Counterintelligence and Insider Threat Awareness and Reporting Training

October 19, 2022 Dwayne Morise

MODULE 1
Q1: An insider threat may not realize that they are causing harm to national security.
A: a. True

MODULE 2
Q1: Foreign adversaries target U.S. personnel in order to:
A: d. All of the above
Q2: What types of information do foreign intelligence entities (FIE) want?
A: d. All of the above
Q3: Violent employees just “snap” without warning or clues.
A: b. False

MODULE 3
Q1: Adversaries often exploit personnel’s lack of OPSEC through social networking, elicitation, and eavesdropping.
A: a. True
Q2: Your behaviors can make you a target.
A: a. True.
Q3: How can you protect yourself online and mitigate what is available to the adversary?
A: a. Actively manage privacy settings and privacy policies
Q4: Foreign Intelligence Entities (FIEs) can get information from you by:
A: d. All of the above

MODULE 4
Q1: Not everyone is a viable target. The adversary evaluates prospective targets based on placement, access, and exploitable behaviors and characteristics.
A: a. True

MODULE 5
Q1: You can identify a potential insider threat by paying attention to a person’s behavior and verbal cues.
A: a. True
Q2: Many individuals who exhibited violent behavior or participated in espionage had experienced a key stressor within a few months of the act.
A: a. True

Army PRT

October 17, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What are the Check Points of the Rear Lunge?

- Maintain straightness of the back by keeping the abdominal muscles tight throughout the motion.
- After the foot touches down, allow the body to continue to lower. This promotes flexibility of the hip
and trunk.
- On counts 1 and 3, step straight to the rear, keeping the feet directed forward. When viewed from the front, the feet maintain their distance apart both at the starting position and at the end of counts 1 and 3.
- Keep the rear leg as straight as possible but not locked and the rear heel off the ground.

Precautions: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence. On counts 1 and 3, move into position in a slow, controlled manner. If the cadence is too fast, it will be difficult to go through a full range of motion.

High Jumper - PD 3

What are the check points for the Rear Lunge?

- At the starting position, the shoulders, the knees, and the balls of the feet should form a straight
vertical line.
- On count 1, the arms are parallel to the ground.
- On count 3, the arms should be extended fully overhead. The trunk and legs should also be aligned.
- The Soldier is jumping on each count. On counts 1, 2, and 4, the jumps are only 4-6 inches off the
ground. On count 3, the Soldier jumps higher (6-10 inches) while maintaining the posture pictured in
Figure 8-3.
- On each landing, the feet should be directed forward and maintained at shoulder distance apart. - The landing should be "soft" and proceed from the balls of the feet to the heels. The vertical line from the shoulders through the knees to the balls of the feet should be demonstrated on each landing.

The Rower - PD 4

What are the check points for the Rower?

- At the starting position, the low back must not be arched excessively off the ground. To prevent this,
tighten the abdominal muscles to tilt the pelvis and low back toward the ground.
- At the end of counts 1 and 3, the feet are flat and pulled near the buttocks. The legs stay together
throughout the exercise and the arms are parallel to the ground.

Precautions: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence. Do not arch the back to assume counts 1 and 3.

The Squat Bender - PD 5

What are the Check Points for the Squat Bender

- At the end of count 1, the shoulders, knees, and the balls of the feet should be aligned. The heels
remain on the ground and the back is straight.
- On count 3, bend forward, keeping the head aligned with the spine and the knees slightly bent.
Attempt to keep the back flat and parallel to the ground.

Precaution: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence. Allowing the knees to go beyond the toes on count 1 increases stress to the knees.

The Windmill - PD 6

What are the checkpoints for the Windmill?

- From the starting position, feet are straight ahead, arms parallel to the ground, hips set, and
abdominals tight.
- On counts 1 and 3, ensure that both knees bend during the rotation. Head and eyes are directed to the rear on counts 1 and 3.

Precaution: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence.

The Forward Lunge - PD 7

What are the check points for the Forward Lunge?

- Keep the abdominal muscles tight throughout the motion.
- On counts 1 and 3, step straight forward, keeping the feet directed forward. When viewed from the
front, the feet maintain their distance apart both at the starting position and at the end of counts 1
and 3.
- On counts 1 and 3, the rear knee bends, but does not touch the ground. The heel of the rear foot
should be off the ground.

Precautions: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence. On counts 1 and 3, move into position in a controlled manner. Spring off of the forward leg to return to the starting position. This avoids jerking the trunk to create momentum.

The Prone Row - PD 8

What are the check points for the prone row?

- At the starting position, the abdominal muscles are tight and the head is aligned with the spine.
- On counts 1 and 3, the forearms are parallel to the ground and slightly higher than the trunk.
- On counts 1 and 3, the head is raised to look forward but not skyward.
- Throughout the exercise, the legs and toes remain in contact with the ground.

Precautions: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence. Prevent overarching of the back by
maintaining contractions of the abdominal and buttocks muscles throughout the exercise.

The Bent Leg Body Twist - PD 9

What are the check point on the Bent Leg Body Twist?

- Tighten the abdominal muscles in the starting position and maintain this contraction throughout the
exercise.
- The head should be off the ground with the chin slightly tucked.
- Ensure that the hips and knees maintain 90-degree angles.
- Keep the feet and knees together throughout the exercise.
- Attempt to rotate the legs to about 8 to 10 inches off the ground. The opposite shoulder must remain
in contact with the ground.

Precautions: This exercise is always performed at a slow cadence. Do not rotate the legs to a point beyond which the opposite arm and shoulder can no longer maintain contact with the ground.

The Push-Up - PD 10

What are the check points for the Push-Up?

- The hands are directly below the shoulders with fingers spread (middle fingers point straight ahead).
- On counts 1 and 3, the upper arms stay close to the trunk, elbows pointing rearward.
- On counts 2 and 4, the elbows straighten but do not lock.
- To prevent the trunk from sagging, tighten the abdominal muscles while in the starting position and
maintain this contraction throughout the exercise.
Precaution: N/A

Overhead Arm Pull - RD 1

What are the commands for Overhead Arm Pull?

- Starting Position: Straddle stance with hands on hips.
- Position 1: On the command, "Ready, STRETCH," raise the left arm overhead and place the left hand behind the head. Grasp above the left elbow with the right hand and pull to the right, leaning the body to the right. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position.
- Position 2: On the command "Change Position, Ready, STRETCH," raise the right arm overhead and place the right hand behind the head. Grasp above the right elbow with the left hand and pull to the left, leaning the body to the left. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command "Starting Position, MOVE," return to the starting position.

What are the commands for the Rear Lunge - RD 2

- Starting Position: Straddle stance, hands on hips.
- Position 1: On the command "Ready, STRETCH," take an exaggerated step backward with the left leg,
touching down with the ball of the foot. This is the same position as count 1 of the rear lunge in the PD. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position.
- Position 2: On the command "Change Position, Ready, STRETCH," take an exaggerated step backward with the right leg, touching down with the ball of the foot. This is the same position as count 3 of the rear lunge in the PD. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command "Starting Position, MOVE," return to the starting position.

The Rear Lunge - RD 2

What are the commands for the Extend and Flex?

- Starting Position: The front leaning rest position.
- Position 1: On the command "Ready, STRETCH," lower the body, sagging in the middle, keeping the arms straight and look upward. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position.
- Position 2: On the command "Change Position, Ready, STRETCH," slightly bend the knees and raise the hips upward. Straighten the legs and try to touch the ground with the heels. Move the head in line with the arms, forming an "A" with the body. Keep the feet together and hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command "Starting Position, MOVE," return to the starting position.

The Extend and Flex - RD 3

What are the commands for the Thigh Stretch?

- Starting Position: Seated position, arms at sides and palms on the floor.
- Position 1: On the command "Ready, STRETCH," roll onto the right side and place the right forearm on the ground, perpendicular to the chest. The right hand makes a fist on the ground with the thumb side up. Grasp the left ankle with the left hand and pull the left heel toward the buttocks and pull the entire leg rearward. Push the left thigh further to the rear with the heel of the right foot. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command, "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position.
- Position 2: On the command "Change Position, Ready, STRETCH," lie on the left side and place the left forearm on the ground, perpendicular to the chest. The left hand makes a fist on the ground with the thumb side up. Grasp the right ankle with the right hand and pull the right heel toward the buttocks pulling the entire leg rearward. Push the right thigh further to the rear with the heel of the left foot. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command, "Starting Position, MOVE," return to the starting position.

The Thigh Stretch - RD 4

What are the commands for the Single Leg Over?

- Starting Position: Supine position with arms sideward, palms down, and feet together and head on the ground.
- Position 1: On the command, "Ready, STRETCH," turn the body to the right, bend the left knee to 90-degrees over the right leg, and grasp the outside of the left knee with the right hand and pull toward the right. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command, "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position.
- Position 2: On the command, "Change Position, Ready, STRETCH," turn the body to the left, bend the right knee to 90-degrees over the left leg, and grasp the outside of the right knee with the left hand and pull toward the left. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds.
- Starting Position: On the command, "Starting Position, MOVE," return to the starting position.

The Single Leg Over - RD 5

What exercises constitute the Preparation Drill?

1. Bend and Reach (Slow)
2. Rear Lunge (Slow)
3. High Jumper (Moderate)
4. Rower (Slow)
5. Squat Bender (Slow)
6. Windmill (Slow)
7. Forward Lunge (Slow)
8. Prone Row (Slow)
9. Bent Leg Body Twist (Slow)
10. Four Count Push-Up (Moderate)

What exercises constitute Four For The Core?

1. Bent-Leg Raise
2. Side Bridge
3. Back Bridge
4. Quadraplex

What exercises constitute the Shoulder Stability Drill?

1. I Raise (Slow)
2. T Raise (Slow)
3. Y Raise (Slow)
4. L Raise (Slow)
5. W Raise (Slow)

What exercises constitute the Hip Stability Drill?

1. Lateral Leg Raise (Slow)
2. Medial Leg Raise (Slow)
3. Bent-Leg Lateral Raise (Slow)
4. Single-Leg Tuck (Slow)
5. Single-Leg Over (Slow)

What exercises constitute Military Movement Drill I?

1. Verticals
2. Laterals
3. Shuttle-Sprint

What are the commands for Exercises 1 and 3 (bent leg raise and back bridge)?

- Starting Position, MOVE.
- Ready, EXERCISE.
- Starting Position, MOVE.
- Position of Attention, MOVE.

Bent Leg Raise - 4C 1

What are the commands for Exercises 2 and 4 (side bridge and quadraplex)? Both performed on the right and left sides.

- Starting Position, MOVE.
- Ready, EXERCISE.
- Starting Position, MOVE.
- Change Position, Ready EXERCISE.
- Starting Position, MOVE.
- Position of Attention, MOVE.

Side Bridge - 4C 2

Back Bridge - 4C 3

Quadraplex - 4C 4

What are the commands for the Lateral Leg Raise?

- Starting Position, MOVE.
- In Cadence, EXERCISE (count as a 4-count exercise according to Chapter 7, Execution of Training, paragraph 7-29).
- Change Position, MOVE.
- In Cadence, EXERCISE (count as a 4-count exercise according to Chapter 7, Execution of Training, paragraph 7-29).
- Position of Attention, MOVE.

Lateral Leg Raise - HSD 1

What are the commands for the Medial Leg Raise?

Medial Leg Raise - HSD 2

What are the commands for the Bent Leg Lateral Raise?

Bent Leg Lateral Raise - HSD 3

What are the commands for the Single Leg Tuck?

- Starting Position, MOVE.
- In Cadence, EXERCISE(count as a 4-count exercise according to Chapter 7, Execution of Training, paragraph 7-29) .
- Change Position, MOVE.
- In Cadence, EXERCISE (count as a 4-count exercise according to Chapter 7, Execution of Training, paragraph 7-29).
- Position of Attention, MOVE.

Single-Leg Tuck - HSD 4

What are the commands for the Single-Leg Over?

On the command, "Ready, STRETCH," turn the body to right, bend the left knee to 90 degrees over the right leg, grasp the outside of the left knee with the right hand, and pull toward the right. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds. On the command, "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position. On the command, "Change
Position, Ready, STRETCH," turn the body to left, bend the right knee to 90-degrees over the left leg and grasp the outside of the right knee with the left hand and pull toward the left. Hold this position for 20-30 seconds. On the command, "Starting Position, MOVE," assume the starting position.

Single-Leg Over: HSD 5

I Raise: SSD 1

T Raise: SSD 2

Y Raise: SSD 3

L Raise: SSD 4

W Raise: SSD 5

Shuttle Sprint: MMD1 Exercise 3

Run quickly to the 25-yard mark (as arrow 1 in the following exercise illustration shows). Turn
clockwise while planting the left foot and bending and squatting to touch the ground with the left hand. Run quickly back to the starting line (arrow 2) and plant the right foot, then turn counterclockwise and touch the ground with the right hand. Run back to the 25-yard mark (arrow 3) accelerating to near maximum speed.

Verticals: MMD 1 Exercise 1

Laterals: MMD 1 Exercise 2

What is Military Movement Drill 1?

This drill is conducted using the extended
rectangular formation (covered) and performed by rank. Military movement drill 1 consists of exercises
performed at 25-yard intervals: verticals, laterals, and the shuttle sprint.

What are the commands for MMD?

- Instructor Sounds Off with name of exercise
- First Rank repeats name of exercise
- On the command, "Ready," the first rank moves into the starting position.
- On the command, "GO," the first rank begins the movement.
- "Next Rank, MOVE FORWARD."

ADP 1 Army

October 17, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What ADP/ADRP covers The Army?

ADP/ADRP 1.

In which domains do U.S. forces operate?

Air, land, maritime, space, and cyberspace domains.

As a unique military profession, the Army is built upon an ethos of trust. What are four other essential characteristics of our profession?

Military expertise, honorable service, esprit de corps, and stewardship

What are the 11 Primary Missions of the U.S. Armed Forces?

• Counter terrorism and irregular warfare.
• Deter and defeat aggression.
• Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges.
• Counter weapons of mass destruction.
• Operate effectively in cyberspace.
• Operate effectively in space.
• Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent.
• Defend the homeland and provide support to civil authorities.
• Provide a stabilizing presence.
• Conduct stability and counterinsurgency operations.
• Conduct humanitarian, disaster relief, and other operations

What is the most important determinant of combat power?

Leadership.

What is the US Army's greatest strategic asset; providing depth, versatility, and unmatched experience to the joint force?

The all-volunteer force

Title 10, USC, establishes the basic structure of the Army. What Forces make up the Army?

One Regular Army and two Reserve Components: the Regular Army, the Army Reserve, and the
Army National Guard of the United States. Army Civilians support all three components.

What is the function of the Operating Force?

Operating forces consist of units organized, trained, and equipped to deploy and fight.

What is the function of the Generating Force?

The generating force mans, trains, equips, deploys, and ensures the readiness of all Army forces.

What five sets of characteristics will enhance the Army's operational adaptability?

• Depth and Versatility.
• Adaptive and Innovative.
• Flexibility and Agility.
• Integrated and Synchronized.
• Lethal and Discriminate

ACQ 202 Intermediate Systems Acquisition

October 11, 2022 Dwayne Morise

There are four basic techniques used by the DoD for creating cost estimates: Analogy, Parametric, and Actual Costs are three techniques.

Engineering

Which appropriation category would fund the design of new equipment, material, or software?

Research, Development, Test and Evaluation

What's the primary purpose of an Analysis of Alternatives (AoA)?

Provide decision-making aid in selecting a cost-effective material alternative

When comparing alternative concepts to provide needed warfighting capabilities, which of the following must be met?

Thresholds

Estimating potential demand for a capability and developing a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate of future sales are characteristics of which International Acquisition & Exportability (IA&E) Assessment area?

International Markets

Both the Army and Marine Corps have a capability need to procure additional helicopters beyond the number specified in the current contract; the helicopter program is currently in production. What cost estimating technique would the services most likely use as a basis requesting the funding to pay for the additional aircraft?

Actual Cost

The largest amount of software life cycle cost comes during the design development

False

An AOA is a study of the _________

Potential Acquisition Strategies for the alternatives WRONG

Which of the following guidance documents requires DoD Components to incorporate interoperability and defense exportability aspects into Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System requirements documents to ensure they are addressed in initial planning and design?

DFARS

Which of the following are characteristics of ICPs

Shared cost, Shared risks and benefits, and Government-to-Government

To obtain guidance and (if required) approvals on the level and type of protection required, the DoD Component International Program Organization and Program Management Offices (PMOs) must engage:

TSFD technology area ("pipe") owners/authorities

In certain situations, there may be a U.S. Government requirements to restrict specific portions of a weapon system sale to FMS only while permitting other portions to be acquired DCS

True

As a general rule of thumb _______ of the total ownership costs of a system occur late in the life cycle, due to costs associated with operations and support.

70-80%

What element of IA&E assess the risks of transferring controlled technology and information that provide U.S. warfighters a combat advantage as well as the benefits of international participation?

Sales and Transfers WRONG

For FMS non-program of record acquisition programs, the FMS customer nation is responsible for developing, awarding, and executing the contract in accordance with their own contracting policies and procedures.

False

____refers to the cost of procuring prime mission equipment.

Flyaway cost

The ____ and the _____ along with the Funding Plan should be established early on in the JCTD to ensure that preparations are developed to facilitate movement of the JCTD into the acquisition process.

Management Plan and Transition Plan

What document is developed for DoD acquisition programs with substantial international involvement, as a companion to the Acquisition Strategy, to ensure effective integration of domestic and international acquisition efforts throughout the program's life cycle?

IBP

The best time to reduce life cycle costs is ____ in the life cycle process. ____ can be applied throughout the life cycle to achieve an affordable and effective system.

Early/Affordability and Should cost

Which of the following IA&E activities addressed in the "International Considerations" sections of the Acquisition Strategy could influence the program's overall acquisition strategy?

A software-costing model that bases cost estimates up statistical data such as source lines of code is an example of a ____ costing model.

Top-down, Delphi WRONG

Based on the information from the ICD, an AoA inlcudes:

Functional areas, Range of military OPs, and Key attributes as defined by Measure of Effectiveness

An International Agreement is established between the U.S. and a partner nation to develop a new defense capability. What are the benefits that typically result from establishing a successful ICP?

Enhanced, Enhanced, Lower

What is a characteristic of a JCTD?

Demonstrates technology in a field environment

Which of the following IA&E areas described in the International Considerations section of a program's Acquisition Strategy could have a significant long-term impact on overall program affordability?

Establishing a domestic, Coordination with partner, and International partner

FMS, BPC, DCS and ACSAs are Security Cooperation equipment and financing activities under what element of International Acquisition & Exportability?

Sales and Transfers

During which part of the IA&E Assessment does the Program Management Office and Integrated Product Team identify the TSFD technology areas ("pipes") that are relevant to the program's future international acquisition activities?

Program Protection Considerations

The Navy is in the early stages of developing the next generation attack submarine with state...

Analogy WRONG

Affordability and Should Cost means

Performance and schedule tradeoffs will be made to achieve cost objectives

The final approval authority for system-related National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) documentation is the:

Component Acquisition Executive (CAE).

Who would certify the interoperability performance of a command and control system used by both the Army and Navy?

Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC).

Barriers to the successful implementation of Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) include the following (Select all that apply):

1. Need for significant cultural change.

2. Contractor uses IPPD / DoD does not

3. Poorly run meetings or reviews.

The Navy awards a cost-plus award fee (CPAF) contract for $265 million to design and develop electronic components for a communications system within 18 months. What reports, if any, would the contractor normally need to provide to the Program Management Office regarding their cost, schedule, and technical performance?

The contractor would submit a Contract Performance Report (CPR) formats 1 through 5 and an Integrated Master Schedule (IMS).

Which of the following are "Best Practices" that may be appropriate for software intensive programs? (Select all that apply)

Use metrics to manage and monitor risk.

Which of the following exceptions to the full funding policy would allow the Government to budget for buying three years worth of engines under one contract in order to save money?

Multiyear Procurement.

Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC) has primary responsibility for Developmental T&E functions throughout DoD.

False.

Transitioning to Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) will involve application of certain key tenets, such as customer focus, concurrent development, and:

Event-driven scheduling.

Which one of the following T&E products is required at Milestone C?

Approved TEMP

If a contractor chooses to use their own quality system, they must demonstrate compliance with the established military standard through formal third party certification. .

False.

A _______ is an aggregation of program elements that reflects a macro-level force mission or support mission of DOD.

Major Program (MP).

Which of the following is recognized as a barrier to the successful implementation of Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD)?

Lack of commitment from top management

In fixed-price contracts:

The government can terminate the contract for default if the contractor is late or his product does not meet specifications.

Which one of the following is a duty of the Director, Operational Test, and Evaluation (DOT&E)?

Reviewing and analyzing the results of operational test and evaluation (OT&E) conducted for each major DoD acquisition program.

The Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) links together, and must be consistent with, which of the following related program documents (Select all that apply)?

1. Systems Threat Assessment (STA)

2. Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)

3. Acquisition Program Baseline (APB).

Critical Intelligence Parameters (CIPs) are those key performance thresholds of foreign threat systems, which, if exceeded, could compromise the mission effectiveness of the U.S. system in
development. Adversary military doctrine, tactics, strategy, and ______________ of systems should be considered in CIPs.

Expected employment.

The first key step of the Product Support Strategy Process Model includes which of the following?

Understanding Warfighter requirements in terms of performance.

If the program is on the DOT&E Oversight List, which one of the following test and evaluation (T&E) products is required before the Full Rate Production Decision Review?

DOT&E report on initial operational test and evaluation.

Each of the following issues impact test planning and execution activities except one. Select the one that is NOT a test planning/execution issue.

Limited test reports

The National Environment Policy Act (NEPA) can affect defense acquisition program managers because:

NEPA requires environmental impacts to be considered in the decision making process for acquisition programs.

In which phase of the life cycle does the Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP) focus on development of sustainment metrics to influence design, the product support strategy, and on actions that can be taken prior to the next milestone to reduce future operating and support costs?

TMRR Phase.

In which phase of the life cycle does the Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP) focus on developing the execution plan for the design, acquisition, fielding, and competition of sustainment activities to deliver the Product Support Package?

EMD Phase

The four common risk mitigation strategies are:

Avoiding, Mitigating, Transferring, and Accepting

What do operational testers evaluate to determine the degree to which a system is usable in its intended environment, e.g., reliable, supportable, maintainable, and transportable?

Measures of Suitability (MOS).

The Joint Staff has oversight for certifying interoperability capability requirements for the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps are valid.

True.

One of the primary disadvantages of international cooperative development includes

Increased documentation.

As part of the Program Protection Plan (PPP), cybersecurity is a critical priority for DoD. Effective cybersecurity in DoD acquisition programs encompasses all of the necessary actions taken to ensure the _________________ of a system's information to enable warfighting operations.

Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability (CIA).

Which of the following is a key tenet of Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD)?

Multidisciplinary teamwork.

By implementing Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD), gains realized by the early integration of business, contracting, manufacturing, testing, training, and support considerations in the design process can result in ___________________.

fewer costly changes made later in the process.

The risk management process has five activities:

Planning, Identification, Analysis, Handling, and Monitoring.

How does a program management office show the sequence and interrelationship of all the business and technical activities required to accomplish the acquisition?

Acquisition Strategy - Program Structure Chart.

to minimize current and future funding risks program management offices use __________ to project and track obligations and expenditures

spending plans

The Earned Value Management (EVM) ___________ reveals how much it will cost to complete the program based on current program status.

Not BCWP

An over-target baseline (OTB) is a comprehensive rebaselining effort that is best categorized as an internal replanning effort.

FALSE

Which of the following test items are determined by the Program Management Office that is developing the system?

CTPs

Your program is liable for payment on goods and services received under a contract.

NOT commitment

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the requirements and objectives associated with an integrated baseline review (IBR) ?

The primary objective of an IBR is to evaluate the contractor's EVM system.

The service Developmental Test and Evaluation (DT&E) agency is responsible for the establishment of critical Operational Issues (COIs)

FALSE

Which of the following is FALSE?

Exit criteria are not specific to a particular phase of an acquisition program.

________ is required for all major munitions and missile programs to determine whether the system can reliably destroy its target.

Lethality testing

Select a primary weapon system function tested during Live Fire and Evaluation

Not accuracy

If you have not been obligating your funds according to your obligation plan, you may become a prime candidate for losing your funds to other programs through ____________

NOT misappropriation act

Modeling and Simulation can replace authentic testing and evaluation

FALSE

The specific information required for each milestone review can be found in _________

DoD instruction 5000.02

The following data is received from your contractor:
budgeted cost of work performed = 200
cost of performed index = 0.8
budgeted cost of work scheduled = 300
schedule performance index = 0.66
actual cost of work = 250
budget at completion = 800
contractors latest revised estimate = 900
equation fo restimate at completion low = ACWP+ ((BAC-BCWP)/(CPI)) equation for EAC high = ACWP+ ((BAC-BCWP)/CPI*SPI))

Which of the following represents the most reasonable EAC range for these data based on Earned Value Management?

EAC low: 1000
EAC high: 1386

What is your assessment about a program wit a Cost Performance Index of 0.65?

The project is more than expected and may need additional funds

What would operational testers use to determine whether a system meets operational performance parameters?

Measures of Effectiveness

As individual hardware and software components are aggregated to form subsystems or systems, ________ is used assess their compatibility

Integration Testing

To minimize current and future funding risks, Program Management Offices use _____________ to project and track obligations and expenditures.

Spending Plans

the following data is received from your contractor on a key component of the project: budgeted cost of work performed = 300
bcws = 200
acwp = 500
Which of the following Earned Value management metrics can be determined from these data?

CV = -200 SV = 100

A configuration management program should focus on ensuring designs are traceable to capability needs, developmental changes are controlled and documented, interfaces are well-defined and understood, and _______________________________.

All product documentation is consistent with its supporting information.

Which technical review is held during the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase to ascertain progress in defining system technical requirements?

System Requirements Review (SRR)

Program cost increases and schedules slips are most likely caused by __________________, changes to the design, and changes to the production processes.

Changes to user capability needs.

What group is used to help control the configuration of external interfaces for a system?

Interface Control Working Group

Your new-start program was approved this year's Authorization Bill and you are currently operating under Continuing Resolution Authority. To avoid losing a top engineering from your program, you authorial the Contractor to begin work since you expect the Appointment Bill to be signed next week. You are now in conflict with the _____.

Anti-Deficiency Act

Cost, schedule, and performance parameters are interrelated and a change in one parameters can affect the others. Therefore it is important to involve all the key stakeholders when considering changes to Acquisition Program Baseline (APB).

True

The Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC) verifies ________________ through the field assessment of systems during exercises and contingencies, and provides certificates of _____________ upon validation.

Interoperability performance/ interoperability.

Which of the following configuration baselines provides the details from which a contractor can transition from design to production of a system?

Product Baseline

In the interest of independent reporting, Developmental Test and Evaluation (DT&E) and Operational Test and Evaluation (OT&E) activities may NOT be integrated.

False

Changes are typical in acquisition programs; therefore, it is important to develop a sound configuration management strategy, place the Government in control of each element of the baselines, and design enough flexibility into the system to handle enhancements.

False.

The _____________ includes details of processes, procedures, and materials used in fabrication and is usually controlled by the contractor.

Product Baseline.

A new capability need has surfaced to modify an existing U.S. command and control system so that it can exchange information with a system operated by a European ally. Which of the following software best practices must be followed in order to successfully make this modification?

Define and control interfaces

When using the cause-and-effect (Fishbone) diagram to resolve an acquisition problem, after you draw the fishbone diagram, the next step is to ____________________.

Define the problem

Correct identification of the underlying root cause is the desired outcome of the ________________ approach to problem solving.

Cause-oriented

The approved detail design resulting from the __________ serves as a basis for making the decision to begin production.

Critical Design Review

The below-threshold maximum amount of Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds that can be moved into a program element is _________.

$10 Million

Using pre-production systems, and Operational Assessment can reduce program risk by

Providing operational effectiveness and suitability data.

When a commercial item is procured by the Government, what will the contractor provide to the Government that documents the functional, performance, and physical characteristics of their product and will assist in the development of configuration management efforts?

Technical Data Package (TDP).

A program deviation occurs if the PM thinks his/her program will not meet the threshold value established for a performance parameter in the Acquisition Program Baseline.

True

A Government official who obligates the Government on a contract without having sufficient funds to cover that expense has violated the _______________.

Anti-Deficiency Act

The Army can transfer excess funds from a Procurement appropriation to a Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) appropriation to cover a funding shortfall of $3 million without prior approval of Congress.

False

Select the best statement about the use of Technical Reviews in the current acquisition environment.

Technical Reviews should be tailored to assess development maturity and risk and to determine readiness to proceed to the next phase.

What are some of the planning challenges that must be considered when taking commercial items and modifying them for military use (Select all that apply)?

1. Maintain technical data
2. Integration
3. Long-term logistics support

An Operational Assessment will provide operational effectiveness and suitability data.

True

A program manager should normally look for opportunities to integrate developmental testing (DT) and operational testing (OT) in order to save time and money.

False.

The Program Manager just received approval of his proposed acquisition strategy with one exception: he has been directed to make maximum use of existing Air Force software. Which of the best software acquisition practices is most applicable to his situation?

Assess reuse risks and cost

A program deviation (informally known as a "breach") from the Acquisition Program Baseline (APB) occurs when the Program Manager (PM) has reason to believe that the current estimate of a performance, schedule, or cost parameter is not within the threshold value for that parameter. When a deviation occurs, the PM will notify the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) ________________ that a program deviation has occurred.

Immediately

Instability of user capability needs, design, and production processes are most likely to cause

Cost increases and schedule slips

Which technical review is held during the Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase to assess the final design after the "build to" baseline has been achieved?

Critical Design Review (CDR)

The focus of the ___________________ program is to ensure that designs are traceable to capability needs; to control and document all developmental changes; to ensure that all interfaces are well defined and understood by all parties, particularly where multiple engineering teams or vendors are involved; and to ensure that all product documentation is consistent with its supporting information.

Configuration Management

As part of the overall systems engineering effort, both the Government and the Contractor conduct configuration management activities, and either can take the lead for a particular configuration item. The contractor is usually responsible for design and control of ___________________, while the Government is responsible for _______________.

Internal interfaces / external interfaces

Your new-start program was approved in this year's Authorization Bill and you are currently operating under Continuing Resolution Authority. To avoid losing a top engineer from your program, you authorize the Contractor to begin work since you expect the Appropriation Bill to be signed next week. You are now in conflict with the __________.

Anti-Deficiency Act

False

Which of the following is used by the contractor to define boundaries between the subsystems and components within a system?

Interface management

One of the many potential issues associated with the configuration management of commercial items, is the ongoing requirement to track:

The numerous product releases over the life cycle of the program

Using pre-production systems, an Operational Assessment can reduce program risk by _____________________.

Providing operational effectiveness and suitability data

An Acquisition Program Baseline (APB) is used to document the cost, schedule, and performance thresholds and objectives of a program beginning at program initiation. The APB is a formal agreement signed by the ____________ /___________.

Program Manager / Milestone Decision Authority

Effective ________________ is multi-faceted and includes managing the impact of changes on system operation, interoperability, long-term maintenance, and the technical data package (TDP).

Configuration Management

Which technical review is required for a successful Milestone B prior to the Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase and occurs when all major design issues have been resolved in the system preliminary design and work can begin on detailed design?

Preliminary Design Review (PDR)

Who usually controls the "build to" or product baseline in an acquisition program?

Contractor

Problem-solving models typically involve identifying all possible causes, and then narrowing down the critical causal factors to uncover the root cause.

True

Which of the following configuration baselines is used to define design requirements for each of the components or configuration items of a system?

Product Baseline X

Where would the initial Functional Baseline be reviewed to ensure that it covers all the Government's capability needs?

Critical Design Review X

Changes in user capability needs are most likely to cause _____________________.

Cost increases and schedule slips

The final outcome of using the cause-and-effect (Fishbone) diagram is to identify the problem statement.

True

When filling in the cause-and-effect (Fishbone) diagram, the _____________ are identified and entered as the fish bones and the __________ is (are) entered as the fish head.

Causes, problem statement.

False

Match each System Product Lifecycle element to the appropriate software configuration management baseline.

System Product Baseline

The management of internal interface design would usually be the responsibility of the _____________?

Contractor

Which of the following configuration baselines is used to define the overall system level capabilities of a system?

Functional Baseline

Instability of user capability needs, design, and production processes are most likely to cause _________________.

Cost increases and schedule slips

When filling in the cause-and-effect (Fishbone) diagram, the _____________ are identified and entered as the fish bones and the __________ is(are) entered as the fish head.

Causes, problem statement

The primary system interoperability issue is the complete, accurate, and timely transfer of information from one system to another. In order to validate the interoperability of systems, extensive testing is required.

True

When a program deviation occurs, the Program Manager should notify the Milestone Decision Authority within 90 days of the occurrence.

False

Which technical review is held during the Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase to assess the final design after the "build to" baseline has been achieved?

Critical Design Review (CDR)

An Early Operational Assessment is typically conducted to _____________________.

Identify potential operational effectiveness and suitability issues during system development

Within _____ days after a program deviation occurs, the Program Manager must inform the Milestone Decision Authority of the action(s) necessary to get the program back on track.

When using a cause-oriented approach to resolve acquisition problems, it is important to ____________________.

