, and supporting entities to provide a unified national response.

T

Who is responsible for coordinating DSCA policy with other Federal departments and agencies, State agencies, and the DoD Components?

A: Assistant Secretary of Defense for Homeland Defense and Global Security (ASD(HD&GS))

B: Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USD(P))

C: Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

D: Secretaries of the Military Departments

B

Which agency is the primary lead agency for ESF #8 (Public Health and Medical Services) of the NRF?

A: HHS
B: DHS
C: FEMA
D: DoD

A

True or False: DSCA is initiated by a request for DoD assistance from a civilian agency or is ordered by the President or Secretary of Defense.

T

JKO Medical Readiness Training Two: Joint Training

1) What is the first phase of the Joint Training System process?

requirements phase

True or False: The Joint Training System (JTS) consists of a four-phase process.

T

Which of the following is a key aspect of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs Officer Professional Military Education Policy?

Professional military education, both Service and joint, is the critical element in officer development

5) Which is one of the seven educational standards common to all professional military education?

Assess program effectiveness

Which level of learning typically has objectives that collect, explain, formulate, relate, and summarize?

Synthesis

Which learning achievement level is defined as applying knowledge to actual situations?

Application

What is the last phase of the Joint Training System (JTS) process?

Assessment phase

Which is the first level in the hierarchy of learning achievement levels?

Knowledge

Which type of training includes basic, technical, operational, and interoperability training?

Service

Which is one of the four learning areas for senior enlisted personnel (E6 to E7) serving in, or slated to serve in, joint and combined organizations?

Foundations of joint operations

6) Which is one of the five learning areas for officers at the O4 level?

Joint doctrine and concepts

Which is one of the six basic tenets of the Joint Training System (JTS)?

JKO Medical Readiness Training

True or False: Conducting a debriefing with all players involved is a guideline for medical readiness exercises.

T

Which of the following is most critical to the success of a medical readiness training program?

Leadership

True or False: Direct caregivers should be given the highest priority for training and receipt of protective equipment, vaccinations, prophylactic antibiotics, chemical antidotes, and other protective measures.

T

What plan, program, or system outlines or provides medical support by the military when state and local resources are overwhelmed as a result of a disaster?

Defense Support of Civil Authorities

A critical component of the DSCA program is the:

...

The standards of which organizations should be included in the healthcare organization's Emergency Management Plan (EMP)?

The Joint Commission (TJC)

Which of the following is deployed upon activation of the Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA) Program?

Special Medical Augmentation Response Teams (SMARTs)

Which of the following is an element of a written medical readiness training program?

Assessment of skills/competencies

It is recommended that healthcare organization view disaster preparedness as:

An ongoing, continuous cycle

How frequently should the healthcare organization test its Emergency Management Plan (EMP)?

Semi-annually

True or False: Establishing general goals is a guideline for medical readiness exercises or drills.

F

What is the ability of the healthcare organization to quickly expand to meet an increased demand for medical care?

Surge capacity

1) Which medical readiness program or agency uses civilian medical facilities to augment care by the DoD medical system?

National Disaster Medical System (NDMS)

JKO Lean Six Sigma and Balanced Scorecards

Statistically, what does Six Sigma refer to?

Process mapping

What Six Sigma tool visualizes how things get done?

Process mapping

In what range do experts estimate for the amount of waste in organizations?

30-60%

The balanced scorecard should be closely aligned with which one of the following?

Organizational strategy

What is the first step in the Six Sigma process

Define the problem

What type of Six Sigma belt often manages their own departments?

Green belt

What is the foundation or basis of the balanced scorecard?

Strategy

What is a lean management principle and the foundation for continuous improvement?

Standardize whenever possible

What tool is best for examining results over time?

Flow chart <<< Wrong answer

Process map <<< Wrong Answer

Which approach is best for eliminating defects?

Six Sigma

What is the first step in the development of a balanced scorecard?

Develop an executable business strategy

The average length of patient stay would most likely be under which type of indicator in a balanced scorecard?

Financial

What management strategy focuses on the driving out of waste?

Lean management/thinking

In a lean 5S process to organize workspace, which step is done last?

Shine/scrub <<< Wrong Answer

Which of the following statements is false?

The primary purpose of Six Sigma is to reduce waste

What Six Sigma tool visualizes how things get done?

Process mapping

In what range do experts estimate for the amount of waste in organizations?

30-60%

The balanced scorecard should assist those who are affected by and are responsible for implementing which one of the following?

Organizational strategy

What is the first step in the Six Sigma process?

Define the problem

What type of Six Sigma belt often manages their own departments?

Green belt

What is condition necessary to ensure a lean culture?

Cross-functional cooperation to work together on problems

Which approach is best for eliminating defects?

Six Sigma

What management strategy focuses on driving out waste?

Lean management/thinking

What is the first step in the development of a balanced scorecard?

Develop an executable business strategy

The average length of patient stay would most likely be under which type of indicator in a balanced scorecard?

Financial

Which six sigma tool is based on the principle that 20 percent of the sources cause 80 percent of the problem?

Standardized tasks

Which of the following is a lean management principle and the foundation for continuous improvement?

What tool is best for examining results over time?

Control chart

JKO Leadership: Resilience, Wellness, and Cooperation

a guideline used to facilitate resilience.

True

Which of the following is a responsibility of leaders as it pertains to resilience?

Have zero tolerance for harassment and discrimination with respect to seeking behavioral health services

True or False: Those suffering from a stress-related disorder sometimes suffer from both harassment and discrimination.

True

True or False: Leaders are responsible for establishing an open, trusting environment where individuals feel free to seek help and discuss issues with their leaders and behavioral health professionals.

True

Which one of the following is true about stress?

Seventy-five percent of employees believed that workers have more on-the-job stress than a generation ago

Which stress reduction technique reduces stress and allows you to have more time to do what is needed?

Time management

True or False: Poor work performance is a possible consequence of untreated post-traumatic stress disorder?

True

Which method to improve coordination is used to arrange for and coordinate patient care among providers?

Case management