Identify all possible causes

he Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC) addresses the interoperability mission via two types of certification testing: ___________________ and _______________________.

Standards conformance testing / interoperability testing

Your Program received Procurement Funding for 10 tanks; you bought 9 tanks and built a maintenance facility. Now you've been brought up on charges for violating the ______________.

Misappropriation Act

The Navy can transfer $11 million Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds from one program element to another without prior approval of Congress.

False

A new joint command and control system is being developed to meet the strategic information needs of all the military services. The Air Force is the lead service, but the Army and Navy have different points of view about what functions the system should perform. Which one of the software acquisition best practices would be most relevant in managing this issue as the program office undertakes system development?

Manage and trace requirements

Immediately

Who usually controls the "build to" or product baseline in an acquisition program?

Contractor

When using the cause-and-effect (Fishbone) diagram to resolve an acquisition problem, after drawing out a blank fishbone diagram, the next step is to ____________________.

Define the problem

What developmental test would you conduct to see how an item would perform under tropical conditions of heat and moisture?

Environmental Testing

An operational test agency is responsible for the establishment of Critical Operational Issues (COIs).

True

Ultimately, the use of open systems design is expected to result in lower life cycle costs

True

An engineer is designing a new system to transport hazardous material across rough terrain......

Virtual prototyping

Which is NOT TRUE about Systems Engineering?

it ensures the lowest possible production cost and shortest program schedule

three critical factors in achieving maximum operational availability (Ao) are:

Reliability, maintainability and supportability

During the Developmental Test (DT) effort, the purpose of verification is to determine

Whether or not the system meets it's "build to" specifications

When making tradeoffs among completing features, what can be used to quantifiably compare alternatives by selecting, weighting, and applying criteria?

Decision matrix

Which is true about the Work Breakdown Structure ?

The WBS is a tool that can help identify and assess technical risk.

What element of International Acquisition & Exportability (IA&E) assesses the risks of transferring controlled technology and information that provide U.S. warfighters a combat advantage as well as the benefits of international participation?

-IA&E Planning & Analysis incorrect
-International Contracting
-International Cooperative Programs incorrect
-Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure incorrect
-Sales & Transfers
-Defense Exportability incorrect

What is the procurement cost of this system?
Cost Types Cost (in millions of dollars)
Research, Development, Test & Evaluation $400
Procurement of Prime Mission Equipment $800
Procurement of Support Equipment $100
Procurement of Initial Spares $100
Operations and Support $70,0000
Disposal $100

-$1,400 million
-$800 million
-$900 million
-$1,000 million

The largest amount of cost for a system is related to its operations and support.

-True
-False

Which of the following are characteristics of International Cooperation Programs (ICPs)? (Select the three that apply.)

-Shared cost
-Shared risks and benefits
-One way transfers/grants
-Foreign aid
-Buyer-seller relationship
-Government-to-Government

Program Management Offices/Integrated Product Teams should conduct their initial International Acquisition & Exportability (IA&E) Assessment during the Production & Deployment phase of traditional, major capability 5000.02 acquisition programs.

-True
-False

Program-level exportability feasibility studies should be conducted as early as possible in a system's life cycle to assess the international market for potential cooperative programs, foreign sales, or transfers; identify the feasibility of designing and developing defense exportability features (DEF) for the system; and estimate potential return on investment from future international acquisition partnership and sales efforts.

-True
-False

DoD receives a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) Letter of Request (LOR) from an allied nation for a DoD system that is currently in Low Rate Initial Production. At this point in the acquisition life cycle, what are the possible impacts to the program if an exportable version of the system is available for offer to this prospective FMS customer? (Select the three that apply.)

(WRONG COMBINATION)
-Lower research and development costs through Research, Development Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) cost sharing
-Lower production costs for the DoD and the FMS customer due to economic order quantity savings
-Reduced DoD and FMS customer Operations & Support (O&S) costs if common product support strategies are used
-Enhanced U.S. political-military relationships with foreign nations
(WRONG COMBINATION)
-Lower research and development costs through Research, Development Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) cost sharing
-Lower production costs for the DoD and the FMS customer due to economic order quantity savings
-Reduced DoD and FMS customer Operations & Support (O&S) costs if common product support strategies are used
-Enhanced U.S. political-military relationships with foreign nations
(wrong COMBINATION)
-Lower research and development costs through Research, Development Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) cost sharing
-Lower production costs for the DoD and the FMS customer due to economic order quantity savings
-Reduced DoD and FMS customer Operations & Support (O&S) costs if common product support strategies are used
-Enhanced U.S. political-military relationships with foreign nations

Based on information from the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD), an AoA includes (Select all that apply):

-Test Requirements
-Key attributes as defined by Measures of Effectiveness
-Range of Military Operations
-Functional Areas
-Detailed System Specifications

The largest percentage of software life cycle costs is associated with _________?

-Design and Development
-Upgrades and Maintenance
-Research and Development
-Test and Evaluation

-Technology Release Roadmap (TRR)
-Contract Data Requirements List (CDRLs)
-Data Item Descriptions (DIDs)
-International Business Plan (IBP)

Affordability is most concerned with:

-Making tradeoffs in performance and schedule to achieve cost objectives within affordability constraints.
-Use of commercial design practices to save development and production costs.
-Making tradeoffs that will provide the best possible system in the least amount of time.
-Use of state-of-the-art design and materials to accomplish the mission documented in the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) and Capability Development Document (CDD).

The Air Force is in process of completing development on an upgrade to an existing fighter aircraft that will improve survivability and reliability. The contractor has provided the Government with detailed technical drawings and associated costs of the parts, materials, and labor required to produce the system. What cost estimating technique would the Air Force most likely use to prepare their budget estimate for the upgrade?

-Actual Cost
-Analogy
-Parametric
-Engineering

Which of the following requires that U.S. Government tariffs be added to purchases of international products or materials, unless an exception (such as public interest) applies or the foreign sourced items are acquired from a qualifying country with a Reciprocal Procurement Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

-Competition in Contracting Act (CICA)
-Buy American Statute
-National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)
-Barry Amendment

DoD Component International Program Organizations and Program Management Offices are responsible for approving export license requests made by program contractors and support contractors.

-True
-False

When comparing alternative concepts to provide needed warfighting capabilities, which of the following must be met?

-Goals
-Targets
-Thresholds
-Objectives

The _______________ and the _____________________ along with the Funding Plan should be established early on in the Joint Capabilities Technology Demonstration (JCTD) to ensure that preparations are developed to facilitate movement of the JCTD into the acquisition process. Please choose from below to fill in the blanks.

-Program Management Office and an Acquisition Strategy
-Management Plan and Transition Plan
-Technical Support IPT and a Technical Integration Plan
-Contracting Officer and an Acquisition Plan

A software costing method that uses a team of experts working both independently and together to combine different approaches and arrive at a collective judgment through consensus is an example of the _________ costing method.

-Delphi
-Bottom-up
-Parametric
-Top-Down

Which of the following International Acquisition & Exportability (IA&E) activities addressed in the "International Considerations" section of the Acquisition Strategy could influence the program's overall acquisition strategy? (Select the three that apply.)

-Potential export version(s) cost, schedule and performance characteristics
-Potential changes in international lending policies and practices
-Defense exportability feasibility study results
-Participation of international companies as potential subcontractors or suppliers in domestic and international acquisition efforts
-Balance of payments issues with foreign nations

_______ refers to the cost of procuring prime mission equipment.

-Life Cycle Cost
-Flyaway Cost
-Development Cost
-Weapon System Cost

In certain situations, there may be a U.S. Government requirement to restrict specific portions of a weapon system sale to "Foreign Military Sales (FMS)-only" while permitting other portions to be acquired through Direct Commercial Sales (DCS).

-True
-False

The majority of a system's life cycle costs can be attributed directly to ______.

-operations and support costs
-weapons system costs
-procurement costs
-research and development costs

what steps must be taken to obtain technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) authorizations? (select three that apply)

INCORRECT COMBINATION
-identify the system's critical technology areas
-implement guidance into defense exportability integration plan
-approve export license requests
-engage with TSFD pipe owners
-submit international cooperative program (ICP) of foreign military sales (FMS) congressional notifications required by the Arms Export Control Act.
UNSURE COMBINATION
-identify the system's critical technology areas
-implement guidance into defense exportability integration plan
-approve export license requests
-engage with TSFD pipe owners
-submit international cooperative program (ICP) of foreign military sales (FMS) congressional notifications required by the Arms Export Control Act.

both army and marine corps have a capability need to procure additional helicopters beyond the number specified in the current contract; the helicopter program is currently in production. what cost estimating technique would the services most likely use as a basis for requesting the funding to par for the additional aircraft?

-engineering
-actual cost
-parametric
-analogy

an international agreement is established between the us and a partner nation to develop a new defense capability. what are the benefits that typically result from establishing a successful international cooperative program (ICP)? select three that apply

-lower research and development costs through research, development test, and evaluation (RDT&E) cost sharing
-enhanced us political-military relationships with foreign nations
-extend dod service life through sustainment cooperation for systems transitioning into non-program of record
-sell/transfer dod inventory of spare parts that are no longer needed to allied/friendly nations
-enhanced capability and interoperability based on access to foreign partner technology and industrial capabilities

the best time to reduce life cycle cost is ____ in the life cycle process. _____ can be applied throughout the life cycle to achieve an affordable and effective system. which combination below provides the CORRECT response for the blanks above?

-when the budget is submitted / the spending plan
-late / CAIV
-early / affordability and should cost
-mid way / tradeoffs

in which of the following areas do contracting officers support program managers/integrated product teams on both domestic and international acquisitions programs? (select two)

-evaluating proposed technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) guidance alternatives
-including international acquisition-specific documentation requirements in the contract data requirements list (CDRLs)
-developing program protection measures for restricted technology and information
-communicating requirements in the request for proposal (RFP)

the largest distribution of software cost will be _____ in the program's life cycle.

-late
-early

When comparing two alternative concepts, you discover that both will provide the needed capabilities. Alternative 1 requires new development that will take 7 years and will cost more than the other alternative. alternative 2 can be developed in 4 years relying on proven joint capabilities technology demonstration technology. based on the information provided here, which is a better alternative?

-alternative 1
-alternative 2

what is a characteristic of a joint capabilities technology demonstration (JCTD)?

-is based on a validated requirement which is documented in a capability development document (CDD)
-requires no user involvement until after successful completion of the demonstration.
-demonstrates technology in a field environment
-is funded by procurement money set aside specifically for JCTDs

which of the following guidance documents requires dod components to incorporate interoperability and defense exportability aspects into joint capabilities integration and development system (JCIDS) requirements documents to ensure they are addressed in initial planning and design?

-national defense authorization act (NDAA) 2019 incorrect
-defense acquisition guidebook (DAG) chapter 9, program protection incorrect
-joint requirements oversight council memorandum (JRCOM)
-defense federal acquisition regulations supplement (DFARS)

during a program's initial design and development efforts, program managers and integrated product team members should allocate sufficient time, talent, and study funding to assess the potential impact of international acquisition & exportability (IA&E) considerations- both positive and negative- on the program's overall acquisition strategy.

-true
-false

when comparing two alternative concepts to provide needed warfighting capabilities, you discover that the total life cycle costs of both are projected to be nearly the same. Alternative 1 relies on technology that has been successfully demonstrated during advanced technology demonstrations and can be fielded in 5 years. alternative 2 relies on technology that is in the basic research stage and can be fielded in 8 years. based on the information provided here, which is the better alternative?

-alternative 1
-alternative 2

For foreign military sales (FMS) non-program of record acquisition programs, the fms customer nation is responsible for developing, awarding, and executing the contract in accordance with their own contracting policies and procedures.

-true
-false

during which part of the international acquisition & exportability (IA&E) assessment does the program management office and integrated product team identify the technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) technology areas ("pipes") that are relevant to the program's future international acquisition activities?

-program protection considerations
-international markets
-cooperative opportunities
-interoperability requirements

the _____ compares alternatives by estimating their ability to satisfy the identified capability need through an effectiveness analysis and by estimating their life cycle costs through cost analysis

-analysis of alternatives
-cost analysis requirements description
-capability development document
-acquisition decision memorandum

a software-costing method that bases cost estimates upon statistical data such as source lines of code is an examples of a _______ costing model

-bottom-up
-parametric
-delphi
-top-down

which of the following international acquisition & exportability (IA&E) areas described in the international considerations section of a program's acquisition strategy could have significant long-term impact on overall program affordability? select three

-un delib
-establishing a domestic
-pending decisions
-international partner
-coordination with partner

an analysis of alternatives is a study of the ______

-cost analysis for the alternatives
-potential acquisition strategies for the alternatives incorrect
-potential technical solutions
-operational effectiveness and life cycle cost of the alternatives probably this one

What is the weapon systems cost of this system?
Cost Types Cost (in millions of dollars)
Research, Development, Test & Evaluation $400
Procurement of Prime Mission Equipment $800
Procurement of Support Equipment $100
Procurement of Initial Spares $100
Operations and Support $70,0000
Disposal $100

900 million

to obtain guidance and (if required) approvals on the level and type of protection required (eg additional program protection measures, removal of critical program technology...

-technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) technology area ("pipe") owners/authorities
-under secretary of defense for acquisition & sustainment
-
-

affordability and should cost means _________.

performance and schedule tradeoffs will be made to achieve cost objectives

estimating potential demand for a capability and developing a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate of future sales are characteristics of which international acquisitions & exportability

international markets

the international involvement section of the acquisition must include a list of the system's critical program information (CPI) and a detailed description of anti-tamper

-true
-false

_______ consists of all costs associated with developing, procuring and housing a weapon system.

-flyaway cost
-life cycle cost
-weapon system cost
-program acquisition cost

one cost estimation method can be used in combination with another method.

-true
-false

Which of the following is NOT one of the methods used to achieve a producible design?

Introduce variability in the manufacturing process.

A Fixed-Price Incentive (Firm Target) (FPIF) contract is awarded for $25 million to design a computer based training course for the Air Force with a period of performance of 18 months. What reports, if any, must the Air Force Program Manager (PM) require the contractor provide regarding their cost, schedule, and technical performance?

The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1, 5, 6 and 7.

In which of situations is early operational testing least likely to be required for non-developmental item (NDI)?

When the NDI will be maintained by the contractor and used in the same environment for which
it was designed.

Under what condition would contractor logistics support be most appropriate for a non-developmental item (NDI) communications device being acquired by the U.S. Army?

The configuration of the device is expected to change frequently to incorporate technological advances as they become available.

Earned Value Management provides a sound basis for (select all the apply):

1. Estimating probable completion times and costs
2. Taking corrective action.
3. Identifying problems.
4. Re-planning the project, if needed.

Which of the following best describes the differences between the "incremental" and
"waterfall" development models?

The "incremental" model follows an evolutionary approach, where the "waterfall" model builds
the entire system all at once.

Program Managers can use data from the Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR), including the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) to integrate _____________ and _____________ performance data with objective technical measures of performance.

Cost / schedule.

The first step in developing a Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) is to:

Define or scope all work.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when making tradeoffs among various functional areas to achieve a balanced design?

Profits from manufacturing.

When do the OSD Comptroller analyst and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) analyst hold hearings to review the service's budgets?

Each year around October and November.

Which of the following best describes software management metrics?

Metrics that determine progress against the plan.

Which one of the Integrated Program Management Report formats reports time-phased budgets that are displayed showing current period, cumulative value to date, the next six months, and five additional specified periods which take the contract to completion?

Format 3

As part of the overall system engineering process, there are a variety of software development methods, but three most common at DoD and Waterfall Approach, the Incremental Approach, and the ______ Approach.

Spiral.

The extent of developmental testing and evaluation necessary on a commercial or non-developmental
item depends on __________.

The amount of modification required, the environment in which the item will be used, and the availability of test results.

What design consideration facilitates the manufacture of an item and reduces assembly error,
material waste, and labor time?

Producibility

As part of the overall systems engineering process, manufacturing must be integrated into the design process to ___________________.

Reduce program risk

DoD policy requires all new and upgraded Command, Control, Communications, Computers, and Intelligence (C4I) acquisitions to comply with DoD Information Technology Standards Registry (DISR).

True.

Which one of the following is NOT considered a common problem for software-intensive systems?

Use of open systems architecture.

The _____________________ makes adjustments to the Services' budget submission to OSD.

Resource Management Decision (RMD).

The Integrated Program Management Report has seven formats. Which one of the formats
reports the history of the current status and any actions being taken to address problems that
have arisen?

Format 5

Which one of the following is considered to be a typical cause of trouble for software
development projects?

Poor definition of requirements.

Which of the following best describes the differences between the "incremental" and "waterfall"
development models?

The "incremental" model follows an evolutionary approach, where the "waterfall" model builds
the entire system all at once.

Every commercial item must undergo the same Governmental testing as a newly developed item before it is acquired for use by the Department of Defense.

False.

In which of the following situations is early operational testing least likely to be required for a non-developmental item (NDI)?

When the NDI will be maintained by the contractor and used in the same environment for which it was designed.

Which of the following is a potential logistics support issue that tends to be associated with
the acquisition of commercial and non-developmental items?

Availability of replacement parts.

In order to reduce the risks inherent in software acquisition, systems engineering activities
should begin _____________ in the process, and contractors should utilize __________________
development methods.

Early / iterative

A highly producible design will increase ___________.

Efficient use of materials with reduced waste.

Tradeoffs in cost involve examining the development of alternative designs,
_________________ and the required industrial base capability.

Required technology

In addition to the scope of contract work and the budget for the contract, the Performance
Measurement Baseline (PMB) integrates the _________________.

Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)

DoD policy requires all new and upgraded Command, Control, Communications, Computers,
and Intelligence (C4I) acquisitions to comply with DoD Information Technology Standards Registry
(DISR).

True

When using commercial and non-developmental items, the need for testing and evaluation is
eliminated.

False.

By representing the budget and schedule associated with each task, the Performance
Measurement Baseline (PMB) allows program managers to ___________________.

Compare the value of work performed to actual costs.

Earned Value Management is an important management tool because it measures much more
than money spent, it also measures the progress of actual work accomplished and the actual cost of that work against the planned costs and schedule to accomplish that work.

True

Which one of the following is considered to be a typical cause of trouble for software development projects?

Poor definition of requirements

Which of the following best describes the differences between the "incremental" and "waterfall" development models?

The "incremental" model follows an evolutionary approach, where the "waterfall" model builds the entire system all at once.

Reliability, usability, and interoperability are examples of which kind of software metric?

Quality

The extent of developmental testing and evaluation necessary on a commercial or non-developmental item depends on __________.

The amount of modification required, the environment in which the item will be used, and the
availability of test results.

Early Operational Assessments (EOA) or Operational Assessment (OA) are types of OT&E and are
conducted on commercial items or NDIs ____________________ (Select all that apply).

1). to determine if the item is operationally effective and operationally suitable

2). to detect deficiencies that may impact performance, availability, and/or supportability

3). to increase our confidence in the commercial items or NDIs, thereby reducing program risk

In order to reduce the risks inherent in software acquisition, systems engineering activities should begin _____________ in the process, and contractors should utilize __________________ development methods.

Early / iterative

Manufacturing tradeoffs are made throughout the design process among three areas: producibility, cost, and _______________________.

Operational capabilities.

___________________ is an important management tool that is used to monitor and manage the contract and/or project performance by emphasizing the planning and integration of program cost, schedule, and performance factors.

Earned Value Management (EVM)

The Navy awards a Cost-Plus-Award-Fee (CPAF) contract for $265 million to design and develop electronic components for a communications system with a period of performance of 18 months. What reports, if any, must the Navy Program Manager (PM) require the contractor to provide regarding their cost, schedule, and technical performance?

The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) formats 1 through 7.

What does it mean if a project has a Percent Spent of 90%, Percent Scheduled of 85% and Percent Complete of 95%?

The project is in good shape and should early and within budget.

Your program is liable for payment on good and services received under a contract. Your payment, based on a submitted invoice, for all or part of this obligation is a(n) __________.

Expenditure

Which of the following is a valid reason for rebaselining the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)?

The plan for completing the remaining contract effort is no longer achievable.

Which of the following test items are determined by the Program Management office that is developing a system?

Critical Technical Parameters (CTPs).

With modeling and simulation, we model the system and then test the _________ to gather test predictions.

Model.

The following data is received from contractor: Budgeted Cost of Work Perform (BCWP) = $300 Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 1.2 Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) = $400 Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 0.75 Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) = $250 Budget at Completion (BAC) = $1,000 Contractor's Latest Revised Estimate = $1,000 Equation for Estimate at Completion (EAC) Low = ACWP + ((BAC-BCWP)/(CPI)) Equation for EAC High = ACWP+((BAC-BCWP)/(CPI*SPI) Which of the following represents the most reasonable EAC range for these data based on EVM?

EAC Low: $833 - EAC High: $1,028

What type of testing would be conducted to determine the effectiveness of the manufacturing process?

Production Qualification Testing (PQT).

A(n) ________________ can be used for predicting program obligation performance and funding requirements and identifying potential budget execution problems.

Spending Plan

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the requirements and objectives associated with an Integrated Baseline Review (IBR)?

The initial IBR should be completed within six months of contract award.

The specific information required for each milestone review can be found in _____.

DoD instruction 5000.02

Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Exit criteria are measurable and demonstrable.

b. Exit criteria must be successfully demonstrated before a program can proceed further.

c. Exit criteria are not specific to a particular phase of an acquisition program.

d. Exit criteria help mange and reduce risk.

c. Exit criteria are not specific to a particular phase of an acquisition program.

The Program Management Office creates a(n) ____________ plan for each fiscal year of funding that is available for new obligation and a(n) ______________ plan for each fiscal year funding that has not been completely expended.

Obligation/Expenditure.

The following data is received from your contractor on a project's key component: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP) = $100 Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) = $200 Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) = $100 Budgeted at Completion (BAC) = $500 Latest Revised Estimate (LRE) = $900 Which of the following Earned Value Management (EVM) metrics can be determined from these data:

SPI = 0.5, CPI = 1.0, TCPI(BAC) = 1.0, TCPI/(LRE) = 0.5

The Earned Value Management (EVM) _____________ reveals how much it will cost to complete the program based on current program status.

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

What developmental test would you conduct to see how an item would perform under tropical conditions of heat and moisture?

Environmental Testing.

An operational test agency is responsible for the establishment of Critical Operational Issues (COIs).

True.

Which of the following is FALSE about Measures of Effectiveness (MOEs)?

They are developed by the service development test agency.

Select a primary weapon system function tested during LIVE FIRE TEST and Evaluation.

Survivability.

When a contractor begin work generated by a change order that does not have a full negotiated agreement on terms of work, cost, and schedule signed by both parties, a contract change has been initiated that is _______ .

Undefinitized

All of the five elements (5Ms) of manufacturing contribute o the cost of production. Which one of the following is NOT one of the 5Ms?

Mandates.

According to learning curve theory, when the quantity of an item produced doubles, the labor hours required to produce the item _______.

Decreased by a fixed percentage.

The ____________ has a direct line of communication with the Procuring Contracting Officer, and the __________ has a direct line of communication with the Program Manager.

Administrative Contracting Officer, Program Integrator.

Personal liability for unauthorized commitments is determined by _________.

The procedures of each agency.

Design changes that are made after the beginning of production tend to be equal in cost to changes made prior to production.

False

The cost of achieving quality can be broken down into which THREE of the following areas (Select three answers):

1). Appraisal

2). Failure

3). Prevention

In determining the correct appropriation for funding the development of a product improvement, the first/primary consideration is:

Will it increase the performance capability?

Process proofing ensures that high risk areas, such as assembly methods and personnel training, are optimized _______________________.

Before the start-up of full rate production

Which of the following can negatively impact the learning curve, production costs, and schedule?

Inconsistent product design.

Manpower, measurement, methods, machinery, and materials are collectively referred to as the ___________________.

5Ms of Manufacturing.

Which process is recommended for those products with the highest volume and the highest standardization on the product continuum?

Continuous flow.

Lean manufacturing tends to increase manufacturing costs and delay schedules in the manufacturing process.

False.

Which process is recommended for those products with the lowest volume and the lowest standardization on the product continuum?

Jumbled flow

Which of the following is NOT lawful authority and can be a cause of unauthorized commitments?

Apparent Authority

As production of an item increases, what impact does that typically have on the unit cost?

Unit cost decreases

What is the typical impact on a program's cost and schedule when unstable requirements lead to changes late in the system's development?

Significantly negative impact on cost and schedule.

In determining the correct appropriation for funding the development of a product
improvement, the first/primary consideration is:

Will it increase the performance capability?

The Army has an urgent requirement for trucks that can operate under arctic conditions. The
Contracting Officer on the current contract for trucks tells the contractor to install special snow
tires on a shipment of trucks. The Contracting Officer does not have enough time to negotiate the
price up front, but she limits the Government's risk by putting a not-to-exceed price on the work.
This is an example of what kind of modification?

change order that is undefinitized.

Which of the following is considered to be a practice of "Lean Manufacturing?"

Low levels of inventory

In the cost of quality breakdown, appraisal is:

Money spent looking for errors.

Learning curve theory states that as the quantity of a product produced _______, the man-hours
per unit expended producing the product ______.

Doubles; decrease at a fixed rate.

Which of the following results in a flatter learning curve?

Increased automation.

What is the typical impact on a program's cost and schedule when unstable requirements lead
to changes late in the system's development?

Significantly negative impact on cost and schedule.

Taking a contractual dispute to court should be the first step in attempting to resolve controversy between the disputing parties.

False

Which core ethical value are you violating if you reject an opposing point of view during a disagreement and call it a shortsighted, uninformed way to look at the situation?

Respect

What is the purpose of fielding/deployment planning?

To provide for a smooth introduction of the system to the user.

Which of the following is sufficient justification to terminate a contract for convenience?

The Government no longer needs the goods or services in the contract.

Which style of leadership is generally most appropriate for leading Integrated Product Teams (IPTs)?

Team Leadership

Which of the following is a problem that could likely be minimized through good deployment planning?

Inadequate training

When supportability issues are sufficiently resolved, which of the following is likely to decrease (Select all that apply)?

1. Costs

2. Logistics Footprint

Who is responsible for planning post-production logistics support?

Program Manager

Unexpended funds that have expired may be used to pay for new obligations.

False

If a contractor is producing missiles for the Navy, and the contractor fails to deliver them on time, the Navy has the right to:

Terminate the contract for default

Decreased operational availability (Ao), increased costs, and bloated inventories may result from

Unresolved supportability issues

Expired Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds may be used to redesign a system when the redesign will NOT increase the system's performance and is NOT likely to require extensive testing.

False

The primary difference between the supervisory leader and the participative leader is the participative leader ____________.

Gets inputs for decisions

Post-production support is essential ___________.

To ensure the system will continue to be sustained after production lines have closed.

Planning for post-production support should begin after the system is deployed as specific support problems arise.

False

Match the leadership styles with the best response:

a).Team Leadership---Expands group capabilities

b).Supervisory Leadership----Directs individual workers

c).Participative Leadership----Coordinates group effort

Once unexpended Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds have expired, they can be used for _____________________.

Payments or adjustments to the original obligations

Which of the following is something you should NOT do during negoiations?

Established action items or issue inquiries if the contractor doesn't answer.

The concept of _____________ is used to address the interplay between system performance, availability (reliability, maintainability, and supportability), process efficiency, and system life cycle cost.

Affordable System Operational Effectiveness (ASOE).

Tracking Technical Performance Measures on high-risk components should provide:

Early warning signs of potential performance problems.

A decision matrix can be used to quantifiably compare alternatives when conducting the tradeoff process to create a supportable design that is also producible, testable, and ____________________________.

Affordable.

Maintainability is how quickly, easily and cost effectively a system can be returned to operational status after maintenance is performed. It is measured by ________.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

Ultimately, the use of open systems design is expected to result in lower life cycle costs.

True.

Three critical factors in achieving maximum Operational Availability (Ao) are:

Reliability, maintainability, and supportability.

The System Engineering Process primarily is used by acquisition management to manage technical risk, but it can also help to reduce program cost and schedule risk.

False.

___________ shows how different parts of a system fit together from various perspectives as a system is designed and developed.

Virtual Prototypes.

Simulation Based Acquisition involves the integration of ______________across functional disciplines throughout the acquisition process.

Modeling and Simulation.

When using a decision matrix, after you identify all options, what is the next step?

Establish the criteria that will be used to rate the options.

Capabilities related to the support and operation of a system should be considered early and continuously in the design and development of a system.

True

The Affordable System Operational Effectiveness (ASOE) concept places emphasis on the system's ability to execute its mission. its reliability and maintainability, and ______.

Cost effective responsiveness of the supply chain.

Human Systems Integration (HSI), a supportability issue that every program should consider, addresses such factors as accessibility, visibility, testability, and ____________________.

Standardization

If three alternatives are equal in terms of initial cost and meeting performance requirements, the systems engineers should select the one that will result in the lowest life cycle costs.

True

Which of the following supportability analysis tools is used for defense planning and performed to determine the best, most efficient location where an item can be repaired?

Level of Repair Analysis (LORA)

Which is true about the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

The WBS is a tool that can help identify and assess technical risk.

During the Development Test (DT) effort, the purpose of verification is to determine ___________.

Whether or not the system meets its "build to" specifications.

During course selection, a contractor call you with a question about the request for proposal (RFP). To whom should you refer this inquiry?

Contracting Officer

In Government contracting, one criterion for cost allowability is that the contractor's costs must comply with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and

Government Cost Accounting Standards (CAS)

During source selection, evaluators reviewing the proposals and compiling their questions for individual offerors is commonly referred to as

fact finding

the _____ presents the total revenues and expenses of a company for a given period

income statement

which of the following is something you should NOT do during negotiations?

reach agreements on how to perform tasks

What form of information exchange would a contracting officer use to reach agreement with a offeror over the terms of a contract?

Negotiation

To implement a company's business strategy, an effective organizational structure will:

Support one's company's vision

An effective organizational structure can create a competitive advantage by:

Facilitating responsiveness to change

For a contract cost to be considered "allowable" it must meet certain criteria. If the cost can be attributed to a specific contract, which one of the following criteria is met?

Reasonable

Any cost necessary to the overall operation of the business is called

general and administrative (G&A) cost

For a cost in a contract to be considered allowable, it must meet certain criteria. One of the criteria that must be met is that _____

the cost must me reasonable

Forward pricing rates agreements provide negotiated rates that represent reasonable projections for such things as _____

Rates for Labor and labor hours

Which is more likely to decentralize staff functions, dedicating them to each business or product organization?

Larger companies

-$1,400 million
-$800 million
-$900 million
-$1,000 million

The largest amount of cost for a system is related to its operations and support.

-True
-False

Which of the following are characteristics of International Cooperation Programs (ICPs)? (Select the three that apply.)

-Shared cost
-Shared risks and benefits
-One way transfers/grants
-Foreign aid
-Buyer-seller relationship
-Government-to-Government

-True
-False

-True

Based on information from the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD), an AoA includes (Select all that apply):

-Test Requirements
-Key attributes as defined by Measures of Effectiveness
-Range of Military Operations
-Functional Areas
-Detailed System Specifications

The largest percentage of software life cycle costs is associated with _________?

-Design and Development
-Upgrades and Maintenance
-Research and Development
-Test and Evaluation

-Technology Release Roadmap (TRR)
-Contract Data Requirements List (CDRLs)
-Data Item Descriptions (DIDs)
-International Business Plan (IBP)

Affordability is most concerned with:

-Engineering

-Competition in Contracting Act (CICA)
-Buy American Statute
-National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)
-Barry Amendment

DoD Component International Program Organizations and Program Management Offices are responsible for approving export license requests made by program contractors and support contractors.

-True
-False

When comparing alternative concepts to provide needed warfighting capabilities, which of the following must be met?

-Goals
-Targets
-Thresholds
-Objectives

-Program Management Office and an Acquisition Strategy
-Management Plan and Transition Plan
-Technical Support IPT and a Technical Integration Plan
-Contracting Officer and an Acquisition Plan

-Delphi
-Bottom-up
-Parametric
-Top-Down

1. Potential export version(s) cost, schedule and performance characteristics
-Defense exportability feasibility study results
-Participation of international companies as potential subcontractors or suppliers in domestic and international acquisition efforts

_______ refers to the cost of procuring prime mission equipment.

-Life Cycle Cost
-Flyaway Cost
-Development Cost
-Weapon System Cost

-True
-False

The majority of a system's life cycle costs can be attributed directly to ______.

-operations and support costs
-weapons system costs
-procurement costs
-research and development costs

What steps must be taken to obtain technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) authorizations? (select three that apply)

-identify the system's critical technology areas

-implement guidance into defense exportability integration plan

-engage with TSFD pipe owners

Both Army and Marine Corps have a capability need to procure additional helicopters beyond the number specified in the current contract; the helicopter program is currently in production. what cost estimating technique would the services most likely use as a basis for requesting the funding to par for the additional aircraft?

-engineering
-actual cost
-parametric
-analogy

An international agreement is established between the us and a partner nation to develop a new defense capability. what are the benefits that typically result from establishing a successful international cooperative program (ICP)? select three that apply

The best time to reduce Life Cycle Cost is ____ in the life cycle process. _____ can be applied throughout the life cycle to achieve an affordable and effective system. which combination below provides the CORRECT response for the blanks above?

-when the budget is submitted / the spending plan
-late / CAIV
-early / affordability and should cost
-mid way / tradeoffs

In which of the following areas do Contracting Officers support program managers/integrated product teams on both domestic and international acquisition programs? (select two)

The largest distribution of software cost will be _____ in the program's life cycle.

-late
-early

-alternative 1
-alternative 2

What is a characteristic of a joint capabilities technology demonstration (JCTD)?

Which of the following guidance documents requires dod components to incorporate interoperability and defense exportability aspects into joint capabilities integration and development system (JCIDS) requirements documents to ensure they are addressed in initial planning and design?

During a program's initial design and development efforts, program managers and integrated product team members should allocate sufficient time, talent, and study funding to assess the potential impact of international acquisition & exportability (IA&E) considerations- both positive and negative- on the program's overall acquisition strategy.

-true
-false

When comparing two alternative concepts to provide needed warfighting capabilities, you discover that the total life cycle costs of both are projected to be nearly the same. Alternative 1 relies on technology that has been successfully demonstrated during advanced technology demonstrations and can be fielded in 5 years. alternative 2 relies on technology that is in the basic research stage and can be fielded in 8 years. based on the information provided here, which is the better alternative?

-alternative 1
-alternative 2

-true
-false

During which part of the international acquisition & exportability (IA&E) assessment does the program management office and integrated product team identify the technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) technology areas ("pipes") that are relevant to the program's future international acquisition activities?

-program protection considerations
-international markets
-cooperative opportunities
-interoperability requirements

The _____ compares alternatives by estimating their ability to satisfy the identified capability need through an effectiveness analysis and by estimating their life cycle costs through cost analysis

-analysis of alternatives
-cost analysis requirements description
-capability development document
-acquisition decision memorandum

A software-costing method that bases cost estimates upon statistical data such as source lines of code is an example of a _______ costing model

-bottom-up
-parametric
-delphi
-top-down

Which of the following international acquisition & exportability (IA&E) areas described in the international considerations section of a program's acquisition strategy could have a significant long-term impact on overall program affordability? select three

-un delib
-establishing a domestic
-pending decisions
-international partner
-coordination with partner

An analysis of alternatives is a study of the ______

Operational effectiveness and life cycle cost of the alternatives.

900 million

To obtain guidance and (if required) approvals on the level and type of protection required (eg additional program protection measures, removal of critical program technology...

-technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) technology area ("pipe") owners/authorities
-under secretary of defense for acquisition & sustainment
-
-

Affordability and should cost means _________.

performance and schedule tradeoffs will be made to achieve cost objectives

Estimating potential demand for a capability and developing a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate of future sales are characteristics of which international acquisitions & exportability

international markets

The international involvement section of the acquisition must include a list of the system's critical program information (CPI) and a detailed description of anti-tamper

-true
-false

_______ consists of all costs associated with developing, procuring and housing a weapon system.

-flyaway cost
-life cycle cost
-weapon system cost
-program acquisition cost

One cost estimation method can be used in combination with another method.

True*

Which program is funded by U.S. Government Title 10 appropriations and used by DoD and other U.S. Government agencies in the furtherance of national security objectives for the purpose of bolstering partnering nation security forces and enhance their capability to conduct counterterrorism operations?

Building Partner Capacity (BPC).

The Navy is in the early stages of developing the next generation attack submarine with state of-
the-art capabilities in terms of speed, power, and weapon capacity. Data are available on a
variety of US and British submarines over the past thirty years. This data indicates a clear
relationship between each of the desired performance characteristics (speed, power, weapon
capacity) and system cost. What cost estimating technique would the Navy most likely use in
preparing their programming and budgeting documents?

Parametric

__________________ refers to the cost procuring prime mission equipment.

Flyaway Cost.

Foreign Military Sales (FMS), Building Partnership Capacity (BPC), Direct Commercial Sales (DCS), and Acquisition and Cross Servicing Agreements (ACSAs) are Security Cooperation equipment and financing activities under what element of International Acquisition & Exportability?

International Cooperative Programs.

The majority of a system's life cycle costs can be attributed directly to _______.

Operation and Support Costs.

-$1,400 million
-$800 million
-$900 million
-$1,000 million

The largest amount of cost for a system is related to its operations and support.

-True
-False

Which of the following are characteristics of International Cooperation Programs (ICPs)? (Select the three that apply.)

-Shared cost
-Shared risks and benefits
-One way transfers/grants
-Foreign aid
-Buyer-seller relationship
-Government-to-Government

-True
-False

-True
-False

Based on information from the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD), an AoA includes (Select all that apply):

-Test Requirements
-Key attributes as defined by Measures of Effectiveness
-Range of Military Operations
-Functional Areas
-Detailed System Specifications

The largest percentage of software life cycle costs is associated with _________?

-Design and Development
-Upgrades and Maintenance
-Research and Development
-Test and Evaluation

-Technology Release Roadmap (TRR)
-Contract Data Requirements List (CDRLs)
-Data Item Descriptions (DIDs)
-International Business Plan (IBP)

Affordability is most concerned with:

-Actual Cost
-Analogy
-Parametric
-Engineering

-Competition in Contracting Act (CICA)
-Buy American Statute
-National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)
-Barry Amendment

DoD Component International Program Organizations and Program Management Offices are responsible for approving export license requests made by program contractors and support contractors.

-True
-False

When comparing alternative concepts to provide needed warfighting capabilities, which of the following must be met?

-Goals
-Targets
-Thresholds
-Objectives

-Program Management Office and an Acquisition Strategy
-Management Plan and Transition Plan
-Technical Support IPT and a Technical Integration Plan
-Contracting Officer and an Acquisition Plan

-Delphi
-Bottom-up
-Parametric
-Top-Down

_______ refers to the cost of procuring prime mission equipment.

-Life Cycle Cost
-Flyaway Cost
-Development Cost
-Weapon System Cost

-True
-False

The majority of a system's life cycle costs can be attributed directly to ______.

-operations and support costs
-weapons system costs
-procurement costs
-research and development costs

what steps must be taken to obtain technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) authorizations? (select three that apply)

-engineering
-actual cost
-parametric
-analogy

-when the budget is submitted / the spending plan
-late / CAIV
-early / affordability and should cost
-mid way / tradeoffs

in which of the following areas do contracting officers support program managers/integrated product teams on both domestic and international acquisitions programs? (select two)

the largest distribution of software cost will be _____ in the program's life cycle.

-late
-early

-alternative 1
-alternative 2

what is a characteristic of a joint capabilities technology demonstration (JCTD)?

-true
-false

-alternative 1
-alternative 2

-true
-false

-program protection considerations
-international markets
-cooperative opportunities
-interoperability requirements

-analysis of alternatives
-cost analysis requirements description
-capability development document
-acquisition decision memorandum

a software-costing method that bases cost estimates upon statistical data such as source lines of code is an examples of a _______ costing model

-bottom-up
-parametric
-delphi
-top-down

-un delib
-establishing a domestic
-pending decisions
-international partner
-coordination with partner

an analysis of alternatives is a study of the ______

900 million

to obtain guidance and (if required) approvals on the level and type of protection required (eg additional program protection measures, removal of critical program technology...

-technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) technology area ("pipe") owners/authorities
-under secretary of defense for acquisition & sustainment
-
-

affordability and should cost means _________.

performance and schedule tradeoffs will be made to achieve cost objectives

estimating potential demand for a capability and developing a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate of future sales are characteristics of which international acquisitions & exportability

international markets

the international involvement section of the acquisition must include a list of the system's critical program information (CPI) and a detailed description of anti-tamper

-true
-false

_______ consists of all costs associated with developing, procuring and housing a weapon system.

-flyaway cost
-life cycle cost
-weapon system cost
-program acquisition cost

one cost estimation method can be used in combination with another method.

-true
-false

All of the five elements (5Ms) of manufacturing contribute to the cost of production. Which one of the following is NOT one of the 5Ms?

-Measurement
-Mandates
-Methods
-Machinery

Choose the ideal cost of quality breakdown from the following options.

-Prevention 15%, Appraisal 35%, Failure 50%
-Prevention 25%, Appraisal 50%, Failure 25%
-Prevention 5%, Appraisal 45%, Failure 50%
-Prevention 50%, Appraisal 35%, Failure 15%

Which of the following is considered to be a practice of "Lean Manufacturing"?

-Low levels of inventory
-Centralized management control
-Mass production
-Highly specialized workforce

Which process is recommended for those products with the lowest volume and the lowest standardization on the product continuum?

-Assembly line
-Batch
-Jumbled flow
-Continuous flow

Which of the following can negatively impact the learning curve, production costs, and schedule?

-Uninterrupted serial production
-Inconsistent product design
-Consistent product design
-Management emphasis on productivity improvement

Any Government employee can make changes to a contract as long as the Government will benefit from the changes.

-True
-False

With respect to product improvements, if a modification will not cause an increase in system performance, does not require extensive independent testing, and the system is currently in production, its development and test should be funded with ___________ and modification kits should be funded with ___________.

-Procurement; Operations & Maintenance (O&M)
-O&M; O&M
-Procurement; Procurement
-Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E); Procurement

Which of the following are duties of a Program Integrator (Select all that apply)?

-Lead and direct the program support team
-Administering day to day contractual activities after contract award
-"Eyes and ears" of the Program Manager
-Has a direct line of communication with the Procuring Contracting Officer
-Provide data to the Program Manager

Estimates based on learning curve theory may NOT apply if ________.

-The design of the product keeps changing
-Units of production are homogeneous
-The factory workforce remains stable
-The production process continues for 18 months without a break

What is the typical impact on a program's cost and schedule when unstable requirements lead to changes late in the system's development?

-Significantly negative impact on cost and schedule
-Negative impact on cost; no impact on schedule
-Marginally negative impact on cost and schedule
-No impact on cost; negative impact on schedule

Process proofing ensures that high risk areas, such as assembly methods and personnel training, are optimized _______________________.

-Before initial operational capability (IOC) is achieved
-Before entering the Operations and Support phase
-Before system integration is complete
-Before the start-up of full rate production

When a contractor begins work generated by a change order that does not have a full negotiated agreement on terms of work, cost, and schedule signed by both parties, a contract change has been initiated that is ___________.

-Unconstructive
-Constructive
-Undefinitized
-Definitized

Which leadership style expands the team's capabilities, creates a team identity, and inspires team members?

-Supervisory Leadership
-Team Leadership
-Participative Leadership
-None of the answers are correct.

Unresolved supportability issues may result in each of the following, except which one?

-Increased logistics footprint
-Increased cost
-Decreased reliability
-Increased operational availability (Ao)

The twelve logistics support elements include maintenance planning and management; manpower and personnel; supply support; support equipment; technical data; training and training support; computer resources; facilities and infrastructure; packaging, handling, storage, and transportation; design interface; sustaining engineering; and product support management.

-True
-False

When Congress does not appropriate sufficient funds to cover the cost of work to be performed under a contract, the Government may:

-Terminate the contract for convenience
-All of the answers are correct
-Terminate the contract for default
-Terminate the contract for cause

The contractor is solely responsible for providing post-production support.

-True
-False

What is the purpose of fielding/deployment planning?

-To ensure all functional disciplines will be integrated into system design.
-To ensure all necessary funding will be programmed to support the system throughout its useful life.
-To provide for a smooth introduction of the system to the user.
-To ensure the system will meet critical technical performance parameters established in the Capability Production Document.

Taking a contractual dispute to court should be the first step in attempting to resolve controversy between the disputing parties.

-True
-False

Which core ethical value are you violating if you reject an opposing point of view during a disagreement and call it a shortsighted, uninformed way to look at the situation?

-Civic virtue and citizenship
-Trustworthiness
-Respect
-Responsibility

-True
-False

A program manager should normally look for opportunities to integrate developmental testing (DT) and operational testing (OT) in order to save time and money.

-True
-False

Program cost increases and schedules slips are most likely caused by __________________, changes to the design, and changes to the production processes.

-Changes to the number of systems ordered
-Robust and accurate configuration management
-Well-defined and documented technical data packages
-Changes to user capability needs

An Early Operational Assessment is typically conducted to _____________________.

-Support the decision to begin low rate initial production (LRIP)
-Meet the requirement to conduct initial operational test and evaluation (IOT&E)
-Track the evolution of critical technical parameters against the system design
-Identify potential operational effectiveness and suitability issues during system development

The management of internal interface design would usually be the responsibility of the _____________?

-Independent Test and Evaluation Agency
-Joint Interoperability Test Command
-Government Program Manager
-Contractor

-Use metrics to manage
-Use system based software design
-Assess reuse risks and cost
-Inspect requirements and design

When a program deviation occurs, the Program Manager should notify the Milestone Decision Authority within 90 days of the occurrence.

-True
-False

The below-threshold maximum amount of Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds that can be moved into a program element is __________.

-$5 million
-$15 million
-$2 million
-$10 million

The _______ defines design requirements and is primarily documented by the Item Performance Specifications.

-Maintenance Baseline
-Product Baseline
-Functional Baseline
-Allocated Baseline

The final outcome of using the cause-and-effect (Fishbone) diagram is to identify the problem statement.

-True
-False

Which technical review is held during the Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase to assess the final design after the "build to" baseline has been achieved?

-Test Readiness Review (TRR)
-Critical Design Review (CDR)
-Preliminary Design Review (PDR)
-System Requirements Review (SRR)

-Product Quality Manager / Lead System Integrator
-Financial Manager / Cost Analyst
-Program Manager / Milestone Decision Authority
-Systems Engineer / Test Engineer

A Government official who obligates the Government on a contract without having sufficient funds to cover that expense has violated the _______________.

-Anti-Deficiency Act
-Reprogramming Thresholds
-Misappropriation Act
-Bona Fide Need Rule (NOT THIS ONE)

When using a cause-oriented approach to resolve acquisition problems, it is important to ____________________.

-Focus exclusively on problem history
-Analyze symptoms only (NOT THIS ONE)
-Identify all possible causes
-Place blame on the responsible person/people

Where would the initial Functional Baseline be reviewed to ensure that it covers all the Government's capability needs?

-Test Readiness Review
-Preliminary Design Review (NOT THIS ONE)
-Systems Functional Review
-Critical Design Review

Effective ________________ is multi-faceted and includes managing the impact of changes on system operation, interoperability, long-term maintenance, and the technical data package (TDP).

-Configuration Management
-Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
-Earned Value Management (EVM)
-Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD)

What are some of the planning challenges that must be considered when taking commercial items and modifying them for military use (Select all that apply)?

-Long-term logistics support
-Management of government furnished equipment
-Maintain technical data
-Integration
-Availability of test ranges and personnel

-True
-False

Which of the following configuration baselines provides the details from which a contractor can transition from design to production of a system?

-Allocated Baseline
-Configuration Management Baseline
-Product Baseline
-Functional Baseline

-Reliability and maintainability / compliance
-Configuration management / compliance
-Interoperability performance/ interoperability
-Achievement of key performance parameters (KPPs) / compliance

Which test would a contractor conduct on a software item before they integrate it with hardware?

-Environmental Testing
-Production Qualification Testing
-Component Testing
-Production Acceptance Test and Evaluation

A(n) ________ occurs when an authorized federal employee signs a document that legally binds the Government to a future expenditure; a(n) _____________ occurs when the Government check is cashed and money is withdrawn from the Treasury.

-Expenditure; obligation
-Commitment; obligation
-Obligation; outlay

When would the decision be made about the number of low rate initial production articles to produce?

-Milestone A
-Milestone B
-Milestone C
-Milestone D

The following data is received from your contractor: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP) = $200 Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.8 Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) = $300 Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 0.66 Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) = $250 Budget at Completion (BAC) = $800 Contractor's Latest Revised Estimate = $900 Equation for Estimate at Completion (EAC) Low = ACWP+((BAC-BCWP)/(CPI)) Equation for EAC High = ACWP+((BAC-BCWP)/(CPI*SPI)) Which of the following represents the most reasonable EAC range for these data based on Earned Value Management (EVM)?

-EAC Low: $900 ? EAC High: $1,500
-EAC Low: -$1,000 ? EAC High: $1,500
-EAC Low: $900 ? EAC High: $1,375
-EAC Low: $1,000 ? EAC High: $1,386

The Integrated Baseline Review (IBR) assesses the validity of the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) and the Integrated Master Schedule (IMS). Which of the following is NOT an IBR outcome goal?

-Confirming that the contractor is compliant with ISO 9000
-Ensuring that work scope schedules are consistent with contract delivery requirements
-Determining that the PMB and IMS are realistic and achievable
-Determining that all contract work scope requirements are baselined

__________________ enables the Government to see how much work was planned to be done compared to how much work was actually done.

-Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD)
-Earned Value Management (EVM)
-Configuration Management
-Enterprise Resource Management (ERM)

A(n) ______________________ can be used for predicting program obligation performance and funding requirements and identifying potential budget execution problems.

-Spending Plan
-Commitment Plan
-Progress Payment

What type of test would normally be conducted on actual production items to make sure they comply with the requirements specified in the contract?

-Production Acceptance Testing and Evaluation (PAT&E)
-Production Qualification Testing (PQT)
-Initial Operational Test and Evaluation
-Live Fire Test and Evaluation

To minimize current and future funding risks, Program Management Offices use __________________ to project and track obligations and expenditures.

-Spending Plans
-Fielding Plans
-Acquisition Plans
-Life Cycle Sustainment Plans

With modeling and simulation, we model the system and then test the ______________ to gather test predictions.

-Software
-System
-Subsystems
-Model

The following data is received from your contractor on a key component of the project: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP) = $300 Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) = $200 Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) = $500 Which of the following Earned Value Management (EVM) metrics can be determined from these data?

-CV = - $200 and SV = $100
-CPI = 1.67 and SPI = 0.67
-%Spent = 66% and %Complete = 50%
-Cost Variance (CV) = $200 and Schedule Variance (SV) = - $100

Which of the following is FALSE about Measures of Effectiveness (MOEs)?

-They must be specific and objective.
-They are developed by the service developmental test agency.
-They are used in operational test and evaluation.
-They indicate whether a system meets established mission performance requirements.

What type of testing is performed to determine a weapon system's performance with respect to survivability and lethality?

-Live Fire Test and Evaluation
-Critical Technical Parameter (CTP) Assessment
-Production Acceptance Test and Evaluation
-Critical Operational Issue (COI) Analysis

What is your assessment about a program with a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.65?

-The project is only 65% complete at this point in time.
-The project is performing efficiently in regard to cost.
-The project is ahead of schedule, but we will need additional funds.
-The project is costing more than expected, and the contractor may need additional funds.

The service Developmental Test and Evaluation (DT&E) agency is responsible for the establishment of Critical Operational Issues (COIs).

-True
-False

Which of the following test items are determined by the Program Management Office that is developing the system?

-Critical Technical Parameters (CTPs)
-Measures of Effectiveness (MOEs)
-Critical Operational Issues (COIs)
-Measures of Suitability (MOSs)

Which of the following is a valid reason for rebaselining the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)?

-The plan for completing the remaining contract effort is no longer achievable.
-The cost and schedule earned value variance metrics exceed the OSD thresholds.
-The contractor projects that the Budget at Completion will exceed the Estimate at Completion.
-The Government agrees to a minor administrative modification to the contract.

Which of the following is FALSE?

-Exit criteria are not specific to a particular phase of an acquisition program.
-Exit criteria are measurable and demonstrable.
-Exit criteria help manage and reduce risk.
-Exit criteria must be successfully demonstrated before a program can proceed further.

Ultimately, the use of open systems design is expected to result in lower life cycle costs.

-True
-False

When making tradeoffs among competing features, what can be used to quantifiably compare alternatives by selecting, weighting, and applying criteria?

-Delphi technique
-Parametric modeling
-Least squares regression analysis
-Decision matrix

What problem-solving process is used within an Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) management process to provide a design that balances capability needs?

-Technical Performance Measurement
-Test and Evaluation
-Systems Engineering
-Configuration Management

During the Operational Test (OT) effort, the purpose of validation is to determine ______________________.

-The type and quantity of critical technical parameters to be monitored
-The number of test units and test ranges required for all test events
-Whether or not we have "built the right thing"
-The maximum capabilities of a system achievable under unrealistic operating conditions

Using ________________, as part of the life cycle logistics and systems engineering processes to influence the design, also helps to determine the most cost effective way to support the system throughout its life.

-Product Support Analysis (PSA)
-Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
-A Full-Up Systems-Level (FUSL) test
-An In-Service Review (ISR)

______________ shows how different parts of a system fit together from various perspectives as a system is designed and developed.

-Virtual Prototypes
-Technical Review
-Performance Measurement Baseline
-Technical Performance Measure

If three alternatives are equal in terms of initial cost and meeting performance requirements, the systems engineers should select the one that will result in the lowest life cycle costs.

-True
-False

The systems engineering process must address the need to sustain a system once it is deployed in the field or fleet.

-True
-False

Modeling and Simulation is a risk management tool that we use:

-To avoid conducting developmental and operational testing.
-Exclusively for mature designs that will be produced in quantity.
-Primarily in early development to support the Analysis of Alternatives.
-In virtually all phases of the acquisition life cycle.

One of the benefits of using redundant back-up systems is:

-Increased transportability
-Increased reliability
-Increased number of parts
-Increased size and weight

Tracking Technical Performance Measures on high-risk components should provide:

-Detailed program cost and schedule data
-A product and process oriented framework for the Work Breakdown Structure
-Early warning signs of potential performance problems
-A baseline for preparing the technical Statement of Work

The Affordable System Operational Effectiveness (ASOE) concept places emphasis on the system's ability to execute its mission, its reliability and maintainability, and ___________.

-Limiting the need for Software-embedded systems
-Automated Information Systems
-Cost-effective responsiveness of the supply chain
-Use of Commercial/Non-developmental items

Human Systems Integration (HSI), a supportability issue that every program should consider, addresses such factors as accessibility, visibility, testability, and ______________.

-Return on investment
-Mean logistics delay time
-Standardization
-Redundancy

In our decision matrix, Option 1 receives a "3" for speed and a "1" for cost, and Option 2 receives a "2" for speed and a "2" for cost. The speed criterion has been assigned a weight of 0.4 and the cost criterion has been assigned a weight of 0.6. In accordance with the decision matrix approach, which of the following statements is true?

-Option 1 is better than Option 2 because its total weighted score is lower.
-Option 1 and Option 2 each score a total of 1.8; therefore, either choice is fine.
-Option 2 is better than Option 1 because its total weighted score is higher.
-Option 1 is better than Option 2 because its total weighted score is higher.

Which is true about the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

-The WBS can be used to track key performance parameters against projected values as a system evolves over time.
-The WBS can be used to track contractor performance in terms of only cost against an established baseline.
-The WBS is a tool that can help identify and assess technical risk.
-The WBS cannot be used by contract personnel.

Which of the following supportability analysis tools is used for defense planning and performed to determine the best, most efficient location where an item can be repaired?

-Level of Repair Analysis (LORA)
-Preventive Maintenance
-Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
-Failure Modes and Effects Criticality Analysis (FMECA)

Availability is the key to system readiness. One of the contributors to system downtime is _____________________.

-Due to having all parts on hand before starting maintenance
-The ease with which the part can be viewed and accessed by the technician
-Administrative delays caused by personnel or paperwork
-The ease with which the required repair can be made by the technician

For a contract cost to be considered "allowable," it must be consistent with Government Cost Accounting Standards, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the terms of the contract, and the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). It must also be reasonable and:

-Reflected in the liabilities listed in the corporate balance sheet
-Fair and equitable to all parties, including all involved subcontractors
-Factored into the profitability ratios reported by the firm
-Allocable to the contract (in whole or in part) or to the overall cost of operating the business

A company's organizational structure supports its business strategy by:

-Using only the divisional organizational structure
-Having as many managers as possible
-Focusing on only one area
-Focusing resources where needed to achieve corporate goals and objectives

What form of information exchange would a Contracting Officer use to reach agreement with an offeror over the terms of a contract?

-Clarification
-Negotiation
-Discussion
-Communication

For a cost in a contract to be considered allowable, it must meet certain criteria. One of the criteria that must be met is that ______________________.

-The cost need not be in compliance with industry accounting standards
-The cost must be reasonable
-The cost must exceed what a prudent business person would incur
-The cost must be exempt from compliance with the Federal Acquisition Regulations

The Air Force is procuring maintenance services, and the Contracting Officer decides that no discussions are required to select the best contractor. However, the contractor's proposal has a typographical error showing period of performance beginning 1 June rather than 1 July. What type of information exchange would be used to resolve this discrepancy?

-Negotiations
-Communications
-Clarifications
-Solicitations

Items that are owned by a company are listed on which of the following financial statements?

-Statement of Cash Flows
-Income Statement
-Profitability Report
-Balance Sheet

In Government contracting, one criterion for cost allowability is that the contractor's costs must comply with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and _________________.

-Lean Manufacturing Principles
-Government Cost Accounting Standards (CAS)
-Cost as an Independent Variable (CAIV) Principles
-ISO 9001 Principles

During source selection, a contractor calls you with a question about the Request for Proposal (RFP). To whom should you refer this inquiry?

-Contracting Officer
-Deputy Program Manager
-Program Manager
-Lead Systems Engineer

During fact finding, the proposal reviewers submit their questions to the ________________.

-Contractor
-Program Manager
-Contracting Officer
-Subcontractor

Becoming thoroughly familiar with the solicitation and proposal(s), tabbing them for easy access, documenting questions, and submitting the questions to the contractor in advance are part of ____________________.

-Negotiation preparation
-Supportability analysis
-Request for proposal development
-Analysis of alternatives

Which is an attribute of an effective organizational structure?

-Ensures that top management makes all the decisions
-Facilitates stability and resistance to change
-Focuses solely on customer support
-Focuses on key products, programs, markets, and customers

Any cost necessary to the overall operation of the business is called __________.

-General and administrative (G&A) cost
-Direct labor cost
-Direct materials cost
-Overhead cost

Which is more likely to centralize functions in staff organizations that support all business areas or product lines?

-Smaller companies
-Non-governmental organizations
-Larger companies
-Divisional organizational structure

Using percentages or ratios based upon unforeseen differentials in prices, Forward Pricing Rates Agreements (FPRAs) protect the contractors by allowing an extra amount above and beyond the estimated quoted prices. Which of the following is NOT an example of an FPRA rate?

-Rates for spare parts provisioning
-Rates for corporate outings
-Rates for indirect materials
-Rates for material obsolescence and usage

Which one of the following is NOT considered a common problem for software-intensive systems?

-Poorly defined interfaces
-Overlooking hardware deficiencies
-Use of open systems architecture
-Lack of user involvement

-Format 4
-Format 3
-Format 2
-Format 1

Which of the following is NOT one of the methods used to achieve a producible design?

-Use standard components
-Introduce variability in the manufacturing process
-Minimize total number of parts
-Use a modular approach

Earned Value Management provides a sound basis for (Select all the apply):

-Identifying problems
-Managing the Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)
-Program Management Plan (PMP)
-Estimating probable completion times and costs
-Re-planning the project, if needed
-Establishing the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
-Taking corrective action

When designing software, DoD policy focuses on creating integrated architectures which include the operational architecture, systems architecture, and ________________.

-Technical architecture
-Functional architecture
-Subsystems architecture
-Mechanical architecture

When do the OSD Comptroller analyst and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) analyst hold hearings to review the service's budgets?

-Each year around October and November
-Every other year during July and August
-Once quarterly throughout the year
-Throughout the year as needed

Which of the following is a potential logistics support issue that tends to be associated with the acquisition of commercial and non-developmental items?

-Tradeoff between logistics reliability and system reliability
-Human systems integration factors
-Availability of replacement parts
-Design producibility

Which of the following best describes software management metrics?

-Metrics that impact performance, user satisfaction, supportability, and ease of change
-Metrics that quantify reliability, maintainability, flexibility and integrity
-Metrics that determine progress against the plan
-Metrics that deal with the maturity and robustness of the organizational processes used to develop the software

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when making tradeoffs among various functional areas to achieve a balanced design?

-Environmental concerns
-Profits from manufacturing
-Machinery
-Materials

The last step in developing a Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) is to:

-Budget the work
-Negotiate the contract cost
-Schedule the work
-Define and scope the work

A design that optimizes ease and economy of fabrication and assembly would be considered:

-Available
-Reliable
-Maintainable
-Producible

-Iterative
-Spiral
-Recurring
-Evolutionary

The extent of developmental testing and evaluation necessary on a commercial or non-developmental item depends on __________.

-The amount of modification required, the environment in which the item will be used, and the availability of test results.
-The availability of contractor logistics support for the item once it is fielded.
-The discretion of the Program Manager.
-The degree of early operational assessment (EOA) that can be conducted prior to the start of Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP).

A highly producible design will increase ___________.

-Parts shortages
-Total ownership costs
-Efficient use of materials with reduced waste
-Assembly errors

-The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) formats 1 through 7.
-The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 through 5 only.
-The contractor would not be required to submit any earned value related reports to the Program Management Office.
-The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with format 1 only.
-The contractor would submit either an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 through 5 or an Integrated Program Management Report with format 6, but not both.

The capability needs for a new software-intensive telecommunications system are well understood, but funding is not available to meet all the capabilities at once. The user is willing to field a basic system initially and add the rest of the capabilities over a period of three years. Which development model is best suited for this project?

-Waterfall model
-Incremental model
-Life cycle model
-Spiral model

In addition to the scope of contract work and the budget for the contract, the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) integrates the _________________.

-Over Target Baseline (OTB)
-To Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
-Integrated Master Plan (IMP)
-Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)

-True
-False

Productivity, rework, and technology impact are examples of which kind of software metric? [28f. Using DoD Practical Software Measurement methodology principles, select appropriate software measures to make sound decisions regarding acquisition of software intensive systems.]

Resource allocation
--> Process
Management
Quality

The extent of developmental testing and evaluation necessary on a commercial or non-developmental item depends on __________. [29e. Identify key issues regarding Test and Evaluation (T&E) of commercial and non-developmental (NDI) items.]

--> The amount of modification required, the environment in which the item will be used, and the availability of test results.

The availability of contractor logistics support for the item once it is fielded.

The discretion of the Program Manager.

The degree of early operational assessment (EOA) that can be conducted prior to the start of Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP).

Changes made late in development or early in production usually have less impact on program cost and schedule than changes made early. [36a. Recognize the impact of manufacturing on cost, schedule and performance.]

True
--> False

The contractor would not be required to submit any earned value related reports to the Program Management Office.

The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 through 5 only.

The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1, 5, 6 and 7.

The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 only.
5.

X The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 through 7.

If a computer monitor was initially designed for use in a home or office environment, and the Navy decided to modify it for use on board ship, an early operational assessment (EOA) of that monitor would likely be conducted. [31b. Identify the role of Early Operational Assessment (EOA) and Operational Assessment (OA) in reducing program risk.]

--> True
False

The Integrated Program Management Report has seven formats. Which one of the formats reports current and cumulative performance element data broken out by Contract WBS? [21a Revised: Identify the purpose and content of the Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR).]

--> Format 1
Format 2
Format 3
Format 4
Format 5

Some of the user capability needs of a new automated information system for logistics support are ill-defined and still evolving. Sufficient time and money is expected to be available for the project. Which development mode is BEST suited for a developer to sue for this project? [27a. Given a software-intensive system (sucks as a telecommunications or guidance system), select an appropriate software development technology.]

--> Spiral model
Waterfall model
Incremental model
Life cycler model

Which one of the following is a method of designing for producibility? [36d. Identify the methods and objectives of manufacturing that influence system design.]

--> Minimize assembly requirements
Maximize the number of parts used
Limit the functions performed by each part
Use a wide variety of component parts

The second step in developing a Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) is to: [20b. Identify the steps in the development of the initial Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB).]

Budget the work (last/3rd step)
Negotiate the contract cost
--> Schedule the work (2nd step)
Define and scope the work (1st step)

Which one of the following leads to problems, particularly for software-intensive systems? [26d. Identify common ways that software-intensive projects have gotten into trouble.]

Risk management reporting requirements Affordability objectives established by the user
--> Poorly-defined architecture and interfaces
Diversity of vendor, expert, and end user perspectives

Manufacturing tradeoffs are made through the design process among three areas: producibility, cost, and _______? [Distinguish from a young the types of tradeoffs that may be required to attain a producible design.]

X Schedule
Sustainability
Operational capabilities
Provisioning

As part of the overall systems engineering process, manufacturing must be integrated into the design process to ___? [Recognize the relationship of manufacturing to the systems engineering process.]

Develop the estimated labor time
Capture tooling and repair costs
Provide the number of producible designs
--> Reduce program risk

In addition to the scope of contract work and the budget for the contract, the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) integrates the _____. [Identify the relationship of the PMB to program objectives.]

X Over Target Baseline (OTB)
To Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
Integrated Master Plan (IMP)
--> Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)

The _______ makes adjustments to the Services' budget submission to OSD. [Identify the key events in budgeting phase, including the preparation, review and decision process associated with BES, RMD, and Reclamas.]

Program Element (PE)
Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
Future Years Defense Program (FYDP)
--> Resource Management Decision (RMD)

Under what conditions would contractor logistics support be most appropriate for a non-developmental item (NDI) communications device being acquired by the U.S. Army? [33a. Recognize key logistics related acquisition policies and their impact (e.g., Life-Cycle Cost, Contractor Logistics Support, Commercial and Non-Development Items).]

--> The configuration of the device is expected to change frequently to incorporate technological advances as they become available

Major modifications are required before the device can be integrated within Army helicopters

The Army is expected to keep the device in its inventory for at least 20 years

The device is planned for use in combat situations in environments ranging from jungles to deserts to cold regions

DoD policy requires all new and upgraded Command, Control, Communications, Computers, and Intelligence (C4I) acquisitions to comply with DoD Information Technology Standards Registry (DISR). [Identify typical software development life cycle activities and standards.]

--> True
False

Earned Vale Management provides a sound basis for (Select all that apply): [Recognize the importance of earned value as a management tool.]

--> Estimating probable completion times and costs
--> Taking corrective action
Managing the Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)
--> Identifying problems
Program Management Plan (PMP)
---> Re-planning the project, if needed
Establishing the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

NOT
Estimating probable completion times and costs
--> Taking corrective action
Managing the Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)
--> Identifying problems
Program Management Plan (PMP)
Re-planning the project, if needed
--> Establishing the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

As part of the overall systems engineering process, there are a variety of software development methods, but the three most common at DoD are the Waterfall Approach, the Incremental Approach, and the ______________ Approach. [Recognize the relationship between software development activities and the systems engineering process.]

Iterative
--> Spiral
Recurring
Evolutionary

Which of the following is a true statement about the Product Support Strategy Process Model?

-It enables the identification of supportability and sustainment strategies near the end of the life.
-It is an iterative process in which the sustainment of a system (or systems) is adapted and evolved to optimally support the needs and requirements of the Warfighter.
-It is a continuing process that assists in the identification and evolution of the PSM IPT.
-It is a one-time process that defines the needs and requirements of the Warfighter early in the life cycle.

Executive Orders on environmental activities and policy, sometimes referred to as "Greening the Government":

-States that Major Program Managers must take and pass formal training in environmental protection.
-Directs all Federal Agencies to establish plans to improve energy efficiency, reduce greenhouse gas emissions, conserve and protect water resources and reduce or eliminate toxic or hazardous materials.
-Exempts less-than-ACAT I programs from compliance with National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) procedures if they have an approved Environmental Impact Statement.
-Applies only to ACAT I and ACAT II programs.

Which one of the following test and evaluation (T&E) products is required at Milestone C?

-DOT&E Report on Initial Operational Test and Evaluation (IOT&E)
-Operational Assessment (OA) Results
-Early Operational Assessment (EOA)
-Live Fire Test and Evaluation (LFT&E) Report

How does a program management office show the sequence and interrelationship of all the business and technical activities required to accomplish the acquisition?

-Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) Plan (NOT THIS ONE)
-Risk Management Plan
-Acquisition Strategy - Program Structure Chart
-Integrated Systems Engineering/Business Management Plan

A TEMP (either initial or updated, as appropriate) must be provided for consideration and approval before each milestone review, starting with Milestone B.

-True
-False

The ____________________ provides military intelligence to defense policy makers, force planners and warfighters in DOD in support of weapons system acquisition.

-Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
-Director of National Intelligence (DNI)
-Army Intelligence
-National Security Agency (NSA)

-increased logistics footprint
-unnecessary schedule delays
-fewer costly changes made later in the process
-complicated detail design reviews

The purpose of the Program Protection Plan (PPP) is to help programs ensure that they adequately protect their technology, components, and information. It is used to develop __________________ for dissemination and implementation throughout the program for which it is created.

-System security engineering plans
-Updated criticality analysis
-Counterintelligence analytical products
-Tailored protection guidance

Transitioning to Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) will involve application of certain key tenets, such as customer focus, concurrent development, and:

-Risk avoidance
-Reliance on independent organizations
-Event-driven scheduling
-Supervisory leadership

In which phase of the life cycle does the Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP) focus on how sustainment performance is measured, managed, assessed, and reported?

-TMRR Phase
-P&D Phase
-EMD Phase
-O&S Phase

The Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) is mandated by DoD policy and must be updated periodically to ensure that it stays current as the program evolves through the life cycle.

-True
-False

Operational Measures of Effectiveness (MOE) and Measures of Suitability (MOS) are formally documented in the ________.

-Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
-Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)
-Acquisition Strategy
-Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP)

The final approval authority for system-related National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) documentation is the:

-Program Manager (PM)
-Component Acquisition Executive (CAE)
-Environmental coordinator
-Under Secretary of Defense (Environmental Security)

Barriers to successful implementation of Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) include the following (Select all that apply):

-Poorly run meetings or reviews
-Need for significant cultural change
-Empowered, qualified team members
-Open discussions with no secrets
-Contractor uses IPPD / DoD does not

Each of the following issues impact test planning and execution activities except one. Select the one that is NOT a test planning/execution issue.

-Limited test articles
-Limited test time
-Limited test reports
-Limited test resources

Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC) has primary responsibility for developmental test and evaluation (T&E) functions throughout DoD.

-True
-False

The risk management model includes risk planning, risk identification, ___________, risk handling, and risk monitoring.

-Risk handling (NOT THIS ONE)
-Risk control
-Risk avoidance
-Risk analysis

Which one of the following organizations would conduct testing on the flight controls of a fighter aircraft to ensure it will meet the critical technical parameters (CTPs) derived from the Capability Development Document (CDD)?

-Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA)
-Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC)
-Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC)
-Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

DoD policy is to consider international cooperative development only after U.S.-only solutions have been shown to be impractical.

-True
-False

Sources of risk include:

-Production
-All of the answers are correct
-Design
-Schedule

who would certify the interoperability performance of a command and control system used by both the Army and the Navy?

Joint Interoperability Test Command

If the program is on the DOT&E Oversight List, which one of the following test and evaluation (T&E) products is required before the full rate production decision review?

DOT&E report on initial operational test and evaluation

One of the primary disadvantages of international cooperative development includes

increased documentation

system-specific validated online lifecycle threat (VOLT) reports are required to be kept current and validated throughout the acquisition process. All major defense acquisition programs (MDAPs) must have a updated VOLT in place at:

Milestone A (TMRR phase)

the risk management model includes risk planning, risk identification, ____________, risk handling, and risk monitoring.

risk analysis

regarding test and evaluation (T&E) issues that may affect a program's acquisition strategy, the program office can use _________ to aid in understanding the implications of any necessary tradeoffs among testing constraints.

design of experiments (DOE)

as part of the program protection plan (PPP), cybersecurity is a critical priority for DoD. Effective cybersecurity in DoD acquisition programs encompasses all of the necessary actions taken to ensure the ____________ of a system's information to enable warfighting operations.

confidentiality, integrity and availability (CIA)

The joint staff has oversight for certifying interoperability capability requirements for the army, navy, air force, and marine corps are valid.

true

the first key step of the product support strategy process model includes which of the following?

understanding warfighter requirements in terms of performance.

A TEMP (either initial or updated, as appropriate) must be provided for consideration and approval before each milestone review, starting with milestone B.

false

the acquisition strategy should normally be generated using an integrated product team (IPT) approach, including representation from all players listed below EXCEPT

milestone decision authority (MDA)

which of the following is a key tenet of integrated product and process development (IPPD)?

multidisciplinary teamwork

Using the Standard Capability Maturity Model Integration Appraisal Method for Process Improvement (SCAMPI), an organization whose acquisition processes are well documented and standardized would be rated at least:

-Level 1
-Level 2
-Level 3
-Level 4

When selecting a software developer, which of the following should contractors possess (Select all that apply)?

-Successful past performance record
-Domain experience in developing comparable software systems
-Maturity level four
-Demonstrable mature software development capability and processes

With regard to exceptions to the full funding policy, _________ funds are budgeted as a separate procurement line item from the related end item.

-Multiyear Procurement
-Incremental
-Advance Procurement
-Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP)

Earned value management (EVM) reports are available to help the program manager (PM) track the contractor's cost, schedule, and performance against a Performance Measurement Baseline.

-True
-False

In the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process, one result of the programming activities is the __________

-Future Years Development Program (FYDP)
-Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
-Defense Planning Guidance (DPG)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

If a contractor chooses to use their own quality system, they must demonstrate compliance with the established military standard through formal third party certification.

-True
-False

The Contracting Officer's responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT

-Preparing the request for proposal
-Managing performance of the contractor on a daily basis
-Conducting discussions with potential offerors in response to a solicitation
-Making a modification to an existing contract

A _______ is an aggregation of program elements that reflects a macro-level force mission or support mission of DoD.

-Future Years Defense Program (FYDP)
-Budget
-Major Force Program (MFP)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

If your procurement budget request did not provide for buying a whole number of useable end items, this would be a violation of which funding policy?

-Annual Funding
-Full Funding
-Incremental Funding
-Deficit Funding

Small business set-asides require the expectation that at least three capable small disadvantaged businesses will submit offers.

-True
-False

Which of the following describes DoD's policy on acquiring data rights?

-Acquire only those data rights that are essential to meeting minimum Government needs.
-Acquire the maximum data rights possible within the scope of the contract.
-Acquire unlimited data rights unless there is compelling justification to do otherwise.
-Acquire restricted data rights to protect the contractor's right to use, modify, reproduce, release or disclose data to the general public.

Configuration management helps control software items and shared information

-True
-False

For DoD computer-based systems such as automated information systems and command and control systems, standard information technology interfaces are defined in the:

-Capability Maturity Model Integrated
-International Standard ISO 9000
-Military Interoperability Protocol (NOT THIS ONE)
-DoD IT Standards Registry (DISR)

The __________ presents the Component's (Service/Agencies) proposal for service resources within specified constraints to satisfy the Defense Planning Guidance (DPG).

-Budget Estimate Decision (BED)
-Resource Management Decision (RMD)
-Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

The Government must conduct appropriate market research before soliciting offers from potential contractors. Various IPT members can participate. Cost analysts can provide input on_______________________________.

-developing product descriptions (NOT THIS ONE)
-modifying the user's requirements
-proper contract pricing information
-modifying the available products

In a ________ type of contract, the contractor bears virtually all the financial risk associated with procurement.

-Cost plus incentive fee
-Sole source
-Firm fixed price
-Cost plus award fee

Escalation allows us to make predictions about future costs based on:

-Expected inflation rates and affordability analyses
-Expected inflation and outlay rates
-Expected outlay rates and affordability trade-offs
-Expected cost/performance trade-offs and affordability analyses

The Army receives proposals from eight different companies in response to a Request for Proposal (RFP). The contracting Officer has identified the most highly rated proposals, determined the competitive range, and wants to get the offerors' best and final proposals. What type of information exchange would the Contracting Officer use to get the information needed to allow the offerors to revise their proposals?

Negotiations

The ________ shows the financial condition of the firm at a point in time expressed as assets and liabilities.

Balance Sheet

Which is an attribute of an effective organizational structure?

Focuses on key products, programs, markets, and customers.

Negotiations cannot take place until after the Source Selection Authority has awarded the contract.

False

Rates of corporate outings

Engineering expenses attributable solely to a contract are an example of _____.

Direct labor costs

Which of the following is something you should NOT do during negotiations?

Reach agreements on how to perform tasks.

During source selection, evaluators reviewing the proposals and compiling their questions for individual offerors is commonly referred to as _____.

Fact finding

For a contract cost to be considered "allowable," it must be consistent with Government Cost Accounting Standards, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the terms of the contract ,and the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). It must also be reasonable and:

Which is more likely to decentralize staff functions, dedicating them to each business or product organization?

Larger companies

To implement a company's business strategy, an effective organizational structure will:

Support the company's vision

The costs included in a contract must be evaluated to determine whether they are allowable. During this process, the Government and the contractor can agree that a certain costs will be considered unallowable.

True

During source selection, you are evaluating a proposal and you have some questions for the offeror. What should you do?

Convey your questions to the contracting officer to send to the offeror

Tradeoffs in cost involve examining the development of alternative designs, ______ and the required industrial base capability.

- Unique components
- System life cycle costs
- Required technology
- Methods of production

Some of the user capability needs of a new automated information system for logistics support are ill defined and still evolving. Sufficient time and money is expected to be available for the project. Which development mode is BEST suited for a developer to use for this project?

- Life cycle model
- Waterfall model
- Incremental model
- Spiral model

___ is an important management tool that is used to monitor and manage the contract and/or project performance by emphasizing the planning and integration of program cost, schedule, and performance factor.

- Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
- Earned Value Management (EVM)
- Program Management Plan (PMP)
- Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)

In which of the following situations is early operational testing least likely to be required for a non-developmental item (NDI)?

- When the NDI has been significantly modified
- When the NDI will be maintained by the contractor and used in the same environment for which it was designed.
- When the NDI will be used in an environment different from that for which it was designed.
- When the NDI is being integrated into a larger system

Program Managers can use data from the Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR), including the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) to integrate ____ and ____ performance data with objective technical measures of performance.

- Maintainability / supportability
- Producibility / sustainability
- Reliability / availability
- Cost / schedule

In order to reduce the risks inherent in software acquisition, systems engineering activities should begin ___ in the process, and contractors should utilize ____ development methods.

- Midway / single-step
- Early / iterative
- After Milestone C / iterative
- Early / single-step

The integrated Program Management Report has seven formats. Which one of the format reports current and cumulative performance element data broken out by Contract WBS?

- Format 1
- Format 2
- Format 3
- Format 4
- Format 5

The Army awards a Firm Fixed-Price (FFP) contract to procure $1 billion in unmanned ground vehicles with a period of performance of two years. What reports, if any, must the Army Program Manager (PM) require the contractor to provide regarding their cost, schedule, and technical performance?

- The contractor would submit an integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 through 5 only.
- The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with format 1 only.
- The contractor would submit an integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1 through 7.
- The contractor would submit an Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) with formats 1, 3, and 6 only.
- The contractor would not be required to submit any earned value related reports to the Program Management Office.

Which one of the following is NOT considered a common problem for software-intensive systems?

- Use of open systems architecture
- Lack of user involvement
- Poorly defined interfaces
- Overlooking hardware deficiencies

Changes made late in development or early in production usually have less impact on program cost and schedule than changes made early in development.

- True
- False

The Resource Management Decision (RMD) is used to adjust the ____, which translates programming decisions into budgeting decisions.

- Acquisition Program Baseline (APB)
- Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
- Capability Development Document (CDD)
- Defense Planning Guidance (DPG)

DoD policy requires all new and upgraded Command, Control, Communications, Computers, and Intelligence (C4I) acquisitions to comply with DoD Information Technology Standards Registry (DISR).

- True
- False

A producible design is the output of the systems engineering process which drives manufacturing.

- True
- False

The second step in developing a Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) is to:

- Schedule the work
- Define and scope the work
- Prepare the Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR)
- Budget the work

When using commercial and non-developmental items, the need for testing and evaluation is eliminated.

- True
- False

We must be careful when making Government unique modifications to commercial or non-developmental items because ____.

- The modifications may invalidate the available testing and usage data.
- Modifications to commercial items are not consistent with acquisition reform initiatives.
- The modifications may not be necessary to accomplish the operational need.
- All benefits of acquiring a commercial or non-developmental item are lost when a modification is made to that item.

Which of the following best describes software management metrics?*

- Metrics that deal with the maturity and robustness of the organizational processes used to develop the software.
- Metrics that quantify reliability, maintainability, flexibility and integrity.
- Metrics that impact performance, user satisfaction, supportability, and ease of change.
- Metrics that determine progress against the plan.

Which one of the following is a method of designing for producibility?

- Maximize the number of parts used
- Limit the functions performed by each part
- Minimize assembly requirements
- Use a wide variety of component parts

-Level 1
-Level 2
-Level 3
-Level 4

When selecting a software developer, which of the following should contractors possess (Select all that apply)?

-Successful past performance record
-Domain experience in developing comparable software systems
-Maturity level four
-Demonstrable mature software development capability and processes

With regard to exceptions to the full funding policy, _________ funds are budgeted as a separate procurement line item from the related end item.

With regard to exceptions to the full funding policy, funds used to procure long lead items for a system with the intent to provide program continuity are known as

-Multiyear Procurement
-Incremental
-Advance Procurement
-Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP)

Earned value management (EVM) reports are available to help the program manager (PM) track the contractor's cost, schedule, and performance against a Performance Measurement Baseline.

-True
-False

In the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process, one result of the programming activities is the __________

-Future Years Development Program (FYDP)
-Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
-Defense Planning Guidance (DPG)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

If a contractor chooses to use their own quality system, they must demonstrate compliance with the established military standard through formal third party certification.

-True
-False

The Contracting Officer's responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT

A _______ is an aggregation of program elements that reflects a macro-level force mission or support mission of DoD.

-Future Years Defense Program (FYDP)
-Budget
-Major Force Program (MFP)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

If your procurement budget request did not provide for buying a whole number of useable end items, this would be a violation of which funding policy?

-Annual Funding
-Full Funding
-Incremental Funding
-Deficit Funding

Small business set-asides require the expectation that at least three capable small disadvantaged businesses will submit offers.

-True
-False

Which of the following describes DoD's policy on acquiring data rights?

Configuration management helps control software items and shared information

-True
-False

For DoD computer-based systems such as automated information systems and command and control systems, standard information technology interfaces are defined in the:

-Capability Maturity Model Integrated
-International Standard ISO 9000
-Military Interoperability Protocol (NOT THIS ONE)
-DoD IT Standards Registry (DISR)

The __________ presents the Component's (Service/Agencies) proposal for service resources within specified constraints to satisfy the Defense Planning Guidance (DPG).

-Budget Estimate Decision (BED)
-Resource Management Decision (RMD)
-Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

-[[developing product descriptions (INCORRECT)]]
-modifying the user's requirements
-[[proper contract pricing information (INCORRECT)]]
-modifying the available products

In a ________ type of contract, the contractor bears virtually all the financial risk associated with procurement.

-Cost plus incentive fee
-Sole source
-Firm fixed price
-Cost plus award fee

Escalation allows us to make predictions about future costs based on:

If the Government has funded the entire development of an item, the Government is entitled to _____ rights.

-Unlimited
-Limited
-Restricted
-Government purpose

Which of the following is NOT a required characteristic of a contractor's quality management process?

-Monitor and control product variation
-Establish a feedback mechanism
-Implement a system for corrective action
-Appraise the product and inspect in quality

What is the Government's basic purpose of using the Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) and the associated Standard CMMI Appraisal Method for Process Improvement (SCAMPI) assessment process?

-It is a model of the specific software to be used in a program.
-Allows the contractor to rate their own software development processes and experience on a multi-level scale. The Government would then look at the contractor's self-assessment to produce defect-free software at a predicted cost and schedule.
-Is used by contractors to show clients how they develop various types of software.
-To rate potential software developers on their ability to produce software at a predicted cost and schedule using a four-level capability scale and a five-level maturity scale.

An 8a small disadvantaged business graduates from the 8a program after ____ years.

-9
-11
-5
-7

DoD services and agencies submit Program Objectives Memorandum (POM) to OSD, "and OSD issues the Resource Management Decision (RMD)" during which phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process?

-Programming
-Budgeting
-Planning
-Execution

the government must conduct appropriate market research before soliciting offers from potential contractors. Various IPT members can participate. Cost analysts can provide input on ________.

-modifying the available products
-modifying the user's requirements
-developing product descriptions
-proper contract pricing information

responsibility for awarding the contract and any modifications for government contracts rests with the _____.

-Program Manager
-Contracting Officer
-Head of the Contracting Agency
-Defense Contract Audit Agency

Interoperability of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems is confirmed through testing overseen by the ____.

-Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (USD, (A&S))
-Joint Staff
-Director, Developmental Test and Evaluation (DDT&E)
-Joint Interoperability Test Command (JITC)

Which of the following are "best practices" that may be appropriate for software intensive programs (Select all that apply)?

(INCORRECT COMBINATION)
-Use metrics to manage and monitor risk
-Generate new code whenever possible
-Consider the risks of reusing existing software
-To speed development, only test software at completion

-Use metrics to manage and monitor risk

Full funding policy applies to the ____ appropriation category and states that ____.

-Procurement and Military Construction; DoD is to fund the total costs incurred to deliver a given quantity of useable end items.
-RDT&E; DoD is to fund the total costs to be incurred over a 12-month period.
-[[Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E); DoD is to fund the total costs incurred to develop and test a given quantity of useable end items. (INCORRECT)]]
-Procurement; DoD is to fund the total costs to be incurred over a 12-month period.

When financial managers adjust for cost inflation in programming and budgeting, they usually:

-Prepare initial estimates in base-year (constant) dollars and escalate costs into then-year (current) dollars
-Refer to Federal Reserve Board guidelines on outlay rates and income flows
-Revise their Program Objectives Memorandum (POM) submission based on the Resource Management Decision (RMD) released by the Deputy Secretary of Defense
-Expect investment appropriations, such as Procurement and Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDTE), to have quick outlay rates

Each Component (Services/Agencies) uses the guidance provided by the Planning phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process to prepare its proposal for all available resources, including funding, force structure and personnel end strength, over a five year period. This proposal, submitted to the Secretary of Defense, is known as the:

-Defense Planning Guidance (DPG)
-Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)
-[[Budget Estimate Submission (BES) (INCORRECT)]]
-President's Budget (PB)

The primary unit of data in the future years defense program (FYDP) and normally the smallest aggregation of resources controlled by the office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) is the ____.

-Defense Appropriation Item
-Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Cost Center
-Program Element
-Appropriation Line Item

in a _____ contract, the Government bears the financial risk of increased costs.

-Competitively awarded
-Cost plus fixed fee
-Firm fixed price
-Sole source

When selecting a software developer, years of experience in the software business should be the most important consideration. The amount of experience a contractor has developing the specific type of software needed is not as important as experience in general.

-True
-False

To ensure interoperability, compliance with the DoD IT Standards Registry (DISR) is required for all command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems and automated information systems acquired within DoD.

-True
-False

When are all seven Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) formats required?

-Fixed price contracts of $15 million or less
-Cost and incentive contracts of $50 million or more
-All DoD contracts
-Cost and incentive contracts of $15 million or less

In order to ensure that a contractor has an acceptable quality assurance system in place, the Government can require that a contractor be ISO 9001 certified.

-True
-False

Contracts greater than $100,000 are reserved for small business.

-True
-False

an example of participation in market research by the technical Integrated Product Team (IPT) members would be their evaluation of existing commercial products and non-developmental items (NDI)

-True
-False

three of the items below are considered best practices for software development. Which one of them is NOT a best practice for software development?

-Track defects against quality targets
-Practice configuration management and interface control
-Minimize the use of commercial software to reduce risk
-[[Use metrics (INCORRECT)]]

which of the following exceptions to the full funding policy would allow the government to budget for buying three years' worth of engines under one contract in order to save money?

-Advance Procurement
-Multiyear Procurement
-Incremental
-Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP)

Financial managers use escalation to consider the effects of inflation on an acquisition program by applying:

-Full funding policy to defense procurement appropriations requested in the budget
-Compound and composite indices to program cost estimates
-Incremental funding policy to Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) appropriations requested in the Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)
-[[Inflation factors to actual costs incurred by the contractor (INCORRECT)]]

The ____ assumes responsibility for monitoring how the contractor is doing in terms of cost, schedule, and technical performance

-Program Executive Office
-Program Manager
-Business/Financial manager
-Procuring Contracting Officer

In the process of conducting design considerations, a program's systems engineers are deciding from among Components A, B, and C. All three components meet performance requirements. Component C has the highest initial cost; however, due to its superior reliability, it is projected to lead to lower life cycle costs than Components A and B in the long run, and this will help meet the program's affordability goals. This is adequate justification forthe team to select Component C.

- True
- False

Which of the following supportability analysis tools relies on scheduled maintenance to spot a failure before it impacts system effectiveness?

- Level of Repair Analysis (LORA)
- Failure Modes, Effects and Criticality Analysis (FMECA)
- Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
- Test, Analyze, Fix and Test (TAFT)

In our decision matrix, Option 1 receives a "3" for reliability and a "2" for cost, and Option 2 receives a "1" for reliability and a "3" for cost. The reliability criterion has been assigned a weight of 0.4 and the cost criterion has been assigned a weight of 0.6. In accordance with the decision matrix approach, which of the following statements is true?

- Option 2 is better than Option 1 because its total weighted score is lower.
- Option 1 and Option 2 each score a total of 2.5, therefore, either choice is fine.
- Option 1 is better than Option 2 because its total weighted score is higher.
-Option 2 is better than Option 1 because its total weighted score is higher.

Modeling and simulation can enhance the Systems Engineering process by:

- Providing designs that will consistently exceed functional capabilities.
- Eliminating technical risk before production begins.
- Helping IPT members to understand the interrelationship of components without physically changing the system.
- Quickly providing physical solutions to meet functional capabilities.

In accordance with DoD acquisition policy and guidance, every program should consider, at a minimum, ______, human systems integration, reliability, availability, and maintainability.

- Open systems architecture
- Return on assets
- Profit margin
- Return on investment

Which Systems Engineering tool would be used to describe the products to be developed under the terms of the contract?

- Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
- Technical Performance Measurement (TPM)
- Modeling and Simulation
- Trade Study

When making tradeoffs among competing features, what can be used to quantifiably compare alternatives by selecting, weighting, and applying criteria?

- Parametric modeling
- Decision matrix
- Delphi technique
- Least squares regression analysis

During the Developmental Test (DT) effort, the purpose of verification is to determine ______.

- Appropriate technical performance measures for a program
- Solutions to any unplanned technical issues that may arise
- Whether or not the system meets its "build to" specifications
- The needed capabilities to reduce the program's technical risk

What problem-solving process is used within an integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD) management process to provide a design that balances capability needs?

- Technical Performance Measurement
- Configuration Management
- Systems Engineering
- Test and Evaluation

A strategy that adopts interface standards that are defined by and widely used throughout industry to facilitate the update of components with new technology is _____?

- Non-developmental items
- Software-embedded systems
- Automated information systems
- Open systems

Reliability is how long an item or system will perform its function before it breaks. Good reliability will _____.

- Increase manpower waste
- Increase life cycle sustainment costs
- Decrease system readiness
- Decrease logistics support requirements

Which of the following design features is NOT likely to improve supportability?

- Use of minimum number of different sizes screws and bolts
- Requirement for highly trained individuals to perform routine maintenance
- Minimum number of tools required for routine maintenance
- Built-in hard points to allow maintenance work without external stands of scaffolding

One of the main purposes of the ____ portion of the PSA process is to relate design, operational, and supportability characteristics to system readiness objectives and goals.

- Operational assessment
- Analysis of product support
- Assessment and verification
- Manpower and personnel readiness

The capability of a system design to support operations and readiness at an affordable cost throughout the system's life is best described as ______?

- Reliability
- Producibility
- Maintainability
- Supportability

Using one of many Product Support Analysis tools, ______ is a tool that examines each failure to determine and classify its effect on the entire system.

- Mean Down Time (MDT)
- Failure Modes and Effects Criticality Analysis (FMECA)
- Test, Analyze, Fix, and Test (TAFT)
- Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)

One of the primary purposes of Technical Performance Measures is to:

- Serve as a record for configuration management.
- Serve as a tool to mitigate risk.
- Test the feasibility of the Work Breakdown Structure.
- Track the effects of changes to the CDD.

Modeling and simulation, when properly planned for and implemented, has been shown to (Select all that apply):

- Increase technical risk
- Improve system quality
- Help make better decision
- Shorten program schedules

When making tradeoffs among competing features, what can be used to quantifiably compare alternatives by selecting, weighting, and applying criteria?

Decision matrix

Ultimately, the use of open systems design is expected to result in lower life cycle costs.

True

One of the primary purpose of Technical Performance Measures (TPM) is to

Serve as a tool to mitigate risk

Reliability is how long an item or system will perform its function before it breaks. Good reliability will

Decrease logistics support requirements

One of the benefits of using redundant back-up systems is:

Increased reliability

Which is true about the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

The WBS can be used to aid in the development of a Statement of Work (SOW) and the contract line items.

In accordance with DoD acquistion policy and guidance,e very program should consider, at a minimum, __________, humand systems integration, reliability, availability, and maintainability.

Open systems architecture

Modeling and simulation can enhance the systems engineering process by

1) Validate designs and feasibility of design concepts, 2) Identify potential relaibility and sustainability issues, 3) Reduceing technical risks

In our decision matrix, Option 1 receives a '3" for speed and a "1" for cost, and Option 2 receives a "2" for speed and a "2" for cost. The speed criterion has been assigned a weight of 0.4 and the cost criterion has been assigned a weight of 0.6. In accordance with the decision matrix approach. Which of the following statements is true

Option 2 is better than Option 1 because its total weighted score is higher.

The Systems Engineering Process primarily is used by acquisition management to manage technical risk, but it can also help to reduce program cost and schedule risk.

TRUE (Correct) False (Incorrect)

Product Support Analysis (PSA)

Which of the following supportability analysis tools systematically identifies the likely modes of failure, and the criticality of each effect on mission completion, environmental impacts, health hazards, and system safety?

Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) (Incorrect)

When applying the systems engineering process to determine the optimal design solution, the impact on both immediate costs and life cycle costs needs to be considered, with the greatest weight placed on immediate costs.

True (Incorrect) False (Correct)

During the Developmental Test (DT) effort, the purpose of verification is to determine ______.

- Whether or not the system meets its "build to" specifications

Product Support Analysis (PSA)

APB is a formal agreement between whom

MDA and the program manager

how long does the PM have to notify the MDA of breach

30 dyas

Nunn Mcurty reporting criteria

PAUC, APUC

when PM has the flexability to work in trade space

between threshold and objective parameters

When is obligation authority for the Program is suspended

When congressional reporting timelines are not met

Nun Mcourty breaches affect

MDAPS ACAT 1D and 1 C

APB is developed for Milestone

a change in a cost perameter can you have other changes is other cost and schedule perameters

True

The definition of Termination of a contract, for comercial, efault and convience

...

When would you go to court for litigation

1Court is most appropriate when:
Dispute is over issues of law
Full public record is required
Fraud is suspected
Other party is likely to falsely present their case

definitions of ADR types

Mediation

A neutral third party listens to the issues, helps develop options, and works with the disputing parties to obtain a negotiated settlement

Fact-finding

A neutral technical expert renders an advisory decision to both parties based on the facts presented by the disputing parties

Mini-Trial

Senior-level management listens to both parties and renders a decision

Non-binding Arbitration

A neutral third party renders a non-binding decision based on evidence presented by disputing parties

COR's Role in Modifying a Contract

*KOs can modify a contract
The KO can designate qualified personnel as their authorized representatives. (COR)

Change orders are authorized by

the "changes clause" in non-commercial contracts, which require contractors to continue performance as changed. (Examples: Drawings, Shipping method, Place of delivery)

A constructive change is

an oral or written act or failure to act by a government official (in position of authority), interpreted
by the contractor as having the same effect as a written change order.

Common causes of constructive changes include the following:

Inadequate Requirements/Documents
Improperly Interpreted Specifications (Impossible to Perform)
Overly Strict Inspection
Government Delay
Improper/unauthorized Technical Direction
Acceleration of work or performance

Personal Liability

The individual that causes the constructive change is liable!

The five categories of money are

Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

Procurement

Operations and Maintenance (O&M)

Military Personnel (MILPERS)

Military Construction (MILCON)

Operations and Maintenance (O&M)

The O&M appropriation category funds the following types of items and activities:
Day-to-day operations
Headquarters operations
Civilian salaries
Travel
Fuel
Minor construction
Training and education
Expenses of operational military forces
Base operations support
Recruiting

Earned Value Management System (EVMS)

A fundamental program management requirement of any acquisition is
insight into the contractor's progress
EVM implementation ensures the PM is provided with contractor cost, schedule, and performance information which:
Relates time-phased budgets to specific contract tasks
Indicates work progress
Properly relates cost, schedule, and technical accomplishment
Is valid, timely, and able to be audited
Allows for statistical estimation of completion of technical, schedule, and costs
Supplies managers with information at a practical level of summarization
Is derived from the same management systems used by the contractor to manage
the contract

Logistics and Sustainment Take-aways

Loss of training personnel CAN endanger the success of a new system.
NOT all software problems and defects are detected through testing.
The preferred support strategy within DoD, whenever practical, includes PMs working directly with users to develop and implement the required agreements in Performance Based Logistics.
Sustainment planning includes the delivery of all logistics elements after the system is fielded that result in operational readiness.
In regards to Logistics and Sustainment, the primary purpose of deployment planning is to ensure a smooth introduction of the system to the end user.***
IPT members prepare their replacements to ensure continuity which is a personnel turnover method

Leadership and Ethics

Classical Models
Consequentialism / Utilitarianism
End justifies the means as long as the greater good is served
The Golden Rule
"Do unto others as you would have them do unto you."
Kant's Absolute Moral Duties
'Higher truths' are not flexible and there are no exceptions

Josephine institute of ethics

Trustworthiness Respect
Responsibility Justice & Fairness
Caring Civic Virtue & Citizenship

The Principled Decision-Making model

model combines aspects of all three classical models
It calls for decisions to take into consideration the welfare of all stakeholders
It also expects ethical values, such as trustworthiness and fairness, to take precedence over other values, such as efficiency or self-interest
Finally, it offers help in prioritizing conflicting ethical values based on what will bring the most good and the least harm to others

Understand change clause, when can be used in contract

method of shipping, changes in drawings, allowed for KO by change clause

Situations that lead to constructive change

Unauthorized technical direction from government
Person can be held liable for constructive change

IPT leadership styles

Open discussions with no secrets.
Qualified, empowered team members.
Consistent, success-oriented, proactive participation.
Continuous "up-the-line" communications.
Reasoned disagreement.
Issues raised and resolved early

, three styles of leadership are common in the workplace:

Supervisory
Participative
Team leadership

Technical reviews include tech rep by experts a chairman will be requested to be a

senior official outside the program

do we conduct tech reviews when

throughout the life cycle

Critical Design Review establishes

Detailed Product Baseline

when do you review the system specification

system requirements review

what do tech reviews help with

reduce both program and technical risk wether or not to proceede answer all are correct

CM ensures designes are traceable to requirements

All are correct

CM controlles and docs changes

True

3 config base lines

functional
alocated
and product

the contractor is respon for which base line

The product base line

gov base line

fiunctional or system level

ACQ 1650 Defense Acquisition of Services

October 11, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Services acquisitions include such things as routine repairs, overhauls and transportation.

False

Contracted services are extensively used in order to advance and maintain the mission and capabilities of the DOD.

False

DoDI 5000.74 applies to classified, cryptologic and intelligence projects.

False

DoDI 5000.74 authorizes DOD component decision authorities to tailor the procedures found in the instruction to best achieve cost, schedule, and performance objectives.

False

Which of the following is prohibited for services acquistions?

Contractors performing work designated for DoD civilians

Contractors performing inherently governmental functions or work designated for DoD civilians is prohibited by policy for services acquisitions.

True

To which of the following does DoDI 5000.74 apply?

Services acquired from the private sector with a total estimated value above the simplified acquisition threshold

Service acquisitions include such things as routine repairs, overhauls and transportation.

True

What is the services category level and who is the decision authority for a service acquisition for

DLA with an estimated total value of $500 million?

Services Category II/Component Acquisition Executive or designee

Which of the following is encouraged by policy for services acquisition?

Using performance-based contracts

11. Which of the following is exempt from DoDI 5000.74?

Overseas contingency operations

Which of the following is the primary purpose of services acquisition?

To acquire needed performance results

Which of the following provides the management structure, policy, direction, and responsibilities for the procurement of contracted services?

DoDI 5000.74

In consultation with service acquisition executive (SAEs), component acquisition executives (CAE’s) and component senior services managers (SSM’s), this senior leader develops implementing policies, procedures and best practice guidelines for service acquisitions.

Assistant Secretary of Defense for Acquisition (ASD(A)

The functional services manager serves in which capacity in the acquisition of contracted services?

Responsible for using prudent judgement to manage risk and structure a tailored, responsive, and efficient acquisition program that provides the services needed to fulfill the mission need

The designated service acquisition decision authority for S-CAT is listed in table

1 of 5000.74.

How is the dollar threshold determined?

Based on the independent government cost estimate in current-year dollars

Which position is the senior official responsibility in each Military Department for the

management of contracted services acquisitions?

Senior services manager

Which position is the senior official responsibility for the management of contracted services acquisitions within a DOD component?

Component Acquisition Executive

The component acquisition executive is the senior official responsible for the management of acquisition of contracted services for ALL DOD components.

False

Each component acquisition executive will exercise decision authority for services acquisitions as delegated from which position(s)? Select 2

Under secretary of defense for acquisition and sustainment

Agency head

Which position reviews costs incurred for services acquisition and makes programming recommendations, as appropriate, for the acquisition of contracted services?

Under secretary of defense (comptroller)/chief financial officer

Which position establishes policies and procedures for conducting analysis and cost estimates for acquisition of contracted services?

Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation

Which position has oversight responsibilities determining workload alignment and workforce mix, as well as the appropriateness of labor sources to perform certain functions?

Under secretary of defense for personnel and readiness

The principal director, defense pricing and contracting is responsible for all contracting and pricing policy matters for the acquisition of services in the DOD.

True

In acquisition of contracted services, portfolio managers (category-specific) serve which capacity?

Responsible for the management of acquisition of contracted services for and on behalf of his or her respective component

Which position establishes policy and provides oversight for the acquisition of contracted services across the DOD?

Under secretary of defense for acquisition and sustainment

The senior services manager develops services forecasting tools to predict requirement renewals and new requirements to support early acquisition planning, budget development, and requirements approval.

true

The execute strategy and manage performance steps are conducted during which phase of the service acquisition process?

Execution phase

What are some action conducted/accomplished during the form the team step of the service acquisition process?

Identify and analyze the stakeholders and develop the communication plan

3. What are some actions conducted/accomplished during the develop acquisition strategy step of

the service acquisition process?

Develop the preliminary business case and prepare the acquisition plan

What are some actions conducted/accomplished during the execution strategy step of the service acquisition process?

Award the contract and debrief the unsuccessful offerors

Which is the other step of the development phase of the service acquisition process, in addition to defining requirements

Develop acquisition strategy

A risk consists of two components, the probability or likelihood of an even occurring in the future and consequences or impact of the future occurrence.

True

Market research is a vital, continuous process that helps the acquisition team become informed consumers with the information needed to optimize reliance on the commercial marketplace and to benefit from its capabilities, technologies and competitive forces meeting an agency need.

True

What are some actions conducted/accomplished during the review current strategy step of the service acquisition process?

Identify current initiatives and contracts and review current regulations and legislation

Which step of the service acquisition process includes assessing performance using the quality assurance surveillance plan, managing and administering the overall contract, and developing a plan for managing continuous improvements?

Manage performance

Which is the other step of the planning phase of the service acquisition process, in addition to reviewing the current strategy and conducting market research?

Form the team

Which of the services requirements review board’s considerations should include how the requirement was previously satisfied, including why it cannot be fulfilled with military or civilian personnel?

Workforce analysis

In portfolio management, DOD components make sure services are acquired efficiently by enhancing services acquisition planning and coordination using _________.

Multi-funtional teams (MFTs)

DOD components will employ portfolio management techniques to decrease which of the

following?

Proliferation of redundant business arrangements

Independent management reviews are optional because they are a best practice identified in DoDI 5000.74 and the defense acquisition guidebook.

False

Although not mandated, what is the DOD threshold value at which multi-functional teams

should consider participation in a services acquisition workshop (SAW).

$500 million or more but less than $1 billion

In the DOD acquisition of service taxonomy, how many services portfolio groups are there and how many services portfolios are there?

9 portfolio groups and 40 services portfolios

The services acquisition multi-function team increases visibility of and collaboration on services requirements, validates requirements before a contractual requirement is solicited or reprocured, and provides for prioritization of services requirements to support funding decisions.

True

DOD components, to the maximum extent practical, should use performance management

metrics to alert the program of possible cost, schedule and performance issues.

True

Which is a benefit of services portfolio management?

Reduces proliferation of redundant business arrangements for acquiring similar service

When the acquisition strategy is submitted to the under secretary of defense for acquisition and sustainment or designee, how many days should it take to complete the review?

30 days

Which of the following is a method used by the DOD to gain efficiencies, save money, and reduce duplication of effort by collaborating, sharing lessons learned, identifying reliable service providers (especially small businesses) and in some cases, consolidating multiple service contracts?

Service portfolio management

Information technology (IT) capabilities that are acquired or provided as a service must align with DOD’s information enterprise and the joint information environment.

True

Program managers will ensure the IT services used by DOD will allow persons with disabilities access to the information that is comparable to the access afforded persons without disabilities.

True

Which of the following provides department wide best practices, frameworks, and standards for creating and managing IT services throughout the life cycle? DOD enterprise service management framework

Trusted systems and networks practices must be applied early and across the system development life cycle and integrated into service level agreements and contracts as appropriate.

True

Which of the following must have DOD provisional authorization granted by defense information systems agency, prior to contract award?

Any device that will be connected to the DOD information network

6. Which type of contract is preferred for commercial cellular services to promote the efficient use of government resources?

DOD wide acquisition contracts

For Clinger-Cohen act compliance the program manager or functional services manager is responsible for this document that addresses redesigning the processes that the service supports to reduce costs, improve effectiveness and maximize the use of commercial off-the -shelf technology.

Business Case Analysis (BCA)

Which policy document governs IT services that collect, maintain, use and disseminate personally identifiable information?

DoDD 5400.11, DOD privacy program

Which of the following are vehicles that may be beneficial when acquiring commercial software? Select 3 that apply

Joint enterprise license agreement Enterprise software license Federal strategic sourcing initiative procurement vehicles

The program manager or functional manager should create new IT services for redundancy whenever possible, rather than using existing services.

false

ACQ 1300 Fundamentals of Technology Security/Transfer

October 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What key activity must be accomplished as a part of effective security planning in an international acquisition program?

Identifying what information/technology requires protection

What type of international acquisition program is managed by the Defense Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA) and funded with U.S. government appropriations and administered as cases within the FMS infrastructure?

Building Partner Capacity (BPC)

What type of international acquisition program involves the United States providing defense articles, military training, and other military services in accordance with the Foreign Assistance Act (FAA)?

Security Assistance

How should technology security be implemented?

As an integral component of all international acquisition programs

Which individual within the Department of Defense is responsible for IAC program oversight?

Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment

What is one of the three key security conditions that foreign recipients of U.S. defense articles must agree to?

The foreign recipient must maintain security and provide substantially the same degree of protection of the articles as the U.S.

What does a security assurance do?

WRONG - Certifies that most protection requirements have been met

What is one of the two fundamental security considerations that must be addressed prior to sharing the U.S. defense articles, services, or information with a foreign entity?

Eligibility for Access

What national level policy document governs decisions on disclosure of Classified Military Information (CMI) to foreign governments and international organization?

National Security Decision Memorandum (NSDM) 119

In order to be lawful and authorized, the international acquisition program must meet the legal and policy requirements in which of the following?

Laws, Executive orders, or National Policy Documents

How is classified Foreign Government Information (FGI) transferred internationally?

Through government-to-government channels, or channels agreed upon in writing by the originating and receiving governments

What term is used by DoD to describe classified or unclassified information that is provided to the U.S. by a foreign government with the expectation that it will be held "in confidence"?

WRONG- Controlled Unclassified Information

What classification would be assigned to information that could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security by its unauthorized disclosure?

Secret

In which circumstance is Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) being transferred correctly so as to maintain adequate protection?

CUI documents are mailed via U.S. postal Service First Class Mail

What section of the Security Classification Guide (SCG) identifies the Federal instructions applicable to SCGs?

Section 1

What is one of the key reasons why the DoD enters into international cooperative programs?

To support other nations defense capability requirements (Correct)

What is the first step in making a CMI disclosure authorization decision?

A. Determine if any NDPC Policy Statements impact the proposed disclosure
B. Determine if the proposed disclosure would create a false impression
C. Determine the originator of the information (Correct)
D. Determine if the proposed disclosure is in support of current operations (Wrong)

What is a category of CMI?

National Intelligence (Wrong)
Communications Security (Wrong)
US Order of Battle (Correct)

What is one of the primary methods used to determine a foreign government's capability of protecting U.S. CMI?

Evaluate the foreign government's security laws and regulations (Correct)
Conduct a US on-site evaluation of a military installation of the foreign government. (Correct)

If a team is having difficulty analyzing and processing a high-level technology security and foreign disclosure (TSFD) decision on an international acquisition program whom should they contact first?

Defense Security Cooperation Agency (Wrong)
DoD Component's Foreign Disclosure Organization (Correct)

What group is responsible for maintaining the policy document "National Policy and Procedures for the Disclosures of CMI to foreign Governments and International Organizations" (NDP-1)?

Defense Security Cooperation Agency (Wrong)
National Disclosure Policy Committee (NDPC) (Correct)

In order to meet the requirement for protection, what additional document does a Foreign Government need to sign to receive CMI when they have already signed an export license related to a Direct Commercial Sale and there is no existing General Security of Information Agreement (GSOIA)?

NATO security arrangement (Wrong)
Security treaty (Wrong)

What document would be annotated to allow a Foreign Government to receive CMI when there is a need for extraordinary or supplementary security procedures associated with a FMS and there is no existing General Security of Information Agreement?

Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) (Correct)

What is one of the primary functions that the National Disclosure Policy Committee (NDPC) perform?

Capturing process metrics on all technology security and foreign disclosures (TSFD) decisions (Wrong)
Directing the technology security and foreign disclosure system (TSFD) (Wrong)

Which one of the following would be considered a key interagency or DoD TSFD process?

DoD Disclosure Authorization Checklist (Wrong)
Low Observable/Counter Low Observable (LO/CLO) (Correct)

What is one of the primary methods used to determine a foreign government's intent of protecting U.S. CMI?

Conducting a US on-site evaluation of a military installation of the foreign government (Wrong)

What is the third step in making a CMI disclosure authorization decision?

Determine the originator of the information (Wrong)
Determine if the disclosure criteria in NDP-1 are relevant (Wrong)

Why is it important to consider technology security and foreign disclosures (TSFD) early in a defense article's lifecycle?

To avoid adverse effects to US political military relations with allied and friendly nations (Correct)

What is one of the key criteria for sharing Classified Military information CMI with foreign entities?

The disclosure will provide a defined benefit to the US (Correct)

What is the second step in making a CMI disclosure authorization decision?

Determine if the disclosure criteria in NDP-1 are satisfied (Wrong)
Determine if any NDPC Policy statement impact the proposed disclosure (Wrong)
Determine if the proposed disclosure would create a false impression (Wrong)

What does the NDP control?

The release of CMI to foreign parties (Correct)

When should planning for foreign participation begin in the acquisition process?

As early as possible (Correct)

What type of written agreement meets the requirements for retransfer and use of CMI without meeting the requirement for protection?

NATO security arrangements (Wrong)
DoS Form DSP-83 "Nontransfer and Use Certificate"

What is CMI?

Classified information that has been developed by or for the Department of Defense. (Correct)

What is an example of a self executing licensing exemption?

Classified and unclassified basic-level training in operation and maintenance of articles that have been exported to the same recipient

What U.S. Government agency licenses in an advisory capacity when there are national security implications?

Department of Defense

What is an example of a recipient violating the transfer provisions of their export authorization?

A US company ships infantry vehicles to Chile who then transports some of the infantry vehicles for sale to Argentina

What type of export authorization is for a 4-year period and is requested with a Department of State form?

License

What is one of the reasons for export controls?

To adhere to an overall policy of restraint

What agency manages the export control process for the Commerce Department?

Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC) (Wrong)

What is one of the responsibilities of an Empowered Official per the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR)?

To understand US export control laws and ITAR provisions on company liabilities

Which of the following documents contain the rules and procedures when a US contractor is sponsored for overseas travel by the DoD and the contractor will NOT disclose controlled information?

EAR (wrong)

What is one of the three basic types of foreign personnel assignments?

Foreign Liaison Officer (FLO) Program (correct)

Select an access and control requirement exemption that allows export controlled information disclosure by the support contractor employees.

The PEO may grant a contractor's request to disclose the specified technical data in support of a lawful and soon to be authorized DoD program (wrong)

In most cases, what funding source funds training under the SAMM?

NATO (wrong)

What document deals with the responsibilities of commanders to protect government property and personnel on their post or station and, therefore, control access by all personnel who work on or visit the post or station?

DoD Instruction 5200.08 (correct)

Select the usual length of a one-time visit.

One work week (wrong)
One work day (wrong)
Less than 30 days (correct)

What is one of the three types of Foreign Liaison Officer programs?

Interagency FLOs (wrong)

For training under the SAMM which of the following people play a key role in working with foreign nations to secure and manage necessary training?

Overseas SCOs (correct)

What would be an acceptable justification for unescorted access to DoD facilities?

There is a validated need for frequent access for official purposes (correct)

What document is directive in nature and specifies travel requirements for every country in the world?

DoD Foreign Clearance Guide (correct)

When a US contractors visit involves classified information, what organization should the contractor work with to provide a security assurance from the US to the host nation?

State Dept (wrong)

Which of the following type of visits is exempt from being processed over the FVS?

Visits by foreign nationals participating in a DoS Bureau of Educational and Cultural Affairs tour (correct)

Who develops and approves the study guide for AoA?

Program Manager (wrong)

Which of the following should be considered if there is a high potential for the DoD to participate in an international acquisition program?

Incorporation of defense exportability features up-front (correct)

Which of the following plays a key role in helping international acquisition programs improve DoD's ability to work with foreign partners?

Contractor export control compliance measures (wrong)

What is the objective of the Program Protection Plan (PPP)?

Identify measures that will reduce the risk of exploitation of U.S. military technology and capabilities (correct)

Which of the following is true about a program's Security Classification Guide (SCG)?

Issued by the responsible Original Classification Authority (OCA) (correct)

Which document, along with the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD), guides the Material Solution Analysis and Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction Phases?

Capability Requirements Analysis (wrong)
Tech Sec Analysis (wrong)

Which of the following activities begins the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) process?

An assesment by DoD Components of their capability to perform joint war fighting missions (correct)

Which of the following oversees the identification and implementation of security requirements in the DAS process?

SAEs/CAEs, PEOs and PMs (correct)

ACQ 120 Fundamentals of International Acquisition (FIAC)

October 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

what is the largest and among the most well known Security Assistance program

FMS (correct)

Which of the following Security Cooperation categories is involved with international acquisition?

Equipment Sales and Operations (wrong)
Combined Exercises and Operations (wrong)
Security Assistance (correct)

What are key components of the AECA of 1976

It provides authority for FMS, Direct Commercial Sales and coop programs (correct)

T or F Building Partner Capacity programs assist the Geographic Commanders in achieving partner-nation security roles within their Area of Responsibility

False

Which of the following is correct?

International activities within the DAS generally are limited to the operations and support phase. (wrong)
International Armaments Cooperation generally applies to items the DoD has already developed and that have entered production (wrong)
FMS programs normally involve research and development (wrong)

T/F If the US Gov developed with the French Gov a type of infrared binos for mil use, that is an example of International Armaments Cooperation

T/F Title 10 legislation provides authority for Building Partner Capacity (BPC) and cooperative RDT&E programs

Which of the following is a building block of International Armaments Cooperation?

Building Partner Capacity (wrong)
Cooperative production

Which of the following best describes Security Assistance programs?

Group of programs by which the US provides defense articles, training, or other services by grant, loan, cash sale, or lease (wrong)
Activities whereby the DoD and a foreign partner(s) share resources and technology for acquisition program development (wrong)

Which of the following international acquisition program forms can be used across the acquisition life cycle?

International Armaments Cooperation

T/F BPC programs are funded by the foreign governements

False

Which of the following provides defense articles and/or services to other nations to enhance their ability to conduct counter terrorism, counter drug, and counter insurgency operations and support US mil and stability operations and multilateral peace operations?

BPC

T/F FMS and BPC programs generally apply to items that the DoD has already developed and that have entered production after completion of operational test and evaluation.

What is the legislation that provides authority for foreign assistance programs such as emergency drawdowns, grant aid, excess defense articles, and international military education and training programs?

The foreign assistance act of 1961 (correct)

Which of the following best describes IMET

Provides financial assistance through grants for training foreign military and civilian personnel to help create a group of well-trained foreign professional leaders. (correct)

T/F The directorate of Defense Trade Control divisions provide State Department decisions on US industry applications for export licenses.

The bureau of Political Military Affairs provides policy direction in all of the following areas except which one?

International Economics

T/F For defense trade advocacy requests, the BIS coordinates the interagency policy review with the support of the Dept of State and Defense to determine whether a request for advocacy from a US company is consistent with US foreign policy and national security objectives

Who head the US country team for each nation?

Ambassador or Chief of Mission

The regional Security and Arms Transfers office advances US foreign policy and national interests through the management of which of the following?

US gov sale/transfer of defense articles and services to foreign governments

What is the USD (Policy) organization that publishes the Security Assistance Management Manual and synchronizes Security Cooperation programs?

DSCA

T/F Each of the three Military Departments have a headquarters function to integrate and direct Security Cooperation activities.

What is an international acquisition role of the USD(Comptroller)?

Coordinates on international agreements with primary interests in financial equitability and DoD funds availability

T/F The Office of General Counsel is responsible for coordinating on international agreements and other internal transaction related documents with primary interest in legal sufficiency and quality.

What is not a key international acquisition function of the Under Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering

Staffs international agreements for OSD approval

Which USD(A&S) org is responsible for developing policies and procedures for International Armaments Cooperation

DSCA (wrong)
DTSA (wrong)
Senior Advisor for International Cooperation

Which document requires Geographic Combatant Commanders to develop Campaign Plans for their area of responsibility?

Joint Strategic Campaign Plan

Which org provides the interface between the partner nation, embassy country team, and the Geographic Combatant Command?

Office of Regional Affairs (wrong)
Regional Security Offices (wrong)
Defense attache offices

T/F The geographic Combatant Commands are focused on combat operations and are not involved in Security Cooperation planning.

What are the DoD Unified Commands that engage with partner nations through assigned Security Cooperation Orgs

Functional Commands (wrong)
Geographic Combatant Commands (correct)

T/F The USD R&E is responsible for promoting international science and technology cooperation

Which OSD org publishes the DoD Financial Management Regulation 7000.14-R that includes policies and procedures for Foreign Military Sales and cooperative programs?

USD (Comptroller) (correct)

Which of the following manages Security Assistance demands on military supply systems for each Military Department (MILDEP)??

Sec Assistance training org (wrong)

What is the USD (Policy) organization is responsible for development and implementation technology security policy on the international transfer of defense related goods services and technology

DSCA (wrong)
DTSA

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Office of General Counsel?

Developing strategic policy priorities and providing policy counsel to USD(P) and USD(A&S)

What plan do geographic combatant commanders develop for their AOR that address security cooperation activities?

Sec Coop Plans

Which of the following is an example of International Armaments Cooperation?

If the U.S and Sweden co-develop and produce a new helicopter.

Which of the following international acquisition program forms can be used across the acquisition life cycle?

International Armaments Cooperation.

True or False. Building Partner Capacity BPC) programs assist the Geographic Combatant Commanders in achieving partner-nation security roles within their Area of Responsibility (AOR)?

True

Which of the following Security Cooperation categories is involved with international acquisition?

Building Partnership Capacity.

Which of the following best describes International Military Education and Training (IMET)?

Provides financial assistance through grants for training foreign military and civilian personnel to help create a group of well-trained foreign professional leaders.

What are the key components of the Arms Export Control Act (AECA) of 1976?

Establishes criteria to determine country eligibility for arms transfer while providing authority for FMA, DCS, third-party transfers, and leases.

Which of the following documents is required to request authority to negotiate when using the standard procedures for DoD review and
approval of international agreements?

Policy Memorandum or
Technology Assessment/Control
Plan

What delegations are provided to the Defense Security Cooperation Agency for international agreements?

Agreements pertaining to the Security Assistance Program

USD(AT&L) has been delegated authority to authorize international agreements for Security Assistance including coproduction
programs.

False

In the USD(AT&L) streamlined process which document supports DoD Component and OSD review of proposed international agreements and
provides the basis for approval to begin negotiations?

Summary Statement of
Intent

How do exploratory discussions differ from negotiations?

Avoid binding commitments

What organization must the DoD consult with to consider the effects of an international agreement on the U.S. industrial base?

Department of Commerce

A Financial Management Procedures Document is prepared by the participating nations on an International Cooperative Program to explain how funds will be transferred and when payments need to be made.

True

Which of the following describes the subordinate document developed for International Cooperative Programs to explain how funding will be transferred between countries and when payments need to be made?

Financial Management Procedures Document

When can negotiation begin under the USD (AT&L) streamlined international agreement process?

After Request Authority to Develop approval

Which of the following is a step in the USD(AT&S) streamlined international agreement process?

Prepare Foreign Military Sales case

How many days prior to authorizing an agreement is DoD required to notify Congress for international agreements conducted under Arms Export Control Act Section 27 authority?

30 days

What types of programs does USD(AT&L) have delegated authority to authorize negotiations of internal agreements?

Cooperative RDT&E, production, and logistics support

Which of the following is a step in the standard procedures for DoD review and approval of international agreements?

Authority of Negotiate

In the USD(AT&S) streamlined process DoD Components have been authorized to enter into international agreements without OSD review.

False

USD(AT&S) has been delegated authority to authorize international agreements for
Security Assistance including coproduction programs.

False

Which of the following best reflects the DoD position on Foreign Military Sales (FMS) versus Direct Commercial Sales (DCS)?

DoD is generally neutral

What is the purpose of P&A data?

Provide Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate reflecting projected cost and availability

Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs are initiated when the foreign government
submits a Letter of Request (LOR) to an implementing agency.

True

Effective FMS case reconciliation can return surplus funds to the customer for other projects and purposes.

To adequately communicate customer's requirements to the U.S. Government

In Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs during the Planning and Requirements Definition phase a U.S. Government Requesting Authority submits an actionable Memorandum of Request (MOR) to an Implementing Agency

True

Which of the following is a basic source of Foreign Military Sales (FMS) and Direct Commercial Sales (DCS) hybrid programs?

U.S. Government requirement to restrict specific portions of a weapon
system to FMS-only.

What does the foreign government conduct at during the preliminary stage of the FMS process?

Threat Analysis

Which of the following governs DoD acquisition and program management activities on FMS programs?

DoD 5000-Series Directives and Instructions.

Which of the following best describes AECA Section 21 Sales from stock?

President may sell defense articles and services from stocks of DoD and U.S. Coast Guard.

Which DoD agency prepares FMS cases for cataloging services, disposal services, and Excess Defense Articles?

Defense Logistics Agency

An FMS case manager's role ends before case closure when the purchased articles are delivered or the services are provided.

False

Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure (TS&FD) must be addressed during initial processing of the Letter of Request (LOR).

True

What is the type of FMS case used for sale of items that require item-byitem foreign disclosure and security control?

Defined Order case

Which of the following best describes AECA Section 21 - Sales from stock?

President may sell defense articles and services from stocks of DoD and
U.S. Coast Guard

Which DoD agency performs contract administration and management, quality assurance, and inspections for both the DoD and foreign customers?

Defense Contract Management Agency

Which activity occurs in the preliminary stage of the FMS case development process?

Customer conducts a threat analysis and researches options and sources

The U.S. Government is bound to honor commitments made by industry on DCS programs.

False

Which of the following statements about a Letter or Request (LOR) is true?

Can be used to request Price and Availability Data or a Letter of Offer and Acceptance.

Which of the following documents can serve as an agreement for the U.S. Government to sell defense articles and services to a foreign country or
international organization?

Letter of Offer and Acceptance.

Which of the following is a program management consideration on FMS programs?

Relevant principles of the DoD 5000-series directives and instructions apply

The Accelerated Case Closure Procedures allow a case to be closed after the case has become supply complete even if there are outstanding financial obligations against the case.

True

Which of the following is true for Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs?

Programs are executed through Security Assistance automated
systems.

Who is the DoD individual accountable for all aspects of assigned FMS cases in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?

Implementing Agency Case Manager

What is a major contribution provided by SCOs?

Strengthens host nation self-defense

The SCO coordinates with what political section representative for issues of concern to the State
Department, such as proposed major weapons sales that require a Country Team Assessment (CTA)?

Political Military Officer

What document describes specific Security Assistance functions that are performed by Security Cooperation Organizations (SCOs)?

Security Assistance Management Manual (SAMM)

Which of the following sets of actions correctly defines major Security Assistance functions of SCOs?

Training management and program monitoring

Select a role performed by the SCO in International Armaments Cooperation (IAC).

Coordinating IAC programs, actions, and initiatives

SCOs assist the DoD acquisition workforce in identifying and making recommendations
on cooperative opportunities with the host nation.

True

With which embassy official does the SCO work with to enhance U.S. trade?

Commercial Attache'

Which of the following actions is performed by SCOs?

Assist U.S. industry in furthering their marketing efforts to enhance U.S.
economic interests

Which of the following statements best describes SCO duties in International Armaments Cooperation (IAC)?

Serves as in the in-country IAC activities

Which statement best describes the role of SCOs in the FMS process?

Select the statement that best describes FMS customer participation in FMS contracts.

The extent of customer participation is at the Contracting Officer's discretion after consultation with the Contractor

Requests by a foreign customer for a sole source procurement as part of an FMS case should be
included in what document?

Letter of Request (LOR)

On an international Cooperative Program, since the terms of international agreement are binding on industry participants contracts do not need to reflect provision of the international agreement

False

What are the two categories for Government Quality Assurance agreements?

Reciprocal No-Charge Agreements and Reciprocal Fee-for-Service Agreements

How is a Government Quality Assurance (GQA) agreement documented?

By either a GQA Annex to an RDP MOU or a stand-alone document

What are two major pieces of legislation the limit DoD's ability to contract with non-U.S. sources?

Berry Amendment and the Buy
America Act

Procurements from countries where the DoD has concluded a Reciprocal Defense Procurement Agreement are not subject to the buy national restrictions of Buy America Act (BAA)?

True

Contracting officer participation is not necessary in P&A data or LOA preparation and
begins when the Request for Proposal is issued.

FALSE

Which of the following statements is correct?

U.S. Industry may recover offset on FMS contracts.

Which of the following categories is part of Security Cooperation Activites?

International Armaments Cooperation

Which of the following is a building block of International Armaments Cooperation?

Cooperative Production

The Bureau of Political-Military Affairs (PM Bureau) is the State Department’s principal link to the DoD for international acquisition matters.

True

Which State Department organization is responsible for decisions regarding export licenses?

Directorate of Defense Trade Controls

Regional Security and Arms Transfers (RSAT) is a key link between the Departments of State and Defense through interactions with the Office of the Secretary of Defense, Join Staff and the Combatant Commands.

True

Companies seeking U>S> Government support in a specific international defense competition should contact the Department of State to request advocacy for sale of their items.

False

Which of the following is a key function of the Chief of Mission and the country team in relation to international acquisition

Preparing a Country Team Assessment (CTA providing a coordinated embassy position on a proposed sale

What document does the embassy country team prepare to articulate mission goals and objectives and serve as the overarching strategy for diplomatic engagement with a country?

integrated Country Strategy

Which Department of Commerce organization has a significant role in international acquisition in defense trade advocacy and export licensing?

Bureau of Industry and Security

What Defense Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA) organization provides education and training to advance U.S. foreign policy through security Assistance and Security Cooperation?

Defense Institute of Security Assistance Management

Lesson 1

Which of the following categories is part of Security Cooperation activities?

International Armaments Cooperation

Which of the following best describes Security Assistance programs?

Group of programs by which the United States provides defense articles, training, or other services by grant, loan, cash sale, or lease

Which of the following provides defense articles and/or services to other nations to enhance their ability to conduct counter-terrorism, counter drug-related activity, and counterinsurgency operations and support U.S. military and stability operations and multilateral peace operations?

Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs

Which of the following is a building block of International Armaments Cooperation?

Cooperative Production

Which of the following international acquisition program forms can be used across the acquisition life cycle?

International Armaments Cooperation

True or False: Title 10 Legislation provides authority for Building Partner Capacity (BPC) and

cooperative RDT&E

False

What is the legislation that provides authority for foreign assistance programs such as emergency drawdowns, Grant Aid, Excess Defense Articles, and International Military Education and Training programs?

The Foreign Assistance Act of 1961

Lesson 2

Who heads the US “country team” for each nation?

Ambassador or Chief of Mission

True or False: The Bureau of Political-Military Affairs (PM Bureau) is the State Department's principal link to the DoD for international acquisition matters.

True

Which State Department organization is responsible for decisions regarding export licenses?

Directorate of Defense Trade Controls

True or False: Regional Security and Arms Transfers (RSAT) is a key link between the Departments of State and Defense through interactions with the Office of the Secretary of Defense, Joint Staff and the Combatant Commands.

True

True or False: Companies seeking U.S. Government support in a specific international defense competition should contact the Department of State to request advocacy for sale of their items.

False

The Regional Security and Arms Transfer (RSAT) office advances U.S. foreign policy and national interests through the management of which of the following

U.S. Government sale/transfer of defense articles and services to foreign governments

Which of the following is a key function of the Chief of Mission and the country team in relation to International acquisition

Preparing a Country Team Assessment (CTA) providing a coordinated embassy position on a proposed sale

True or False: The Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC) divisions provide State Department decisions on U.S. industry applications for export licenses.

False

True or False: For Defense trade advocacy requests, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) coordinates the interagency policy review, with the support of the Departments of State and Defense, to determine whether a request for advocacy from a U.S. company is consistent with U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives.

True

What document does the embassy country team prepare to articulate mission goals and objectives and serve as the overarching strategy for diplomatic engagement with a country?

Integrated Country Strategy

Which Department of Commerce organization has a significant role in international acquisition in defense trade advocacy and export licensing?

Bureau of Industry and Security

Lesson 3

What Defense Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA) organization provides education and training to advance U.S. foreign policy through Security Assistance and Security Cooperation?

Defense Institute of Security Assistance Management

What USD (AT&L) organization develops policy for international acquisition and defense exportability and develops and staffs international agreements related to acquisition matters?

Director of International Cooperation

Which OSD organization publishes the DoD Financial Management Regulation 7000.14-R that includes policies and procedures for Foreign Military Sales and cooperative programs?

USD(Comptroller)

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Office of General Counsel?

Providing legal advice on international matters to OSD and the DoD Components and coordinating on international agreements and transactions

True or False: The Geographic Combatant Commands are focused on combat operations and are not involved in Security Cooperation planning.

False

Which of the following is included in the Military Departments Security Cooperation organizations?

A Security Assistance training organization

Which document requires the Geographic Combatant Commands to develop Theater Campaign Plans for their area of responsibility?

Guidance for the Employment of the Force (GEF)

What is one of the international acquisition functions of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering

Provides guidance on program protection planning

What USD (Policy) Organization is responsible for development and implementation technology security policy on the international transfer of defense-related goods, services, and technology?

Defense Technology Security Administration

Which DoD Organization provides DoD policies on international agreements and coordinates on international agreements for legal sufficiency?

c. Office of General Counsel

ACQ 120 Lesson 4

True or False: Within both JCIDS and the Defense Acquisition System, a joint DoD development program is preferred over a cooperative development program with one or more Allied nations.

False

True or False: Embassy contacts with either DoD Security Cooperation Organizations (SCOs) or embassy officials stationed in the United States can be helpful in determining potential partner’s military capability needs.

True

True or False: According to DoD policy, equipment procured for U.S. forces employed in NATO and other coalition operations must be standardized or at least interoperable with the equipment of other allies and coalition partners

True

For most programs, which document contains the cooperative opportunity analysis required by U.S. law?

Acquisition Strategy

Which of the following is NOT a factor taken into consideration when the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) makes a decision to purse an International Cooperative Program (ICP)?

a. Partner nation(s) agreement to the U.S. having full decision-making authority

b. A plan for efficient management of the ICP

c. DoD Component willingness to fully fund its share of program needs

d. Long-term interoperability and political-military benefits

True or False: Program managers are required to define “any planned international cooperation and exportability” efforts within their Acquisition Strategy consistent with their understanding of opportunities in both domestic and international markets.

True

In both JCIDS and the Defense Acquisition System when a materiel solution that involves new development is needed to meet a requirement, the highest preference is:

a. A cooperative development program with one or more allied nations

Which mechanism provides insight into the needs of potential foreign partners?

Exploratory discussions

True or False: International Cooperative Programs are exempt from most statutory, regulatory, contracting reports, and milestone requirements

False

True or False: Program Management should consider the potential demand and likelihood of cooperative development or production, Direct Commercial Sales, and Foreign Military Sales when developing acquisition plans

True

ACQ 120 Lesson 5

True or False: Decisions made during the Material Solution Analysis (MSA) generally define the nature of the entire program and determine the extent of international cooperation and potential future exportability to allied and friendly nations.

True

Opportunities for international cooperation in the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase include which of the following?

Using foreign science and technology or subsystem designs to reduce technological risk

Which of the following activities unique to International Cooperative Programs is conducted in the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase?

Conducting system or subsystem cooperative development under an international agreement

Which of the following statements about DCS coproduction is true?

Involves use of munitions export licenses issued by the State Department

When does the decision to include international partners in a systems acquisition program need to be made?

As early as possible

A major activity of the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase is the development of which of the following documents

a. Country Campaign Plan

b. Initial Capabilities Document

c. Comprehensive Program Protection Plan

d. Capability Production Document

Which of the following defines a joint or concurrent international production where each partner produces part of a system and acquires other parts from partners?

Cooperative Production

ACQ 120 Lesson 6

Which NATO organization is responsible for the harmonization and coordination of all standardization activities within NATO?

NATO Standardization Organization

Which MILDEP headquarters organization is responsible for International Armaments Cooperation within the Department of the Navy?

Navy International Program Office

Which NATO agency promotes and conducts cooperative scientific research and exchange of technical information among the member nations?

NATO Science and Technology Organization

Identify one nation in the Pacific region that the U.S. is involved in formal bilateral armaments cooperation forums.

Japan

The core objectives of International Armaments Cooperation are:

Operational, Economic, Technical, Political, and Industrial

Which is of the following is not necessarily one of the foundational elements of International Armaments Cooperation, for the United States?

Membership in NATO

What is the Australia, Canada, New Zealand, United Kingdom, and United States organization that promotes scientific and technical information exchange?

The Technical Cooperation Program

Australia, Canada, New Zealand, United Kingdom and the United States participate in international standardization forums except which of the following?

International Standardization Organization

Identify one nation that participates with the United States in key bilateral armaments cooperation forums.

India

IAC activities are generally conducted with nations that have which of the following?

Solid political and economic ties with the United States

Which MILDEP headquarters organization is responsible for International Armaments Cooperation within the Department of the Army?

Army International Technology Center

ACQ 120 Lesson 7

Which of the following best defines the purpose of IEP annexes?

Establish defined information exchange relationships in specific RDT&E areas

Which program funds U.S. test and evaluation of defense items developed by allied and other friendly foreign countries to determine whether they can satisfy DoD requirements?

Foreign Comparative Testing Program

True or False: Funding for the International Cooperative Research and Development (ICR&D) program is provided directly to the Military Departments through specific program elements.

True

Which of the following is a proposal requirement for the Coalition Warfare Program?

Address a problem faced by the warfighter and identified as a need by COCOMs, MILDEPs, DoD Agencies, or the OSD staff

True or False: International agreements are used by the DoD to establish contracts with foreign defense companies.

False

Identify one exchange program that is encompassed under the Defense Personnel Exchange Program (DPEP)?

Engineer and Scientist Exchange Program (ESEP)

What type of functions can Cooperative Program Personnel perform?

Planning and managing

Which of the following describes military or civilian officials of foreign defense establishment who are authorized by their government to act as an official representative of that government in dealing with a DoD Component?

Foreign Liaison Officers

Which program encourages DoD components to exchange RDT&E information with other nations?

Defense RDT&E Information Exchange Program

Which of the following transactions is NOT considered to be an international agreement by DoDD 5530.3?

a. Agreements solely to establish administrative procedures

b. Agreements that have no cost to the United States

c. Secretary of Defense directed programs

d. Agreements that are legally binding under international law

Which of the following is characteristic of an international agreement?

Signifies the intention of the parties to be bound in international law

What is a main focus of the Coalition Warfare Program

Early identification of coalition solutions to long-term interoperability issues

Which individual is formally appointed by a DoD Component and designated to control and administer a specific IEP annex?

Technical Project Officer

Which of the following is an objective of the Defense RDT&E Information Exchange Program?

Reduce cost by avoiding duplication of RDT&E

Which of the following describes a foreign government representative who is assigned to a DoD component pursuant to a requirement that is outlined in a Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA)?

Foreign Liaison Officer

Which program assigns U.S. and foreign civilian and military research and development personnel to DoD and foreign RDT&E facilitates?

Engineer and Scientist Exchange Program

Which of the following describes military or civilian officials assigned to an international program office for a cooperative program to perform managerial, technical, logistics, financial or other functions in support of all participants?

Cooperative Program or Project Personnel (CPP)

Which of the following is a benefit of the Foreign Comparative Testing Program?

Avoids research and development costs

What is a specific requirement that the International Cooperative R&D program must follow?

There must be an international agreement defining project specifics

True or False: DoD 5230.20 States that the terms and conditions for all foreign national assignments to DoD Components shall be established in a legally binding international agreement or annex to such agreement and also provides the FLOs assigned to DoD Components in support of FMS may be assigned under the terms of an LOA or LOA annex.

True

Identify a civilian and military personnel exchange program that supports International Armaments Cooperation

Engineer and Scientist Exchange Program

ACQ 120 Lesson 8

Identify one of the major points to the DoDI 5000.02 definition of an International Cooperative Program?

Cooperation can be used in any phase of a system’s life cycle

Which of the following describes the provision of AECA Section 27 that allows the United States to contract on behalf of another country for an International Cooperative Program without having all of their funding in advance of the contractual obligation?

Dependable Undertaking

Which section of the AECA authorizes acceptance as a loan or a gift from a country that is a NATO or Major Non-NATO Ally materials, supplies, and equipment for cooperative RDT&E?

AECA Section 65

True or False: AECA Section 27 provides the broadest authority for International Cooperative Programs and unlike Title 10 U.S.C. 2350a authorizes cooperative production and follow-on support.

True

Which statement best describes why international agreements are an essential element of any International Cooperative Program?

Constitutes a commitment binding under international law between the participants

What is a benefit of using a master RDT&E MOU?

Project Agreements for specific projects can be negotiated more expeditiously

Which agreement allows the United States and partner nations to access each other’s test facilities and to undertake cooperative test and evaluation projects?

Test and Evaluation Program MOU

Cooperation during the Engineering and Manufacturing development (EMD) and Production and Deployment phases of an International Cooperative Program would likely be covered by which type of international agreement?

Program-Specific Defined MOU

True or False: Equitability is determined by evaluating the participating nation’s financial and nonfinancial contributions to an International Cooperative Program relative to the benefits received.

True

What is a type of integrated program structure where a legal entity is established through a NATO approved charter that can contract on behalf of the participating nations?

NATO Agency

How are specific projects agreed to under a Master RDT&E MOU?

Project Agreement or Project Arrangement (PA)

Which of the following does Title 10 U.S.C. 2350a authorize?

Cooperative research, development, test, and evaluation

What is a type of joint program management structure where each participant performs independent work and shares the results under the control of a Steering Group or Committee?

Decentralized Structure

What is a feature of the International Cooperative Programs initiated under AECA section 27?

30-day Congressional notification period

Which of the following best describes the United States and another nation jointly managing an effort to satisfy a common requirement by sharing efforts, costs, risks, and benefits through international agreement?

International Cooperative Program

Which of the following best describes the principle that a participant’s financial and non-financial contributions should be proportionally equal to the benefits it receives from a cooperative project

Financial Equitability

Which of the following best describes Program-Specific Framework or Umbrella MOUs?

International agreement developed to support cooperation on a specific acquisition program, technology area, or a broadly defined scope of cooperation

What is an attractive feature of conducting a test project under a Test and Evaluation Program (TEP) MOU?

Preferred rates with less than full cost recovery

Which of the following is not a form of international agreement used to support International Cooperative Programs?

Information Exchange Annex

True or False: A Project Agreement or Project Arrangement (PA) is subordinate to a master RDT&E MOU and all terms of the MOU apply to the PA.

True

ACQ 120 Lesson 9

Which of the following documents is required to request authority to negotiate when using the standard procedures for DoD review and approval of international agreements?

Technology Assessment/Control Plan

What delegations are provided to the Defense Security Cooperation Agency for international agreements?

Agreements pertaining to the Security Assistance program

What types of programs does USD(AT&L) have delegated authority to authorize negotiations of internal agreements?

Cooperative RDT&E, production, and logistics support

True or False: In the USD(AT&L) streamlined process DoD Components have been authorized to enter into international agreements without OSD review.

False

What organization must the DoD consult with to consider the effects of an international agreement on the U.S. industrial base?

Department of Commerce

What is one purpose of a Financial Management Procedures Document used on an International Cooperative Program?

a. Define when payments are to be made

b. Specify R&D recoupment charges

c. Collect the administrative surcharge

d. Forecast fiscal year budget

Which of the following describes the communication of a position or an offer on behalf of the United States to a representative of a foreign government that could result in an international agreement?

a. Negotiations

a. Financial Management Procedures Document

True or False: A Financial Management Procedures Document is prepared by the participating nations on an International Cooperative Program to explain how funds will be transferred and when payments need to be made.

False

How many days prior to authorizing an agreement is DoD required to notify Congress for international agreements conducted under Arms Export Control Act Section 27 authority?

30 Days

Which of the following is a step in the standard procedures for DoD review and approval of international agreements?

Authority of Negotiate

True or False: USD(AT&L) has been delegated authority to authorize international agreements for Security Assistance including coproduction programs.

False

ACQ 120 Lesson 10

Which of the following is an eligibility requirement for sales or leases of defense articles or services under Section 3 of the Arms Export Control Act?

Furnishing the defense articles and services must strengthen U.S. security and promote world peace

Which DoD agency performs contract administration and management, quality assurance, and inspections for both the DoD and foreign customers?

a. Defense Contract Management Agency

b. Defense Security Cooperation Agency

c. Defense Contract Audit Agency

d. Defense Logistics Agency

Which of the following is true about international weapons competitions?

a. Foreign nations often compete weapon system procurements

b. Foreign nations must pursue a sole source acquisition strategy

c. The United States restricts its offers to a single proposal

d. The United States does not participate in international weapons competitions

True or False: The U.S. Government is bound to honor commitments made by industry on DCS programs.

False

True or False: A Letter of Request (LOR) is submitted by the Implementing Agency for the foreign customer in the format prescribed by the Security Assistance Management Manual (SAMM).

False

True or False: A Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) is an offer from the U.S. Government to sell defense articles and services through Foreign Military Sales (FMS).

True

True or False: Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure (TS&FD) must be addressed prior to providing P&A data or offering an LOA.

True

True or False: Blanket order cases are often used for spare and repair parts, support equipment, supplies, maintenance, technical assistance, publications, and training aids.

True

True or False: An FMS case manager’s role ends before case closure when the purchased articles are delivered or the services are provided.

False

Which of the following governs DoD acquisition and program management activities on FMS programs?

DoD 5000-Series Directives and Instructions

True or False: On FMS and DCS hybrid programs it is important to clearly define integration responsibilities to manage program risk.

True

True or False: Reconciliation should not begin until all deliveries under an FMS case have been completed.

False

True or False: Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs are initiated when the foreign government submits a Letter of Request (LOR) to an Implementing Agency.

False

Which of the following best reflects the DoD position on Foreign Military Sales (FMS) versus Direct Commercial Sales (DCS)

DoD is generally neutral

Which of the following is true for Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs?

Programs are executed through Security Assistance automated systems

True or False: The Accelerated Case Closure Procedures allow a case to be closed after the case has become supply complete even if there are outstanding financial obligations against the case.

True

What is the purpose of the LOR?

To adequately communicate customer’s requirements to the U.S. Government

Which of the following is an authorized use of defense articles or services sold by the United Status under Section 4 of the Arms Export Control Act?

For internal security and self defense

At what stage of the FMS case development process are any required Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure (TS&FD) reviews conducted to include a determination if any Critical Program Information requires program protection?

During initial processing of the Letter of Request prior to providing Price and Availability data or a letter or a Letter Offer and Acceptance.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Implementing Agency Case Manager?

Integrated organizational efforts for performance of the FMS case

What does the foreign government conduct at during the preliminary stage of the FMS process?

Threat Analysis

True or False: Contracting in support of an FMS case is conducted in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and the Defense Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS)

a. True

True or False: Hybrid programs can result from a foreign government’s preference to separate weapon system sale components into FMS and DCS elements

a. True

Which of the following documents can serve as an agreement for the U.S. government to sell defense articles to a foreign country or international organization?

d. Letter of Offer and Acceptance

True or False: Effective FMS case reconciliation can return surplus funds to the customer for other projects and purposes.

a. True

What is one way authorized by Arms Export Control Act for a foreign country or international organization to purchase U.S. defense articles or services?

Direct Commercial sales

Which DoD agency augments the domestic infrastructure to support the unique functions required to conduct Security Assistance and Building Partner Capacity programs by allocating FMS administrative surcharge funds?

Defense Security Cooperation Agency

Which of the following is a program management consideration on FMS programs?

Relevant principles of the DoD 5000-series directives and instructions apply

True or False: In Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs during the Planning and Requirements Definition phase a U.S. Government Requesting Authority submits an actionable Memorandum of Request (MOR) to an Implementing Agency

a. True

Which of the following best describes AECA Section 21 Sales from stock

c. President may sell defense articles and services from stocks of DoD and U.S. Coast Guard

What is the type of FMS case used for sale of items that require item by item foreign disclosure and security control

d. Defined Order case

Who is the DoD individual for all aspect of assigned FMS cases in compliance with applicable laws and regulations

Implementing Agency Case Manager

Which activity occurs in the preliminary stage of the FMS case development process?

Customer conducts a threat analysis and researches options and sources

ACQ 120 Lesson 11

True

Which of the following sets of actions correctly defines major Security Assistance functions of SCOs?

Training management and program monitoring

True or False: SCOs assist the DoD acquisition workforce in identifying and making recommendations on cooperative opportunities with the host nation.

True

Select the statement that best describes a SCO duty.

a. The SCO brokers information exchanges that enhance interoperability for future combined operations

b. The SCO shields the U.S. from access to host nation decision-makers

c. The SCO reduces U.S. industry access to the host nation defense market

d. The SCO vets and rejects U.S. visas for international military students

The SCO participates as a member of the embassy country team, headed by which of the following Individuals?

a. Ambassador/Chief of Mission

b. Defense Attaché

c. Political Military Officer

d. Regional Security Officer

What is a major contribution provided by SCOs?

Strengthens host nation self-defense

The SCO coordinates with what political section representative for issues of concern to the State Department, such as proposed major weapons sales that require a Country Team Assessment (CTA)?

Political Military Officer

Which statement best describes the role of SCOs in the FMS process?

Work with the host nation to transition their requirements into a well - defined LOR

What document describes specific Security Assistance functions that are performed by Security Cooperation Organizations (SCOs)?

Security Assistance Management Manual

ACQ 120 Lesson 12

What regulation requires the DoD to give preference to domestically grown or produced items related to food, textiles, and tools?

Berry Amendment

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of DoD Reciprocal Defense Procurement Agreements?

Establish procurement procedures to increase transparency of defense procurements with all members of the United Nations

What are the two categories for Government Quality Assurance agreements?

Reciprocal No-Charge Agreements and Reciprocal Fee-for-Service Agreements

True or False: Contracting officer participation is not necessary in P&A data or LOA preparation and begins when the Request for Proposal is issued.

False

What document defines the process for DoD consideration of foreign government sole source requests based on the objective needs of the purchaser?

Security Assistance Management Manual

The senior leadership of which of the following OSD organizations encourages the acquisition community to actively seek opportunities for customer participation in FMS acquisitions?

DSCA and DPAP

On an International Cooperative Program for another country to contract on behalf of the U.S., what type of approval is required?

Determination and Finding (D&F)

True or False: On International Cooperative Programs the DoD seeks best value procurement without guarantees of specific workshare but if needed will work to attain equitable worksharing.

True

To address some domestic preference restrictions while meeting DoD procurement needs, the DoD enters into what type of pact with other nations?

Reciprocal Defense Procurement Agreements

Which of the following statement is correct?

U.S. industry may recover offset cost on FMS contracts

Based on the Buy American Act (BAA), for a DoD contract, the cost of domestic components must exceed what minimum percentage of the cost of all components to be considered a domestic end product?

50%

Select the statement that best describes FMS customer participation in FMS contracts?

The extent of customer participation is at the contracting officer’s discretion after consultation

with the contractor

How is the Government Quality Assurance (GQA) agreement documented?

By either GQA Annex to an RDP MOU or a stand-alone document

Request by a foreign customer for a sole source procurement as part of a FMS case should be included in what document?

Letter of Request

Which of the following statements best explains the role of a contracting officer on an FMS program?

Contracting officer participation should begin prior to providing a Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) to the customer country

Lesson 13

True or False: Because of divergent foreign partner requirements, performance-based logistics is NOT a suitable logistics support framework for International Cooperative Programs.

False

For a weapons system sale, what term describes including all aspects of initial logistics support in the Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA)?

Total Package Approach (TPA)

True or False: FMS customers must obtain follow-on support from the U.S. Government.

True

Which of the following is a means used by FMS customers to “buy in” to the DoD supply system for follow-on support.

Cooperative Logistics Supply Support Arrangement (CLSSA)

True or False: Program-specific Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs) used on an International Cooperative Program can provide for sustainment cooperation.

True

Routine foreign requests for U.S. defense articles and services should be made by what means?

Foreign Military Sales procedures

Select the statement that best describes the TPA Concept

Usually there is a single case manager that in coordination with the program office ensures all aspects of initial support are included in the LOA

Which of the following is a way that ACSAs are different from FMS arrangements?

ACSAs are not to be used as a routine source of supply to a foreign country

True or False: International considerations extend across each of the acquisition logistics Integrated Product Support (IPS) elements

True

FMS customers can obtain follow-on support through all of the following methods except?

Indirect Offsets

Which of the following best describes CLSSAs?

CLSSAs are particularly well suited for follow-on support of common spares

ACQ 120 Lesson 14

All of the following are systems engineering activities or design considerations that have important effects on international acquisition programs except?

Conducting a cooperative opportunity analysis

Information that if compromised could cause significant degradation in mission effectiveness; shorten the expected combat-effective life of a system; reduce technological advantage; significantly alter program direction; or enable an adversary to defeat, counter, copy, or reverse engineer the technology or capability describes what type of information?

Critical Program Information

Which of the following is a program manager responsibility for anti-tamper (AT) measures? [Identify program manager responsibilities for anti-tamper.]

Implement AT measures and plan for verification and validation

A Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) that includes any weapon systems or components that contain CPI may not be offered until what condition exists?

The DoD ATEA has issued written approval of the AT plan

What is the name of the pilot program established to develop and incorporate technology protection features into a system or subsystem during its research and development phase?

Defense Exportability Features

When preparing design-to-specifications for a system, program personnel should identify International Standardization Agreements (ISAs) that meet which of the following requirements

Ratified by the United Sates that are applicable to the program

System Security Engineering (SSE) should include an assessment of security criteria that sets limits on what types of programs?

International Cooperative Programs, Foreign Military Sales (FMS), and Direct Commercial Sales (DCS)

Which of the following is a program manager responsibility for anti-tamper (AT) measures?

Include AT requirements in program budgets and plans

When preparing a response to a Letter of Request (LOR) for weapon systems or components containing CPI, the implementing agency must coordinate with the DoD Anti-Tamper Executive Agent (ATEA) for what reason?

To ensure that sensitive technology or program information is defended against unlawful exploitation or loss and that an approved AT plans is in place

What is the primary objective of the International Standardization Program?

Promote the use and implementation of standardization as one of the essential elements to interoperability with allies and partners

LESSON 15

What are three general categories of information that require protection on international acquisition programs?

Foreign Government Information, Classified Information, and Controlled Unclassified Information

True or False: In making an access decision prior to the release of U.S. defense articles or controlled information it must be determined that the proposed transfer is in the best interest of the United States and supports U.S. foreign policy and national security interests.

True

The body responsible for balancing technology security considerations and building allied and partner capacity objectives in overall Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure (TS&FD) decision-making and acts as the overarching DoD authority to ensure clear, senior level direction for TS&FD reviews is the _______________. [Describe how disclosure authorizations are made.

Arms Transfer and Technology Release Senior Steering Group

What are the two principle export licensing authorities in the U.S. Government

State Department and Commerce Department

What transfer mechanism provides more controlled information and technology than all other methods combined?

Foreign visits and assignments

Which of the following documents provides foreign disclosure guidance and authority for a specific defense acquisition program?

Delegation of Disclosure Authority Letter

Which of the following is a principal action performed by a Foreign Disclosure Officer?

Approve the release of all Classified Military Information and Controlled Unclassified Information to foreign governments and international organizations based on delegated authority

True or False: Early Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure (TS&FD) planning should attempt to achieve a reasonable balance between the risks of transferring controlled technology and information that provide U.S. warfighters an advantage in combat against the benefits of international participation.

True

Disclosure of Classified Military Information (CMI) to foreign governments and international organizations is governed by what document?

National Disclosure Policy 1 (NDP-1)

What is a title that is used to describe DoD military or civilian personnel who have been authorized to make foreign disclosure decisions by DoD Component Designated Disclosure Authorities

Foreign Disclosure Officer

What are the two principle export licensing authorities in the U.S. Government?

State Department and Commerce Department

Unclassified information to which access or distribution controls have been applied in accordance with national laws and regulations is known as

Controlled Unclassified Information

ACQ 1010 Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management

October 9, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Which of the following Acquisition Categories (ACAT's) are established for all services EXCEPT the Air Force?

Acquisition Category (ACAT) IV

Select the Department of Defense's (DOD'S) decision -support system described as: "This is the process by which the the Department of Defense (DOD) identified, accesses and prioritizes the capabilities the military referred to as the requirements generation process."

Defense Acquisition Management System (DAS)

Programs are divided into acquisition categories (ACATs) based primarily on program cost.

True

The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) is one of three Government regulations that govern acquisition activities and only applies to the Department of Defense (DoD)

Fasle

Which of the following is a primary objective of the System Acquisition Management process?

Provide measurable improvements in mission capabilities

Which of the following institutions designs, produces, supports and upgrades defense systems?

Industry

Who controls the budget and the release of funds, and reports directly to the Secretary of Defense?

Under Secretary of Defense Comptroller (USD)

Which type of Integrated Project Teams (IPTs) focus on seeking opportunities?

Working-level Integrated Project teams

A system includes all of the elements (e.g.’ hardware, software, logistical support, personnel) needed to assist DoD in conducting its mission of deterring or winning a war. Which of the following are considered primary objectives of Systems acquisition management?

Satisfy the needs of operational users
provide measurable improvements in functional capabilities
acquire products in a timely manner at a fair and reasonable cost

Which of the following best describes a system?

Hardware, Software, logistics support, and personnel

Which of the following is one of the principal mechanisms by which Congress modifies the defense acquisition structure

National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)

Which of the following establishes the objective of delivering effective, suitable, survivable, sustainable, and affordable solutions to the end user in a timely manner?

DoDI 5000.02 - Operation of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework

The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)

Is the primary regulation for all Federal agencies for the acquisition of supplies and services

Representing constituent interests, setting resource ceilings, and balancing national security and social needs are characteristics of which institution?

Congress

Formulating national security policy, negotiating with Congress, and maintaining a balanced force structure are characteristics of which institution?

Executive Branch

Considering stockholders’ interests, responding to solicitations, and technical achievement are characteristics of which institution?

Defense industry

Which of the following Acquisition Categories (ACAT's) are established for all services EXCEPT the Air Force?

Acquisition Category (ACAT) IV

Defense Acquisition Management System (DAS)

Programs are divided into acquisition categories (ACATs) based primarily on program cost.

True

The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) is one of three Government regulations that govern acquisition activities and only applies to the Department of Defense (DoD)

Fasle

Which of the following is a primary objective of the System Acquisition Management process?

Provide measurable improvements in mission capabilities

Which of the following institutions designs, produces, supports and upgrades defense systems?

Industry

Who controls the budget and the release of funds, and reports directly to the Secretary of Defense?

Under Secretary of Defense Comptroller (USD)

Which type of Integrated Project Teams (IPTs) focus on seeking opportunities?

Working-level Integrated Project teams

A system can be defined as

all elements needed to assist the DoD to conduct its mission of deterring or winning the war

Which of the following a key characteristic of Program Level Integrated Project Teams?

They focus on program execution

Select the Department of Defense decision-support system described as "This is the process by which the DoD identifies, assesses, and prioritizes the capabilities the military requires to fulfill its mission and its referred to as the requirements generation process."

JCIDS

A system estimated to have Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E) costs of $200M (FY 2020) is what category of program?

ACAT II

DoDI 5000.02 specifies the characteristics for acquisition categories

True

Which of the following institutions designs, produces, supports and upgrades defense systems?

Industry

Programs that estimate expenditure in any single year between $20M and $40M in FY 2014 constant year dollars are designated ACAT II

False

Who controls the budget and the release of funds and reports directly to the Secretary of Defense?

USD Comptroller

IN order to be successful in acquisition management, which of the PERFORMANCE risk factors need to be adressed

use of new material or processes

The FAR is one of the three Government regulations that govern acquisitions and only applies to the DoD

False

Acquisition Categories (ACTs) are divided into categories based primarily on which of the following?

Cost

Which of the following Acquisition Categories (ACTs) are established for all services EXCEPT the Air Force?

Acquisition Category (ACAT) IV

What is a characteristic of an Integrated Project Team (IP T)?

They are a multidisciplinary group of people who are collectively responsible for delivering a defined product or process

Acquisition is a broad term that applies to more than just the purchase of an item or service.

True

Who provides an independent assessment of the effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems?

Director, Operational Test & Evaluation (D OT&E)

Which of the following institutions sets resource ceilings and provides Budget Authority for the Department of Defense
(DOD)?

Congress

System Acquisition Management

is the process used to acquire quality products which must satisfy the needs of operational users, provide measureable improvements in mission capabilities, and acquired in a timely manner at a fair and reasonable cost.

Acquisition Laws

Title 10 of the United States Code governs the organization. structure, and operation of the Armed Forces of the United States

National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)

Is one of the principal mechanisms by which Congress modifies the defense acquisition structure

Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR)

Is the primary regulation for use by all Federal agencies for the acquisition of supplies and services with appropriated funds.

DoDD 5000.01

This policy, otherwise known as Defense Acquisition System policy states the policies and principles that guide all defense acquisition programs. This directive identifies the DoD key acquisition officials and forums.

DoDI 5000.02

This policy, otherwise known as Operation of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework (AAF) policy is applicable to all systems and services acquired via the Defense Acquisition System (DAS)

DoDI 5000.85

This policy, otherwise known as the Major Capability Acquisition Pathway policy guides the acquisition of major capability acquisition programs, including major defense acquisition programs (MDAP); other programs categorized as acquisition category such as ACAT I-II, automated information systems (AIS), and more

Executive Branch (People)

President, DoD, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), the Department of State, and the National Security Council (NSC)

Executive Branch (Objectives)

Satisfy national security objectives, maintaining a balanced force structure, fielding weapon systems to defeat threats to national security, preventing undue congressional interest/scrutiny, and eliminating fraud, waste, and abuse in federal procuerment

Legislative Branch (Congress)

Passes laws, provides constitutional checks and balances to the authority of the Executive Branch, and represent the interests of the people and the States

Legislative Branch (Objective)

Balancing national security and social needs, distributing federal dollars by district/state, maximizing competition, controlling industry profits, and controlling fraud, waste, and abuse

Defense Industry (Contractors)

Includes large, medium, and small organizations, both U.S. and foreign, providing goods and services to the DoD

Defense Industry (Objectives)

Profit and growth, cash flow, market share, stability, and technological achievement

Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD)

Principle staff element of the SECDEF to perform policy development, planning, resource management, fiscal program management

Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)

Principal assistant to the President in all matters relating to national security who is responsible for establishing general policies and programs for the military departments and agencies, and exercise general authority over those entities.

Under Secretary of Defense Comptroller (USD(C))

Controls the budget and the release of funds and is responsible for the Budgeting and Execution phases of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process

Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USD(P))

Provides policy advice, ensures DoD plan alignment with national security objective, and maintains responsibility for Defense Planning and Programming Guidance (DPPG) during the Planning phase of PPBE

Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisitions and Sustainment (USD(A&S))

Principal staff assistant and advisor to the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense for all matters relating to the DoD Acquisition System. Additional responsibilities and titles include Defense Acquisition Executive, Chairs the Defense Acquisition Board (DAB), and makes program milestone decisions for designated Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAPS)

Under Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering (USD(R&E))

Chief Technology Officer for the DoD charged with development and oversight of DoD technology strategy for the DoD who develops breakthrough capabilities to hedge against future uncertainties, provides assistance for rapid technology transitions

Director, Cost Assessment and Program Evaluation (D, CAPE)

Is responsible for analysis and advice on matters relating to Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution system (PPBE system), formulates study guidance for and performance of Analyses of Alternatives (AoAs) for Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAPs)

Director, Operation Test and Evaluation (D, OT&E)

Provides independent assessment of the operational effectiveness and suitability of new weapons systems and sends OT&E reports directly to the SECDEF and Congress

Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE)

Is the USD (A&S), top-level official for all DoD system acquisitions and is responsible for supervising the Defense Acquisition System. Acts as the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) for Major Defense Acquisitions Programs (MDAPs) & Major Automated Information Systems (MAIS). Authority can be delegated to the Component/Service Acquisition Executive and to another OSD Official as the DAE sees fit.

Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)

Designated individual with overall responsibility for a program which includes the authority to approve the progress of an acquisition and is held accountable for the cost, schedule, and performance reporting of the said program. ACAT Level is determined by the appropriate MDA at the first Milestone (Material Development Decision (MDD)).

DAB

Is the Department's senior-level forum for advising the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (USD(A&S)) on critical decisions concerning Acquisition Category (ACAT) ID programs, and selected ACAT IA programs.

Component Acquisition Executive (CAE)

Is the senior official in each DoD Component responsible for all acquisition functions within that Component. The CAE is the secretary of the military department, or the head of the defense agency, with power of re-delegation. Additional responsibilities include being MDA for ACAT IB,C,AC, and III programs.

Program Executive Officer (PEO)

Is the official who has responsibility for directing several Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAPs) and for assigned major system and non-major system acquisition programs.

Program Manager (PM)

Is the designated individual with responsibility for all aspects of a particular program including the authority to accomplish program objectives for development, production, and sustainment. Is accountable for credible cost, schedule, and performance reporting to the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA).

Acquisition Categories (ACAT)

Acquisition programs -- levels primarily based off of the cost, but interest level also impacts the level of distinction

Weapon Systems (ACAT)

Weapon and support equipment such as surveillance systems, command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, and reconnaissance systems.

Automated Information Systems (AIS)

Combinations of computer hardware, software, data, and/or telecommunications equipment that perform functions such as collecting, processing, storing, transmitting, and displaying information

ACAT I

ACAT level where Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) is more than $535 million and Procurements is more than $3.065 billion in Fiscal Year (FY) 2020. Programs in this level are MDAP and it may include programs below those cost level if high interest is shown.

ACAT II

ACAT level where Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) is more than $200 million and Procurement is more than $920 million in FY 2020. Programs in this level meet criteria for a Major System.

ACAT III

ACAT level below ACAT II, still related to Air Force

ACAT IV

ACAT level below ACAT III, Air Force does not have this level. Two categories in this level, IVT (Test) and IVM (Monitor).

Risk

Is a measure of future uncertainties in achieving program performance goals and objectives within defined cost, schedule, and performance constraints

Identified risks

A future root cause, a probability or likelihood of that future root cause occurring, the consequence or effect of that future root cause if it occurs.

Mitigating risks

Risk control, avoidance, acceptance, and transfer

Risk Control

Reduce risk to an acceptable level, taking actions to reduce the likelihood of a future root cause to as low as possible in order to minimize potential program impacts

Risk Avoidance

Reduce risk by eliminating the risk event or condition by taking an alternate path

Risk Acceptance

Reduce risk by accepting the potential event or condition and

Risk Transfer

Reduce risk by reallocating or sharing the risk among entities or processes

Integrated Product Teams (IPTs)

A multidisciplinary group of people who are collectively responsible for delivering a defined product or process, functions including building successful programs, identify and resolve issues, make sound and timely recommendations to facilitate decision making.

IPTs (Types)

There are three types of this team -- Overarching, Working Level, and Program Level.

Overarching IPTs (OIPTs)

Team that focuses on strategic guidance, program assessment, issue resolution.

Working Level IPTs (WIPTs)

Team that focuses on identifying and resolving program issues, determining program status, and seeking opportunities.

Program Level IPTS (PIPTs)

Team that focuses on program execution which includes representative from both government and industry

Decision Support Systems (DSS)

From concept to deployment, a weapon system goes through three decision processes to identify the required weapon system, establish a budget, and acquire the system.

Defense Acquisition System (DAS)

A decision support system that is event-driven and used for developing and/or acquiring an item/system.

Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)

A decision support system that is needs-driven and used for identifying capability requirements.

Planning, Programming, Budgeting, & Execution System (PPBE)

A decision support system that is calendar-driven and used for allocating resources and budgeting.

Adaptive Acquisition Framework (AAF)

Objective of this framework is to acquire quality products that satisfy user needs with measurable improvements to mission capability and operational support, in a timely manner, and at a fair and reasonable price.

Urgent Capabilities

This pathway means acquisition is needed within 2 years.

Middle Tier of Acquisition

This pathway means acquisition is either rapid prototypes to fielding within 5 years

Major Capabilities Acquisition (MCA)

This pathway has no set time length but is for programs that require significant development, time, and financial expenditures

Software Acquisition

This pathway has not set time length but is for software intensive systems.

MCA Milestones

These 3 milestone serve as gates that must be passed through before the program can proceed to the next phase of the acquisition process.

Milestone A

Milestone that grants permission to enter into the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) Phase.

Milestone B

Milestone that grant permission to enter into the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) Phase.

Milestone C

Milestone that grants permission to enter the Production and Deployment (PD) Phase.

MCA pathway

Has the following five phases: Materiel Solutions Analysis (MSA) > Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) > Engineering & Manufacturing Deployment (EMD) > Production & Deployment (PD) > Operations & Sustainment (OS).

JCIDS Methodology

Use top level strategic guidance as a basis for identifying and describing shortfalls in joint warfighting capability, determine functional capability needs and alternatives for meeting those needs, and provide the basis for establishing priorities by identifying Warfighter deficiencies or needs

Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities, and Policy (DOTMLPF-P)

JCIDS document that is refferred to for the requirements generation process.

PPBE Methodology

Calendar-driven process used for securing funding for a major acquisition program, offers the basis for informed affordability assessment and resource allocation decisions, and provides a formal, systematic structure for making decisions on policy, strategy, and the development of forces and capabilities to accomplish anticipated missions.

Planning

During this stage in PPBE, a national defense strategy is defined and a plan is developed for executing the strategy.

Programming

During this stage in PPBE, proposed programs are fleshed out and a Program Objective Memorandum (POM) is written.

Budgeting

During this stage in PPBE, which occurs concurrently with the programming phase, proposed budgets and programs are reviewed and the Budget Estimate Submission (BES) is prepared

Execution

During this stage in PPBE, programs are evaluated and measured against established performance metrics, including rates of funding obligations and expenditures.

What is the primary objective of JCIDS?

To ensure the capabilities required by the warfighter are identified and meet the operational performance criteria

KPPs are Performance attributes of a system considered critical to the development of an effective military capability. Which of the following is NOT one of the four mandatory KPP

Lethality

Who can initiate a CBA?

Any DoD organization

Which document is developed next if the CBA recommends a material solution?

ICD

As the program nears the end of development, the user may refine the CDD

True

Which of the following did the adoption of JCIDS allow DoD to do?

Shift from a threat based approach to identifying warfighter requirements to a capabilities-based approach

Select the document that establishes policies and procedures for developing, reviewing, validating and approving the capability documents required by JCIDS

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Instruction (CJCSI) 5123.01

If an Initial Capability Document is developed, which of the following solutions does the CBA support?

Material

JCIDS (Objective)

To ensure that the capabilities required by the joint Warfighter to successfully execute their missions are identified with their associated operational performance criteria.

DOTMLPF-P

Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership and education, Personnel, Facilities, and Policy

Non-Materiel Solutions

These solutions are documented in a DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation document.

Materiel Solutions

These solutions are documented in a Capability Document which breaks down into an Initial Capability Document (ICD) and Capability Development Document (CDD).

CJSCI 5123.01

One of the governing documents for JCIDS which purpose is to establish policies and procedures for the JCIDS called for by the DoDD 5000.01 and DoDI 5000.02, provide policies and procedures for developing, reviewing, validating, and approving capabilities document, and to delegate oversight responsibility for the JCIDS to the Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, assisted by the JROC and members of the Joint Staff

JCIDS Manual

One of the governing documents for JCIDS which purpose is to facilitate the timely and cost effective development of capability solutions for the Warfighter.

DoDI 5000.02

One of the governing documents for JCIDS which purpose is to establish a flexible management framework for translating capability needs and technology opportunities -- otherwise known as the adaptive Adaptive Acquisition Framework.

Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA)

This is the first step of the JCIDS process and analyzes the military's capability needs and gaps, and recommends both materiel and non-materiel ways to address the gaps

Requirements Managers

This person in the JCIDS process is responsible for assessing current capabilities, recommending non-materiel and /or materiel approaches, and identifying operational performance requirements

Guidance for Future Joint Warfighting Capabilities

This step in the JICDS process is based on Strategic Guidance, Joint Operations Concepts, Concept of Operations (CONOPS), Defense Planning Scenarios, and Feedback from the field

Resources (JCIDS)

These resources are provided by the PPBE and Congressional appropriations.

Acquisition (JCIDS)

Determining materiel and non-materiel solutions, estimating cost and obtaining funding, designing, developing, and testing, and producing and fielding.

Non-materiel Solution

A defense acquisition program that satisfies identified capability needs. This solution is usually faster and much less expensive.

Materiel Solution

A new item developed or purchased to satisfy one or more capability requirements. These solutions are executed in the DAS process and are guided by capability requirement documents from the JCIDS process.

Non-Materiel Solution (Implentation)

DOTMLPF-P is developed to implement this type of solution.

Materiel Solution

ICD is developed to implement this type of solution.

CBA Process (Materiel Route)

ICD > Materiel Development Decision > Materiel Solution Analysis (MSA) & Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) > Draft CDD > Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) phase & Competitive Prototypes > Finalized CDD > Engineering & Manufacturing Development (EMD) > CDD update > Production & Development Phase -- FRP, LRIP, and IOC

Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)

This document describes capability gaps that exist in joint warfighting functions, as described in the applicable Family of Joint Future Concepts or other mission tasks. Initiated when a materiel solution is deemed necessary.

Analysis of Alternatives (AoA)

This document is conducted to assess critical technologies associated with the concepts documented in the ICD. The results of this document provides the basis for a draft CDD.

Capability Development Document (CDD)

This document identifies operational performance attributes necessary to design the proposed system, draft is copmpleted during the MSA phase and is finalized during the TMRR phase -- it can be updated throughout its lifespan.

Threshold

Is the minimum acceptable value to the user for a system capability. Any value below threshold, utility of systems becomes questionable.

Objective

Is the desired value, which results in an operationally significant increment above the threshold.

Key Performance Parameters (KPP)

Performance parameters considered by the user to be the most essential

Key System Attributes (KSA)

Performance parameters considered by the user essential to achieving a balanced solution/approach to a system, but not critical enough to be designated KPP

Trade Space

The difference between the threshold and objectives value

Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) Interest

Part of the Joint Staff (J-8) that applies to all potential and designated ACAT I/IA programs and capabilities that have a potentially significant impact on interoperability in allied and coalition operation.

Joint Capabilities Board (JCB)

Part of the J_8 that applies to all documents describing ACAT II and below programs that have a potentially significant impact on interoperability

Joint Integration

Part of the J-8 that applies to all documents describing ACAT II and below program which require one or more joint endorsements or certifications, and are below JCB interest level.

Joint Information

Part of the J-8 that applies to all documents describing ACAT II and below programs that don't have require joint endorsements or certifications and are below JCB interest level.

Major Capability Acquisition (MCA) Phases

Materiel Solutions Analysis (MSA) > Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) > Engineering & Manufacturing Development (EMD) > Production & Deployment (P&D) > Operations & Support (O&S)

Major Capability Acquisition (MCA) Milestones

Milestone A (initiates TMRR) > Milestone B (initiates EMD) > Milestone C (initiates P&D)

Major Capability Acquisition (MCA) Decision Points

Materiel Development Decision (MDD) > Capability Development Document (CDD) Validation > Development Request for Proposal (RFP) Decision > and Released Full-Rate Production "(FRP)

Materiel Solutions Analysis (MSA)

In this MCA phase the most promising technology is picked to meet the user need identified in the Initial Capabilities Document.

Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR)

In this MCA phase we reduce risk by proving the reliability of the technology through competitive prototyping.

Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD)

In this MCA phase we complete the build to design, prove the design works and can be manufactured.

Production and Deployment (P&D)

In this MCA phase we produce a limited number of units and test the units to make sure that they work and after that is we produce and deploy the full set.

Operations and Support (O&S)

In this MCA phase we support operational units for the full it's full life.

DoD Decision Support Systems

Defense Acquisition System, Joint Capabilities Integration & Development System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting & Execution System

MCA Purposes

Develop technology, produce weapon systems, and provide logistics support.

DAS Governing Document

DODD 5000.01, DoDI 5000.02, DoDI 5000.85, and Defense Acquisition Guidebook

Materiel Development Decision (MDD)

First decision point in the MCA which determines whether a new weapon system is required to fill the identified gap. Also known as need identification decision this triggers the analysis of alternative solutions.

MDA Determination of MDD

MDA must determine that a materiel solution is necessary, approve AoA plan, designate the DoD Component that will lead the program, and determine the acquisition phase of entry

MSA (Phases)

MDD > AOA > ICD > Draft CDD > Mile Stone A

Analysis of Alternatives (AoA)

Conducted during the MSA phase, this phase focuses on identifying and analyzing alternatives, measures of effectiveness, key trades between cost and capability, schedule, concept of operations, overall risk, and total life-cycle cost, including sustainment and provides the basis for the Acquisition Strategy (AS).

Critical Technology Elements (CTEs)

Technology maturity, integration risk, manufacturing feasability, and technology maturation and demonstration needs

MSA (Conclusion)

When the AoA has been completed, draft CDD produced, and criteria met for Milestone A have been met, this phase has completed.

Milestone A

Also referred to as the Risk Reduction Decision, is an investment decision to pursue specific product or design concepts, and to commit the resources required to mature technology and/or reduce any risks that must be mitigated prior to committing the resources needed for development, production, and fielding. A successful Milestone A decision leads to entry into the TMRR phase.

MDA Determination of Milestone A

MDA must approve Proposed materiel solution, Acquisition Strategy, Systems Engineering Plan (SEP), Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP), and Product Support Strategy (PSS), Lead Component must submit a cost estimate for proposed solution, must have full funding for Future Years Defense Program.

TMRR (purpose)

Reduce technology risk by demonstrating critical technologies in competitive prototyping activities, determine and mature the appropriate set of technologies, reduce all sources of risk through risk mitigation, develop and approve the CDD at the CDD-Validation, conduct a prelimary design review (PDR), and release the development request for proposal

Reliability, Availability and Maintainability (RAM)

This report in the TMRR phase provides early (Pre-Milestone A) reliability, availability, maintainability and ownership cost feasibility assessments of alternative concepts, includes early formulation of maintenance and support concepts, provides an audit trail that documents and supports JCIDS thresholds, ensures correct balance between the sustainment metrics, provides early risk reductions, and informs the Preliminary Design Review

Preliminary Design Review (PDR)

This review in the TMRR phase ensures that the preliminary design and basic system architecture are complete, there is technical confidence that the capability need can be satisfied, and all needs can be met within cost and schedule goals.

Development Request for Proposal (DFRP)

This request is released when development is complete and a decision can be made to release an RFP for development (and possibly initial production) to industry. Considered the most critical decision point an an acquisition program.

TMRR (Conclusion)

This phase is complete when an affordable increment of capability has been identified, the technology has been demonstrated in a relevant environment, manufacturing risks have been identified, system or increment ready for production within a short time frame, and PDR has been conducted

Milestone B

Development decision to authorize entry into the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) Phase. MDA approves of Acquisition Strategy, Acquisition Program Baseline, Low Rate Initial Production quantities, Type of Contract, and exit criteria for EMD.

EMD (Purpose)

Is to develop, build, and test a product to verify that all operational and derived requirements have been met, and to support production or deployment decision.

EMD (MDA)

Completes all needed hardware and software detailed design, systemically retires any open risks, builds and tests prototypes, prepares for production or deployment,
and includes the establishment of the initial product baseline for all configuration items.

Critical Design review (CDR)

A multi-discipline review to ensure that a system can proceed into fabrication which includes Adequate developmental Testing (DT), Environmental, Saftey, and Occupational Health (ESOH) assessments, Completed Failure Modes, Effects, and Criticality Analysis (FMECA), etc

EMD (Product Support Process)

Engineering Review > Product Support Package > Performance Testing

EMD (Conclusion)

This phase ends when the design i stable, system meets validated capability requirements, manufacturing processes have been demonstrated, industrial production capabilities are reasonably available, and system has met or exceeds all EMD criteria.

Milestone C (Purpose)

Authorize entry into Low-Rate Initial Production (LRIP) for MDAPs and Major Systems, production or procurement, and limited deployment for Major Automated Information Systems (MAIS) or software-intensive systems with no production components.

Milestone C (MDA)

Considers cost estimates, manpower mix data, validated online lifecycle threat report, environmental issues, compliance with the DoD Strategic Plan

Acquisition Decision Memorandum (ADM)

MDA decision made at Milestone C are documented here.

FRP (MDA)

Consider any new validated threat environments that might affect operational effectiveness, consult with the requirements validation authority as part of the decision making process to ensure that capability requirements are current

O&S (Purpose)

Is to execute the product support strategy, satisfy materiel readiness and operational support performance requirements, and sustain the system over its life cycle, to include disposal.

O&S (MDA)

This phase begins upon MDA approval of Product Support Strategy (PSS)

Product Support Strategy (PSS)

The basis for all sustainment efforts of a program and lead to a Product Support Package (PSP) to achieve and sustain Warfighter requirements.

Product Support Package (PSP)

This includes the array of product support functions required to deploy and maintain the readiness and operational capability of major weapon systems, subsystems, and components, including all functions related to weapon systems readiness.

Acquisition Strategy (AS)

This strategy guides program execution from initiation through re-procurement of systems, subsystems, components, spares, and services beyond the initial production contract award, and during post-production support.

AS (Goal)

A primary goal of the AS is to minimize the time and cost it takes, consistent with common sense and sound business practices, to satisfy identified, validated needs for technologies, products and services; and to maximize affordability throughout a program's useful life cycle.

AS & DoD Interaction

DoDI 5000.85 states that each PM must prepare and the MDA must approve an AS at Milestone A.

National Security Strategy

The strategy that recognizes the invaluable advantages that strong relationship with allies and partners can deliver.

International Acquisition and Exportability (IA&E) Policy Objectives

Operational, Economic, Technical, Political, and Industrial

Operational (IA&E)

To increase military effectiveness through interoperability and partnership with allies and partners.

Economic (IA&E)

To reduce weapons acquisition costs by sharing costs and economies of scale, or avoiding duplication of development efforts with our allies and friends.

Technical (IA&E)

To access the best technology worldwide, and help minimize the capabilities gap with allies and coalition partners

Political (IA&E)`

To strengthen alliances and relationships with other friendly countries.

Industrial (IA&E)

To Bolster domestic and allied defense industrial bases.

International Armaments Cooperation

Overisght by USA (A&S) and (R&E) used to preserve peace through strength and enhance U.S. coalition warfare capability through establishment of international acquisition partnerships with allied and friendly nations. Implemented primarily through DoD IA&E ICP transactions.

Which OSD position ensures the alignment of DoD plans with national security objectives?

Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Policy

Which OSD position controls the budget and the release of funds?

Under Secretary of Defense (USD) Comptroller

Which OSD position provides independent assessment of the operational effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems?

Director, Operational Test and Evaluation

Which OSD position is the principal staff assistand and advisor to the Secretary and Deputy Secretary of Defense for all matters relating to the DoD acquisition system?

Under Secretary of Defense (USD) for Acquisition and Sustainment

The Defense Security Cooperation Agency and a Military Department International Program Office are strong advocates of a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) initiative to sell a U.S. system in full rate production to allied and friendly nations in a region that hasn't traditionally purchased U.S. equipment in the past. The Program Manager's Acquisition Strategy must consider new alliances and new partners through International Acquisition and Exportability to support the National Defense Strategy

True

When is the Acquisition Program baseline (APB) Prepared?

Prepared at program initiation and revised to subsequent milestone reviews, program
restructuring, or unrecoverable deviations

The purpose of the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) phase is to reduce technology risk

through competitive prototyping of critical technologies.

True

What authorizes entry into the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase?

Milestone B decision

The Defense Security Cooperation Agency asks a Military Department to engage their acquisition counterparts in allied and friendly nations regarding the potential benefits of acquiring an upgraded U.S. system that could provide additional coalition capability in the region in order to bolster the U.S. influence in the region. This initiative supports the achievement of which DoD Security Cooperation objective?

Promoting Equipment Sales and Financing

Which of the following Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) documents interfaces with the Major Capability Acquisition Pathway? (select two that apply)

Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)
Capability Development Document (CDD)

The Operations and Support Phase begins after the production or deployment decision and is based on

which Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) approved document?

Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP)

What is the purpose of an Acquisition Strategy (AS)

To guide execution from initiation through re-procurement of systems, subsystems,
components, spares, and services beyond the initial production contract award and during
post-production support

What is the purpose of the Milestone C decision?

For major systems, the Department of Defense (DoD) is committed to production of the system and entry into Low-Rate initial Production (LRIP)

What is the primary purpose of the Materiel Solution Analysis (MSA) phase?

To conduct analysis and other activities needed to choose the critical technology(s) and the concept for the product and to begin translating validated capability gaps into system specific requirements

What is the name of the law that requires funds appropriated by Congress to be used only for the programs and purposes for which the appropriation is made?

Misappropriation Act

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) apportions Budget Authority to the DoD Comptroller on a quarterly, annual, or other periodic basis depending on the appropriation.

True

Which enactment process activity must be passed by both Houses of Congress and signed by the President before any Federal agency can incur obligations or make expenditures from the U.S. Treasury?

Appropriations Bill

Each phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process answers a different question. Which of the following questions does the Execution Phase answer?

How are we doing on our resource allocation?

What budgeting review for the next fiscal year occurs while one FT budget is being executed and the next fiscal year is being enacted?

Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) review

Which activity provides the Budget Authority?

Appropriations Bill

Which agency apportions budget authority to the Department of Defense's (DoD's) comptroller on a periodic basis?

Office of Management and Budget

When does the execution phase of financial management occur?

When appropriated fund are spent on defense programs

What is the purpose of the Milestone C decision?

For major systems, the Department of Defense (DoD) is committed to production of the
system and entry into Low-Rate initial Production (LRIP)

Who can approve the realignment of funds between activities that are below the level of control for that appropriation category and that does not require a reprogramming action?

Program Manager

The Life Cycle Cost Estimate (LCCE) uses the work breakdown structure to show costs by system and subsystem.

True

Which of the following appropriations categories fund the Research and Development efforts performed by both contractors and government agencies?

Research, Development, Test and Evaluation

Select the terms that best fits the following definition: "When the vendor cashes the expenditure check and money flows from the Treasury to the vendor or supplier."

Outlay

What cost estimating technique would be indicated for the following situation? The program is early in the Engineering and Manufacturing Development phase. An estimate is needed quickly to support a "what-if" discussion. A moderate degree of subjectivity can be accommodated. A good database exists with information on many similar systems and their performance characteristics.

Parametric

Approval for reprogramming must always involve Congress.

False

Below Threshold Reprogramming for procurement is limited to the lesser of $20 million or 20%, into or out of a program. Thresholds vary by appropriations category.

True

Select the term that best fits the following definition: “The legal reservation of funds to make a future payment of money.”

Obligation

What cost estimating technique would be indicated of the following situation? The program is alter in the EMD phase and is going to have a MS C Decision in about a year. The estimate is due several months to a year from now. The estimate needs to be very accurate and objective. Detailed labor and material estimates are available. The design effort has completed the Work Breakdown Structure definition and the sum of the cost s determines the total system cost.

Engineering

Select the term that best fits the following definition: “ An administrative reservation of funds by the local comptroller, in anticipation of a future obligation.”

Commitment

Which of the following appropriations categories fund major projects such as bases, schools, and maintenance facilities?

MILCON

Which of the following statements is true of Below Threshold Reprogramming?

The transfer of funds among programs within an appropriation category, but it is subject to certain rules and limitations.

What does reprogramming permit the Department of Defense (DoD) to do with Budget Authority (BA)?

Use BA for Purposes other than those originally intended by Congress

Select the term that best fits the following definition: “When the vendor cashes the expenditure check and money flows from the Treasury to the vendor or supplier.”

Outlay

What is one purpose of contract administration?

Avoiding or elimination overlap and duplication of Government contract administration effort

Which of the following describes an Indefinite-Quantity contract?

Provides an indefinite quantity, within stated limits, of supplies or services to be furnished during a fixed period, within stated limits

Who oversees the source selection process and selects the source whose proposal is the best value?

Source Selection Authority (SSA)

The Termination Contracting Officer (TCO) is responsible for:

Negotiating any settlement with the contractor

U.S. Federal Government agencies are required to arrange full and open competition through the use of competitive procedures in their procurement activities unless otherwise authorize by law

True

Which of the following is a true statement regarding a contract?

Requires six essential elements to be binding

What is the first activity in the planning phase?

Identifying and justifying a mission need that requires a material solution

Which systems engineering supporting discipline has the goal to compare a system or components against requirements and specifications?

test and evaluation

The item detail specification, in combination with associated drawings, parts lists, process specs, and material specs, are together often referred to as the Technical Data Package (TDP).

True

In which phase are systems-level requirements stabilized and detailed designs developed based on these requirements?

Engineering and Manufacturing Develpment

Taken together, the 16 SE processes a systematic approach focused on providing operational capability to the Warfighter while reducing technical and programmatic risk.

True

Which of the following technical management processes is defined as the “means by which the results of the systems engineering effort are documented and tracked as changes occur?”

Configuration Management

The systems engineering plan is only submitted prior to the first milestone review

False

If the Government is primarily concerned with managing the total program, then the contractor’s primary concern is:

Designing and developing the system

Which of the following technical processes involves the primary efforts of design and realization?

Implementation

Which of the following technical management processes addresses the scope of the technical effort required to develop the system?

Technical Planning

The Program Manager is required to develop a System Engineering Plan that explains how he or she will manage the _________ activities to be undertaken.

Technical

Which technical process answers the question of “Did you build the system correctly?”

Verification

Which activity is typically accomplished by the contractor in the Systems Engineering Process as it relates to defining the design?

Translates system-level performance thresholds and objectives to subsystem and lower design specifications

Government contracts require that contractors perform at high levels of quality, and ask that the contractors specify in their proposals the specific quality standards with which their processes will be compliant.

True

Test and Evaluation (T&E) is used to identify technical risk, verify performance, and validate system utility throughout the defense system acquisition life cycle.

True

Which type of test supports the systems engineering process by measuring the technical performance against the design specifications?

Developmental Test and Evaluation

Which of the following best describes Test and Evaluation (T&E)

Ensures that the system meets the capability needs.

Select the type of Operational Test and Evaluation that is conducted after the Full-Rate Production Decision:

Follow-On Operational Test and Evaluation

The Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) must be developed prior to which of the following?

Milestone A and updated before each subsequent review

Performance Based Logistics (PBL) is based on long term Warfighter-driven thinking.

True

Life cycle consist of research and development costs, investment costs, operating and support costs, and disposal costs over the entire life cycle.

True

Which of the following best describes Performance Based Logistics contracts?

Performance Based Logistics Contracts (also known as performance-based contract work) is a contracting method that rejects the traditional “pay for components and services” (transaction-oriented) approach in a favor of a contract that is based mainly on predicted performance outcomes. Long-term support arrangements with defined lines of authority and responsibility are used to improve operation reliability and satisfy performance goals for a defense system through Performance-Based Logistics (PBL).

Which of the following Integrated Product Support (IPS) Element objectives is “to plan and manage cost and performance across the product support value chain, from design through disposal?”

Product Support Management

DoD Products Support Business Model (PSBM) is a one-time process to optimally support the needs and requirements of the Warfighter in an effective and affordable manner.

false

Which of the following metrics is a top-level outcome-based metrics based on the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)?

Availability

Performance Based Logistics (PBL) is synonymous with performance based life cycle product support.

True

What is the primary life cycle sustainment objective of the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase?

Developing the requirements for the long-term performance-based support concepts.”

Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) is the amount of time between one failure, the failure’s correction, and then to the onset of a second failure (which may be of a different nature than the first failure) within the same component or subassembly within a given population of equipment.

True

Logisticians and engineers who perform sustainment analyses should have a basic understanding of operations, system missions and profiles and the system capabilities.

True

Logistics plans are executed and altered over the many years of deployed operation, with Operations and Support (O&S) costs typically accounting for only 10 to 20 percent of a system.

False

Which of the following are strategies of life cycle sustainment?

Comprehensive and early planning, development, and implementation

One way to support the Department’s goal of incentivizing, and ultimately improving, productivity and affordability of the Department’s weapon system is to increase the application of Performance Based Logistics (PBL) solutions for the department’s systems, subsystems, and components.

True

Which of the following organizations provides centralized management of DoD CI activities?

Director, Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

Counterintelligence (CI) organizations need information that describes the CPI and its projected use to determine the foreign collection threat to an acquisition program and subsequently the ______________.

Program acquisition strategy

CIPS are__________

Critical Intelligence Parameters

Prevention of damage to, protection of, and restoration of computers, electronic communications systems, electronic communication services, wire communication, and electronic communication refers to: _________________.

Cybersecurity

The overall efforts of the intelligence Community (IC) are administered by the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI), which is led by the Director of National Intelligence (DNI).

True

_____________ Guards against improper information modification or destruction.

Integrity

ACQ 0800 Federally Funded Research and Development Centers

October 9, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Which Federally Funded Research and Development Center's high priority mission areas include Joint Lethality in Contested Environments, Resilient Space/Counter Space, Nuclear Enterprise Modernization, Missile Defense, Cyber Operations?

National Security Engineering Center

Federally Funded Research and Development Centers work must be aligned to the _____ and _____ defined in the sponsoring agreement and contract statement of work.

Core Competencies
Mission areas

Which key governance document is required by FAR 35.017-1 and establishes Federally Funded Research and Development Center mission and strategic plan?

Office of Federal Procurement Policy (OFPP) Policy Letter 11-01

Center for Communications & Computing and Software Engineering Institute are examples of which type of Federally Funded Research and Development Center?

Research & Development Laboratories

During which era did the Appropriations Act state that funds cannot be used to establish a new DoD FFRDC?

Post-Cold War

What are three restrictions for Federally Funded Research and Development Centers?

Prohibited from production and manufacturing
Be free from conflicts of interest
Must operate in the public’s best interest

ACQ 0500 Acquisition Policy: NDAA and DoD 5000

October 9, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Your program manager has a new requirement that can be satisfied with an existing, proven technology and is ready to begin production in 3 months with completion of fielding in 3 years. Which acquisition pathway fits best?

Middle Tier of Acquisition (MTA)

Your program's systems engineer comes running into your office in a panic, as she needs to find the Office of Secretary of Defense's (OSD's) latest Engineering policy, but she can no longer find the "Enclosure 3: Systems Engineering" section in the latest version of the DoDI 5000.02. Which of the following policies should you now refer her to?

DoD1 5000.01

How is the NDAA used to shape defense policies indirectly? (Select three that apply).

Prohibition
Debates
Provisions

Your PM is unclear about why the House Armed Services Committee (HASC) decided to authorize your program's O&M at an amount less than what you had requested. Where would you be able to find this rationale?

HASC Committee Report

Your PM is chairing an integrated product team (IPT) that is tasked with putting together the program's Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP), and a debate has taken place as to what the Director of Operational Test and Evaluation's (DOT&E) role is in your program's testing plan. Which of the following is a DOT&E Responsibility?

Prescribing policies and procedures for the conduct of operational and live fire test and evaluation in the DoD.

ACQ 0150 Middle Tier of Acquisition

October 9, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What is the purpose of Rapid Prototyping?

Provide for the use of innovative technologies to rapidly develop field-able prototypes to demonstrate new capabilities and meet emerging military needs.

What is the purpose of Rapid Fielding?

Provide for the use of proven technologies to field production quantities of new or upgraded systems with minimal development required.

What is the objective of Rapid Prototyping?

Field a prototype that can be demonstrated in an operational environment and provide for residual operational capacity within five years of the development of an approved requirement.

What is the objective of Rapid Fielding?

Begin production with six months and complete fielding within five years of the development of an approved requirement.

What does Rapid Prototyping start with?

A merit-based process for the consideration of innovative technologies and new capabilities to meet needs communicated by the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the combatant commanders.

What does Rapid Fielding start with?

A merit-based process for the consideration of existing products and proven technologies to meet the needs communicated by the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the combatant commanders.

What does Rapid Prototyping include?

1) Developing and implementing acquisition and funding strategies
2) Process for demonstrating and evaluating the performance of fieldable prototypes developed pursuant to the program in an operational environment
3) Transitioning successful prototypes to new or existing acquisition programs and fielding under the rapid fielding pathway or the traditional acquisition system

What does Rapid Fielding include?

1) Demonstrating performance and evaluating for current operational purposes products and technologies
2) Developing and implementing acquisition and funding strategies for the program
3) Considering life cycle costs and addressing issues of logistics support and system interoperability
4) Opportunities to reduce total ownership costs

Are middle tier acquisitions subject to Joint Capabilities Integration and Development system Manual (JCIDS) and Department of Defense Directive 5000.01?

No; except to the extent specifically provided in guidance.

Does the term "Major Defense Acquisition Program" include an acquisition or project that is carried out using the rapid fielding or rapid prototyping acquisition pathway?

No.

Middle Tier acquisitions are NOT subject to what two things?

1) Manual for the Operation of the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)
2) DoD 5000.2 "Operations of the Defense Acquisition System" dated Aug 10, 2017

It is required by law to provide a merit-based process to consider which two things?

New technologies & Capabilities to meet warfighter needs.

Who is responsible for cost reporting waivers for all Middle Tier Programs?

Deputy Director of Cost Assessment.

Funding for middle tier acquisition will use what process?

Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution.

Who must PEOs and PMs keep informed of additional schedule acceleration that may be achieved if additional funding becomes available?

Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Army (Plans, Programs, and Resources) (DASA(PP&R))

Program Managers (PMs) should answer what question?

"Why not 804?"

How many days does the OSD have to overturn component 804 designations?

What is the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)?

The DoD process which defines acquisition requirements.

List major differences between the traditional and rapid acquisition processes.

1) Early Integration of Cost Community
2) Constant communication
3) Data transparency
4) Evolving models & estimates

When do Middle Tier Prototyping Milestone Reviews occur?

At the discretion of the MDA and PM

What type of statutory reporting is required for Middle Tier Prototyping?

There is no MDAP statutory reporting.

Is Middle Tier Prototyping AML Exempt?

Yes; unless otherwise directed.

At what thresholds is Cost Reporting required?

For programs over $100M and contracts over $20M (investment PoP only)

ACQ 0061 Independent Government Cost Estimate(IGCE) for Services Acquisition Exam

October 9, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Which of the following describe why cost estimates are important? (Selecting two that apply)

They serve as the basis for schedule analysis.
the cost estimate and its supporting budget are used to help baseline the value of the services provided.
They are necessary to support analyses, defend program requirements, or choose between proposals.
They help to ensure traceability of requirements to stakeholders.
Once fund are_____, they are available for five years for obligation adjustments.
cancelled
expired
committed
inventoried
Which of the following represents the four sequential steps included in the Department of Defence’s (DoD’s) internal process that is used to allocate resources to capabilities deemed necessary to accomplish the Department’s mission?
Planning, Programming, Budgeting, Execution
A cost is allocable if:
It is assigned or chargeable to one or more cost objectives
it is used for a service not specifically identified as a requirement
The time and money needed to perform the task is in keeping with past performance or based on trustworthy estimates
More than one cost estimating procedure was used to estimate the cost

Which tab of the Acquisition Requirements Roadmap Tool—Cost Estimation (ARRT-CE) includes fields you will use to enter project-wide standards and rates that are needed to calculate your labor and travel estimates?

Requirements

Direct costs are costs that are specifically identified with _______ while indirect costs are costs that can be identified with __________.

Two or more cost objectives; a particular cost objective A particular cost objective; two or more cost objectives

labor; a particular cost objective that is not labor or direct material costs

A function, organizational subdivision, contract, or other work unit; two or more cost objectives

Which of the following describes the Analogy method of cost estimating?

A technique using a database of similar services to generate an estimate based on the relationship between cost and service characteristics

A detailed process that involves associating costs to the lowest levels of definable work within the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

A method that uses cost data from a current services contract to extrapolate the future estimated costs of providing the same service

A method based on historical data from one or more similar contracts

The Functional Services Manager (FSM) is responsible for establishing cost targets.

The Analogy cost estimating method would best be suited for which of the following?

When there are relevant examples from other services acquisitions to account for the differences between the new and existing services contracts

When the intent is to acquire essentially the same services, in the same quantity, at the same level of quality, in the same location, with the same level of competition as was accomplished previously

When there is an existing, detailed, and accurate database of historical services data on which to conduct regression analysis and correlation analysis

When there may not be good historical data and the services require a complex mix of labor categories, skill levels, or other costs

The Acquisition Requirements Roadmap Tool—Cost Estimation (ARRT-CE) is located on the Defense Acquisition Guidebook website.

FALSE

Which of the following describes final rates?

They include the estimate for costs that will be used to price contracts and contract modifications

They express the relationship between indirect costs actually incurred and the actual number of dollars or hours in the allocation base for each indirect cost pool They are used for the recovery of indirect costs (overhead and general and administrative [G&A]) during the corporate fiscal year

They include estimates that are dependent on the amount of overhead cost incurred by the company

ACQ 0040 Ethics Training Exam

October 9, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What is considered procurement information?

Source selection information
Proposal information
contractor bid

There are 9 sections within the 10 United States Code that contain criminal conflict of interest statutes. What are three of these selections?

18 United States Code Section 210
18 United States Code Section 205

Part 2635, 18 Unites States Code Section 208 prohibits you from working on Government matters that will affect your own personal financial interest or the financial interests of certain other people, including which three of the following?

a. Any person or organization with whom you are negotiating or have an arrangement for future employment

c. Your spouse, minor child, or general partner

d. Any organization in which you are serving as an officer, director trustee, general partner or employee

An individual is considered to be seeking employment and subject to restrictions if any of the following scenarios occur. Select the three that apply.

A government employee is engaged in actual negotiations for employment
a prospective employer contacts a government employee about possible employment, and they make a response other than rejection
a government employee contacts a prospective employer about possible employment (unless they are merely requisitions a job application)
A prospective employer contacts a government employee about possible employment, and they reject the offer

What is true about fundraising prohibitions under the federal ethics rule? Select the two that apply.

A common exception is "by your own, for your own" fundraising such as those conducted to defray cost of holding parties
You are fundraising at your own time and outside the workplace and are being strictly professional with a contractor employee who happens to be at the fundraiser

What is true regarding gifts between supervisors and subordinates? Select the two that apply.

Employees are generally prohibited from giving gifts to their supervisors.
An employee cannot accept a gift from another employee who earns less pay, unless the person giving the gift is not a subordinate and the gift is based on a personal relationship.

A senior employee is restricted from representing someone on any matter before the Government for ____ after leaving Government Service.

1 year

Which three of the following are gift exceptions between supervisors and subordinates? Select three that apply.

Gifts valued at $10 or less (not cast) on occasions when gifts are traditionally given or exchanged, such as holidays or birthdays
Food or nominal contributions for food that will be shared in the office among several employees
infrequent occasions of personal significance

Which of the following examples are instances in which you may reference your title without inflicting any conflict of interest? Select the two that apply.

If you are ordinarily addressed using a general term of address, such as “The Honorable” or a rank, such as a military or ambassadorial rank, you may use that term of address or rank in connection with a personal activity.
when teaching speaking, or writing, you may refer to your Government title or position as one of several biographical details in order to help identify you.

Which 18 United States Code Section prohibits an executive branch employee from participating personally and substantially in a particular Government matter that will affect their own financial interest as well as the financial interests of close relationships?

19 United States Code Section 208

The Procurement Integrity Act applies restrictions to individuals who served on any contract over $10 million. Who are two of these individuals?

Administrative contracting officer
Program manager

Based on restrictions on employment discussions, what should a Government employee do if they are contacted by a bidder or offeror in a procurement about possible non-Federal employment? Select the three that apply.

They must consult with their supervisor and do not work on that procurement until the agency has authorized them to do so.
They must reject the possibility of non-Federal employment.
They must promptly report the contact in writing to their supervisor and their agency ethics official.

What is considered non-public source selection information? Select the three that apply.

Reports, evaluations, and recommendations of source selection panels, boards, or advisory councils
Bid prices for sealed bids, lists, or prices
Source selection plans and technical evaluation plans

All Federal employees may use social media and comply with the Hatch Act if they remember which two of the following prohibitions?

Creating a link on “further restricted employees” that pops up a list of who falls in that category.
Adding a note that the remainder of the slides focus on restrictions applicable to less restricted employees.

ACQ 0030: Overview of Acquisition Ethics

October 8, 2022 Dwayne Morise

A retired Colonel in the Army has been hired by ACME Corporation, Aviation Weapons Division,
To be an expert consultant for all new weapons procurement activity. Fourteen months prior to his last official role in the Army, the Colonel was the Chief Contracting Officer for all new weapons procurement activity. You are the Program Manager for the Government on an upcoming new weapons procurement project. You should:

Be aware of his new role, and if he attempts to communicate with you on behalf of ACME, raise your concern to your boss or the Contracting Officer

You are a government Program Manger and you suspect the contractor's test results stated in the new procurement proposal are inaccurate. You should:

Document and report up the chain of command that the data, which the contractor used in the proposal may be flawed.

Which of the following statements is correct?

You do not have to accept a $20 gift if you think someone would question it.

A Congresswoman for the 3rd District testified on Capitol Hill about the poor results of test performed by the contractor on the new procurement project. Afterwards, in a meeting with the contractor's Project Manager, you, the Government Program Manager, learn that the results were negatively flawed because the testing tools were not calibrated properly. You should:

Document your findings and explain the situation clearly up the Government's chain of command

Government and contractor personnel work side by side on the Beta project in a contractor's work space. Due to the tremendous progress that has been made in the project, both the government program manager and the contractor's project manager decide to reward their employees. The contractor's project manager decides to give his employees the afternoon off. The government's project manager decides to grant federal employees a 59- minute early dismissal. Which of the following statements is correct

The contractor my not charge the time off to the Government contract.

Government and contractor personnel work side by side on the Zephyr project in a government office building. Emails were sent out to remind all employees (government and contractor) of the offsite dinner to celebrate Administrative Assistants' Day. Which of the following statements follows ethical principles?

Contractor employees may attend if the time spent attending the dinner is not charged to the Government.

The Government ___ be a partner in the same way that private parties can form a commercial partnership; common practices like combining financial and personnel resources, sharing losses and exchanging assets are generally ___ by Federal statute.

cannot/prohibited

Which of the following is a core ethical principle for government and contactor acquisition professionals?

Government employees must protect and conserve Federal property (including fiscal resources) and use it only for authorized purposes.

You are a Government Program Manager who is responsible for the Sure Shot Air Missile Program. The ACME Corporation, Aviation Weapons Division, is developing a preliminary technical feasibility study for the Sure Shot under a $5 million Government contract. You are nearing retirement and you have provided your resume to a Professional Job Search Company (a so-called "headhunter"). The Headhunter calls you up and advises that he has arranged an interview with the Sea Systems Division of the ACME Company. The interview is tempting, but what action should you take now?

Promptly rescue yourself from taking any action on the ACME Sure Short contract. Report the conflict to your supervisor and ethics official because your headhunter informed you that it contacted ACME on your behalf.

Inform the Head of the Contracting Activity what happened and request reinstatement fi you want to go back to Sure Shot.

As a Government employee, which of the following statements about gifts are correct? Select three that apply.

Federal/you may be/ an employee

You are writing a report on the progress of a Government program, and you unearth relevant information that indicates the program did not achieve several critical objectives. Which of the following statements is correct?

You should document your findings and report the adverse information relevant to the program.

You are Government Program Manager, and you suspect the contractor's test results stated in the new procurement proposal are inaccurate. You should:

Document and report up the chain of command that the data, which the contractor used in the proposal may be flawed.

You are a Government Program Manager who is responsible for the Sure Shot Air to Air Missile Program. The ACME Corporation, Aviation Weapons Division, is developing a preliminary technical feasibility study for the Sure Shot under a $5million Government contract. You are nearing retirement and you have provided your resume to a Professional Job Search Company (a so-called "headhunter"). The Headhunter calls you up and advises that he has arranged an interview with the Sea Systems Division of the ACME Company. The interview is tempting, but what action should you take now?

Promptly recuse yourself from taking any action on the ACME Sure Shot contract. Report the conflict to your supervisor and ethics official because your headhunter informed you that it contacted ACME on your behalf.

Which of the following statements is correct?

You do not have to accept a $20 gift if you think someone would question it.

As part of your official position you visit a contractor's facility in order to inspect progress on a new weapons system. While there you notice an F-15 Eagle scale model sitting in a display case. The contractor's Program Manager notes your interest in the model and comes over to look at the F-15 with you. You remark, "Gee, that's a beautiful F-15. Can I get one from you?" The Program Manager responds by saying. "Of course! We have several extra models on hand, I'll get you one." Which of the following statements is correct?

Since it appears you solicited the gift, 5 CFR 2635.202 prohibits you from accepting it.

A Congresswomen from the 3rd District testified on Capitol Hill about the poor results of tests performed by the contractor on the new procurement project. Afterwards, in a meeting with the contractor's Project Manager, you, the Government Program Manager, learn that the test results were negatively flawed because the testing tools were not calibrated properly. You should:

Document your findings and explain the situation clearly up the Government's chain of command.

Government and contractor personnel work side by side on the Zephr project in a government office building. Emails were sent our to remind all employees (government and contractor) of the offsite dinner to celebrate Administrative Assistant's Day. Which of the following statements follows ethical principles?

Contractor employees may attend if the time spent attending the dinner is not charged to the Government.

You are a contracting officer and you have just finished evaluating the initial offers of several companies competing for award of a contract to design and construct a new Air to Ground missile. Three companies, ACME, Beta, and Charlie, have submitted offers and you discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the initial proposals with each company individually. At the close of face-to-face discussions with ACME, the ACME Project Manager asks whether you have ever had any interest in working in the private sector, noting that "we make a lot more money than you do." Concerned that this might be an employment discussion, you ask whether he is offering you a job. The Project Manager replies, "Oh no; I don't have any authority to make job offers. But here is the phone number for our Personnel Director. I'll tell her to expect your call." You declare, "Absolutely not! I am happy working for the Government." Which of the following actions are correct?

You must immediately report the details of the conversation you had with the ACME Project Manager in writing to your supervisor and ethics officer.

CLC 059 Management of Subcontracting Compliance

October 8, 2022 Dwayne Morise

When FAR 52.244-6 is included in noncommercial contracts, it identifies the clauses to be included in what kinds of subcontracts?

Subcontracts for commercial or non-developmental items.

How will the inclusion of the flow-down clauses in CD 2018-O0021 or FAR 52.244-6 impact post-award subcontracting compliance management? For all four contracts, the procuring contracting officer (PCO) has delegated all contract administration functions that can be delegated.

It is a best practice for the administrative contracting officer (ACO) to conduct a post-award orientation conference and review the required flow-down clauses with the prime contractor.

During post-award administration, we need to impress upon each prime contractor that it is the prime contractor's responsibility to ensure that its subcontractors are complying with the flow-down clauses.

Goal of Government Procurement

Small businesses should be provided maximum practicable opportunities to participate in government procurements.

What is a first-tier subcontract?

A first-tier subcontract is defined in FAR 52.204-10 and means a subcontract awarded directly by the prime contractor for the purpose of acquiring supplies or services (including construction) for performance of a prime contract.

(Don't forget the useful job aid that was provided earlier that contains common terms and definitions. It includes this term, first-tier subcontract, along with several others.)

Individual Subcontracting Plan

An individual subcontracting plan is a subcontracting plan that applies to a single contract and has goals that are based on the offeror's planned subcontracting in support of a single contract.

Master Subcontracting Plan

A master subcontracting plan is a subcontracting plan that is established on a plant, division, or company‑wide basis. It contains all the required elements of an individual subcontracting plan, except goals. Then, when an offeror responds to a solicitation, it submits the pre-approved master plan with a supplement that identifies the offeror's subcontracting goals for the specific contract.

Commercial Subcontracting Plan

A commercial subcontracting plan is a subcontracting plan (including goals) that covers the offeror's fiscal year and that applies to the entire production of commercial items sold by either the entire company or a portion thereof, such as a division, plant, or product line. The commercial subcontracting plan is the preferred plan when the contractor is furnishing commercial items to the government. It includes the fifteen elements we'll go over shortly, but with some variation from the requirements for the individual subcontracting plan.

Comprehensive Subcontracting Plan

DFARS 219.702-70 describes a test program developed by DoD to determine whether comprehensive subcontracting plans on a corporate, division, or plant-wide basis will reduce administrative burdens while enhancing subcontracting opportunities for small and small disadvantaged business concerns. This program is referred to as the Test Program for Negotiation of Comprehensive Small Business Subcontracting Plans (Test Program).To become and remain eligible to participate in the Test Program, a business concern is required to have furnished supplies or services (including construction) under at least three DoD contracts during the preceding fiscal year, having an aggregate value of at least $100 million. Test Program participants use their comprehensive subcontracting plans, in lieu of individual subcontracting plans, when performing any DoD contract or subcontract that requires a subcontracting plan.

The offeror provided its small business goals expressed as total dollars subcontracted and percentages of the total it plans to award in subcontracts. This is an individual subcontracting plan; therefore, the offeror could have been required to also express its small business goals in terms of what?

Total contract dollars - A more complete picture is provided when the offeror is required to express its small business subcontracting goals in terms of total contract dollars, along with expressing its small business subcontracting goals in terms of total planned for subcontracting dollars.

In order to receive a contract award, the successful offeror (the prime contractor to be) must have an acceptable subcontracting plan. The plan may need to be negotiated to be determined acceptable. What happens if the apparently successful offeror or bidder does not submit or negotiate an acceptable subcontracting plan within the prescribed time limit? Please read FAR 19.702 to answer this question.

Contractor will be ineligible for contract award.

If a contract modification occurs, under what circumstances will a subcontracting plan be required?

If the modification causes the contract value to exceed the threshold in FAR 19.702, and subcontracting opportunities exist.

Joint Staff No Fear Act Training Course (1 hr)

September 23, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What is the purpose of the Merit Systems Protection Board?

To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal Agencies?

It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

A benefit of a model EEO program is __________________.

All of the answers are correct

What proactive actions can leadership, management, and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination? Select all that apply.

Select all answers

True or False. The office of the Special Counsel is an independent Federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than enforced by the EEOC under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978.

True

True or False. Federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force, or loss of employee benefits.

False

Which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)?

Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies
Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal, or retaliation.

The purpose of the No FEAR Act is to ensure those Federal agencies:

All of the answers are correct

True or False. Complaints filed with the Office of Special Counsel may be filed online or submitted by mail.

True

How many days do you have to contact the EEO office to file a discrimination complaint after learning of a discriminatory event or the effective date of an action?

45 days

True or False. Appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of the effective date of the personnel action.

True

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice:

Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

What is reprisal according to the Civil Service Reform Act?

Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

Under the No FEAR Act each Federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data _________________.

Annually

Complaints filed with the Office of Special Counsel may be filed online or submitted by mail.

True

An individual who wants to file an EEO complaint must contact the EEO office within 45 calendar days of the date when he or she knew or should have known about the alleged discriminatory act, or in the case of a personnel action, within 45 calendar days of the effective date.

True

Federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force or loss of employee benefits.

False

What is reprisal according to the Civil Service Reform Act?

Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

Appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of the effective date of the personnel action.

True

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice:

Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

What proactive actions can leadership, management and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination? Select all that apply.

All Above

The Office of the Special Counsel is an independent Federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than those enforced by the EEOC under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978.

True

What is the purpose of the Merit Systems Protection Board?

To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices

A benefit of a model EEO program is ______________________.

All of the above

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of _______________________.

Race, color, national origin, sex, or religion, and in reprisal for prior protected activity

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal agencies?

It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

Under the No FEAR Act each Federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data _______________.

Annually

Which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)?

-Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
-Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies

True or False. Complaints filed with the Office of Special Counsel may be filed online or submitted by mail. (Benefits of a Model Program, page 6 of 10)
-True
-False

True

True or False. An individual who wants to file an EEO complaint must contact the EEO office within 45 calendar days of the date when he or she knew or should have known about the alleged discriminatory act, or in the case of a personnel action, within 45 calendar days of the effective date. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 10 of 19)
-True
-False

True

True or False. Federal agencies are required to pay out of their budgets for settlements or awards resulting from findings in the administrative complaint process even if it results in furloughs, reductions-in-force or loss of employee benefits. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 4 of 14)
-True
-False

False

What is reprisal according to the Civil Service Reform Act? (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 9 of 13)
-Authorization of a preference or an advantage to anyone that improves or hurts the employment prospects of an employee or applicant
-Wage discrimination on the basis of sex in the performance of substantially equal work
-Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection
-Discrimination against an employee or applicant based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, mental or physical disability, marital status, or political affiliation

Retaliation against an individual who has engaged in activity protected under Federal antidiscrimination and whistleblower protection

True or False. Appeals must be filed with the MSPB within 30 days of the effective date of the personnel action. (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 5 of 10)
-True
-False

True

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited personnel practice: (Equal Opportunity Laws, page 7 of 19)
-Deciding not to hire a qualified applicant because he or she has a mental disability
-Retaliating against an employee or applicant for reporting a possible violation of the law
-Violating a veteran's hiring preference
-Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

Considering employment recommendations based on personal knowledge in a hiring action

What proactive actions can leadership, management and supervisors take to prevent unlawful discrimination? Select all that apply. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 5 of 14)
-Take steps to ensure that all workplace policies, practices and behaviors are fair
-Contact the EEO office if there are any questions about how to deal with employee complaints of harassment or other unlawful discrimination
-Take employee complaints of harassment and unlawful discrimination seriously, and exercise their responsibility to investigate complaints thoroughly
-Take appropriate action to resolve the issue, and documenting the situation and action taken

-Take steps to ensure that all workplace policies, practices and behaviors are fair
-Contact the EEO office if there are any questions about how to deal with employee complaints of harassment or other unlawful discrimination
-Take employee complaints of harassment and unlawful discrimination seriously, and exercise their responsibility to investigate complaints thoroughly
-Take appropriate action to resolve the issue, and documenting the situation and action taken

True or False. The Office of the Special Counsel is an independent Federal agency that investigates complaints of prohibited personnel practices other than those enforced by the EEOC under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978. (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 1 of 13)
-True
-False

True

What is the purpose of the Merit Systems Protection Board? (Whistleblower Protection and the OSC, page 4 of 13)
-To protect Federal employees from reprisal or retaliation for protected whistleblowing
-To protect all workplace employees from violation of EEO laws
-To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices
-To protect all workplace employees from reprisal or retaliation for protected whistleblowing

To protect Federal merit systems against partisan political and other prohibited personnel practices

A benefit of a model EEO program is ______________________. (Benefits of a Model Program, page 3 of 9)
-A more productive workforce
-A diverse organization where skilled employees want to work
-Improved efficiency of employees
-All of the answers are correct

All of the answers are correct

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of _______________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 11 of 19)
-Marital status, political affiliation, and in reprisal for protected whistleblowing activity
-Race, color, national origin, sex, or religion, and in reprisal for prior protected activity
-Mental or physical disability

Race, color, national origin, sex, or religion, and in reprisal for prior protected activity

What does Management Directive 715 provide to Federal agencies? (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 5 of 14)
-It provides guidance for filing whistleblower complaints
-It provides guidance to reimburse the Treasury's Judgment Fund
-It provides procedures for filing EEO complaints
-It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

It provides guidance to ensure all employment decisions are free from discrimination

Under the No FEAR Act each Federal agency is required to submit its antidiscrimination data _______________. (Public Disclosure and Proactive Prevention, page 2 of 14)
-semi-annually
-annually
-monthly
-quarterly

Annually

Which two of the following statements describe the purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)? (Equal Employment Opportunity Law, page 4 of 19)
-Enforcing all Federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination, reprisal or retaliation
-Providing oversight and coordination of all Federal equal employment opportunity regulations, practices, and policies
-Reviewing and ruling on appeals of personnel actions such as removals, suspensions, furloughs, and demotions
-Reviewing and ruling on administrative decisions affecting rights or benefits under the Civil Service Retirement System or the Federal Employees' Retirement System

How many days do you have to contact the EEO office to file a discrimination complaint after learning of a discriminatory event or the effective date of an action? (Benefits of a Model Program, page 5 of 10)
-60 days
-30 days
-15 days
-45 days

45 days

The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination in ________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 11 of 14)
-Wage differences between employees on the basis of race, color, national origin, or religion
-Wage differences between employees on the basis of age
-Wage differences between men and women performing substantially equal work

Wage differences between men and women performing substantially equal work

True or False. The No FEAR Act applies to all Federal agencies. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 3 of 19)
-True
-False

True

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of age against individuals who are _____________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 12 of 19)
-60 years of age or older
-50 years of age or older
-40 years of age or older

40 years of age or older

The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of ___________________________________. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 14 of 19)
-Mental or Physical disability
-Marital status
-Race

~Mental or Physical disability

True or False. The No FEAR Act was established by the President of the United States of America on 15 May 2002. (Equal Employment Opportunity Laws, page 2 of 19)
-True
-False

True

JKO The Hearing Education and Readiness (HEAR) Course

September 22, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Sound

sensation resulting from stimulation of the auditory mechanism by air waves or vibration

Noise

any unwanted sound

requirements for sound

source of vibration, Energy, A Median Air,A Receiver

Frequency

Pitch, measured in Hz

Human ear can detect frequencies in the ranges of

20- 20,000 Hz

Duration

Time

dBA SPL

a sound pressure level measurement

Spectrum

Quality

Intensity

Loudness

what is hazardous noise?

more than 85 dBA
140 dB(P)

What frequencies is the human ear most sensitive to?

20- 20,000 Hz

what two factors will determine whether noise is hazardous to hearing?

Intensity and duration

Outer ear

Pinna

S- shaped for protection

Middle ear

Ear drum- Tympanic Membrane- sound into mechical
Ossicles- malleus, Incus, and stapes- transfers

Inner ear

Cochlea- changes mechical to electrical energy

Vestibular system

balances your body

Auditory Brain

Carries signals to the brain

Conductive

dysfunction of the outer and/ or middle ear
treatment- usually temporary and antibiotics

SensoriNeural hearing loss (SNHL)

a dysfunction of the inner ear and auditory nerve
Permanent and untreatable

Noise induced hearing injury (NIHI)

hazardous exposure levels
Permanent and untreatable

Mixed Hearing loss

Both conductive and SNHL

Central hearing loss

auditory processing disorder

Non- Organic

No medical and/or FAKING

Someone with a classic noise-induced hearing loss will likely have their worst at?

4000 Hz

Threshold

sound that a person can hear at least 50% of the time

STS

Significant Threshold Shift
-/+ 10 dBs avg threshold change 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hz in either ear

Audiometric Zero

0 dB - normal hearing young adult

Audiogram

record of a person's pure-tone hearing threshold levels

Patient info

SSN, NAME, GENDER, DOB, Rank, MOS, UIC, Phone number

Demographic info

SSN, NAME, CERT

DD 2215

Reference Audiogram
noise free 14 hours
initial hearing test
re-coming in government job

DD 2216

Hearing conservation data
-90 day, annual, pre-deployment, post-deployment, other, and termination, Follow up 1 and 2

Negative STS

Follow up and neg again then ref
Follow up and same threshold then stays the same

Pos STS

follow up cant be same day as annual
follow up completed after 14 free of sound
follow up 1 pos then follow up 2
follow up 2 pos then ref to audiologist

Non-hearing conservation test

individual not enrolled in army hearing program

High frequency hearing loss

noise-notch

Da PAM 40-501

Hearing conservation program

Impact of noise-induced hearing loss

Survivability and lethality

4 P's

Permanent, painless, progressive, and preventable

Inverse square law

army is a doubling hazard for each 3 dB increases in level decreases time by half

Sound decays _______ for every doubling of distance

6 dB

DD form 2217

recorded and printed monthly

JKO USAFRICOM Campaign Plan (ACP) FY 2021-2025

September 21, 2022 Dwayne Morise

In USAFRICOM Sub Regions, transnational criminal groups, to include VEOs, are not bound by geographic regions or

Internationally recognized political boundaries

A major USAFRICOM Multilateral Partner, the East African Community (EAC) represents the following six East African countries: Burundi, Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, Uganda, and

Tanzania

T/F: The USAFRICOM J3 is the Officer of Primary Responsibility (OPR) for LOE 3 and LOE 4.

True

T/F. While LOEs are numbered, the ordering does not reflect prioritization among the LOEs.

True

T/F. Italy is an international partner in LOE 3: Develop Security in Somalia.

True

This USAFRICOM organization serves as the OPR for Senior Leader Engagements (SLE) oversight:

J035 - Public Affairs and Communications Synchronization

The African Union (AU) is considered this category of Partner/Adjacent Force:

Multilateral Partner

T/F. All USAFRICOM Service Components and Subordinate Commands are tasked, on order, to serve as a Combined Joint Task Force Headquarters (CJTF-HQ). [Remediation Accessed

False

JKO Category 3 Non-Cab Operated Crane Safety

September 17, 2022 Dwayne Morise

A floating crane with a capacity of 200,000lbs. is a ________________ crane.

Category 1

What is the category of a jib crane with a capacity of less than 20,000 pounds?

Category 3

An OET, Bridge crane with a capacity of 80,000lbs. is a ________________ crane.

Category 2

A commercial truck mounted crane with a capacity of 14,000 lbs. is a __________ crane.

category 4

What types of power does a Category 1 or 4 crane generally use and what is its source?

Electric or hydraulic power supplied by a diesel engine

Load - ________ parts are those that restrain position or control the movement of the load.

controling

A hook is what type of component?

Load-Bearing Part

Hydraulic foot brakes are what type or group of components?

Load-Controlling Parts

Load - _____________ parts are those that support the load.

bearing

How is electrical current conveyed from the revolving portion of the crane to the lower crane structure?

Through the collector ring system

Safety devices that provide protection for personnel and equipment are considered _____________ safety devices.

general

Safety devices that affect the safe load lifting and handling capabilities of equipment are considered __________________ safety devices.

operational

Which of the following does not affect the safe operation of the crane?

General Safety Devices

A travel alarm is what type or group of components?

General Safety Device

During the walk around check you notice a loose bolt on the crane. You should:

Notify your supervisor of the deficiency.

The crane Pre-use Check consists of:

A walk around visual check
Performing a "No load" operational

It is the operator's responsibility to report a deficiency to the Crane Department.

false

Deficiencies are required to be reported by the end of the shift.

false

If the upper limit switch is working correctly, there is no need to check the lower limit switch.

fasle

Part of the no load operational check is to ensure the proper _________ of all controls.

function

What is the most important reason to do a pre-use check?

To make sure the crane is safe to use.

Documented checks are required for which of the following Category 3 cranes?

gantry
wall
bridge

Place the steps listed in the correct order to check the Upper Limit Switch on a hoist.

Raise hoist two feet below switch & stop
2.Slowly raise hook block into switch
3.Ensure hoist stops with button depressed

There must always be a minimum of _________ full wraps of wire rope on grooved drums.

Part of the walk around check is to look for ___________.

deficiencies

The minimum number of wraps of wire rope required on non-grooved drums is __________.

What is the purpose of a hoist upper limit switch?

To prevent "two-blocking" or over-travel of the hook block

Emergency stops and brakes should be checked while operating the crane at the fastest speed possible.

What is two-blocking and why is it dangerous?

Two-blocking occurs when the hook block makes contact with the drum or sheaves. It is dangerous because it could result in damage to the crane, parting of the hoist lines, and dropping the load.

Detailed written procedures are required for:

complex lifts.

For all complex lifts, a rigger supervisor, operator supervisor, or a rigging or crane operator working leader shall review on-site conditions and shall ...

conduct a pre-job briefing.

Lifts of test weights during maintenance or load test are ...

excluded from the complex lift requirements.

A crane with a capacity of 100,000 pounds is performing a lift of 40,000 pounds. This is a(n):

non-complex lift.

Which of the following identify the two basic categories of crane lifts?

Complex and Non-Complex

Personnel lifts are ...

always considered complex lifts.

Personnel in a man-lift platform or basket must ...

wear a full body harness with a shock-absorbing lanyard.

For personnel lifts, the total load must not exceed ...

50% of the hoist's rated capacity.

To find the weight of a piece of aluminum plate, you would multiply ...

square feet times material weight per square foot based on a specified thickness.

A triangular shaped 1 inch thick metal plate has a base of 10 feet and a height of 15 feet. What is the area of the plate?

75 square feet

A circular shaped 1/2 inch thick aluminum plate has a diameter of 7 feet. What is the area of the plate rounded up?

39 square feet

A complex shape of 1 inch thick aluminum plate has a rectangular area of 64 square feet and triangular area of 16 square feet. If aluminum weighs 14 pounds per square foot, how much does the plate weigh (rounded up to the nearest hundred pounds)?

1,200 lbs

A complex shape of 1 inch aluminum plate measures 6 feet long on the top edge, 8 feet wide on the left edge, 12 feet long on the bottom edge, ending with a 10 foot long hypotenuse connecting back to the top edge. What is the correct equation to find the area of the triangular shape?

8 x 6 / 2

The formula for determining the area of a triangular shaped object is:

Base x Height divided by 2

A box has 27 cubic feet of sand in it. Sand weighs 105 lbs. per cubic foot. The box weighs 1,200 lbs. empty. The correct equation to find the total weight is:

27 x 105 = 2,835 + 1,200 = 4,035 lbs

A cylinder has a diameter of 12 feet, and a height of 17 feet. What is the volume of the cylinder rounded up?

1,922 cubic feet

A cylinder is made of solid aluminum which has a unit weight of 165 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight of this cylinder if the diameter is 4 feet and the height is 5 feet?

10,362 lbs

A rectangular shaped tank has a length of 24 feet, a width of 10 feet, and a height of 12 feet. What is the volume of the tank?

2,880 cubic feet

An attachment point is 2 feet from the center of gravity and the other attachment point is 6 feet from the center of gravity. What is the correct percentage of weight distribution to each attachment point with the attachment point 2 feet from the center of gravity being listed first

75%, 25%

Center of Gravity is best described as:

where all the weight is concentrated

The center of gravity is located below the center of balance.

false

The center of gravity (CG) is always located within the object.

false

Attachment point #1 is 6 feet from the center of gravity (CG) and attachment point #2 is 3 feet from the center of gravity (CG). There is a 10,000 lbs load attached. What is the correct equation to find the weight distribution for attachment point #1?

3 divided by 9 multiplied by 10,000 (3 / 9 x 10,000)

The center of gravity (CG) will always find its way directly under the crane hook when lifted off the ground.

false

The reason test and inspection is required is to:

prevent personnel injury.

identify sub-standard equipment.

remove unsafe equipment.

Rigging gear identification markings applied by the activity usually indicate that the equipment is:

in an inspection program

Equipment test and inspection requirements in section 14 of NAVFAC P-307 do not apply to:

oem installed bolt-on pads

Which of the following markings are required on Lashing?

the reinspect due date

rated load

Rigging gear test and inspection records must include:

All of the above

Matching ID marks on rigging gear are required for:

components that can be seperated

Rigging gear test and inspection records are required to be kept on file:

until rplaced by a more current record

Documented records are required for periodic inspections of all rigging equipment.falsefalse

false

What are the two types of rigging gear inspections?

periodic and pre-use

Who is required to perfom an inspection prior to using rigging gear, and what is this inspection called?

the user, preuse inspection

What is the minimum grade of chain required for chain slings?

grad 80

Chain slings used in cargo transfer should be inspected annually.

False

A knot in a synthetic sling is allowed as long as it does not cause permanent damage to the sling.

false

A metal mesh sling can remain in service if only one wire is broken in the mesh.

False

Rigging hardware that is bent can be repaired by straightening it back to original shape.

false

Rigging hardware such as eyebolts, links, rings, and shackles are required to have a periodic inspection every 2 years.

False

Distorted rigging hardware must be:

Removed from service and destroyed

Documentation for alteration or repair of rigging equipment is required to be retained for:

the life of the equipment

Which section of the NAVFAC P-307 is the rigging gear section?

section 14

It is okay to use home-made rigging gear as long as you are lifting light loads.

false

When selecting rigging gear for a job, which of the statements below should be followed?

all the above

What should be used between the rigging gear and the load to prevent damage to the load and rigging?

appropriate sling protection

Two people can operate a chain fall if the pull chain is too hard for one person to pull while hoisting a load.

False

Pulls outside the plane of the eye are allowed on eyebolts as long as the rated load has been decreased.

False

The minimum depth of thread engagement for a 3/4 inch eyebolt into a steel object is:

1 1/8th inch

An angular pull of 45° is allowed on non-shoulder type eyebolts.

false

The rated load of swivel hoist rings must be reduced when they are used for angular pulls.

false

The minimum D/d ratio in the body of a synthetic rope sling is:

1:1

D/d ratio does not affect synthetic web slings.

True

It is acceptable to bend a 1 inch wire rope sling around a 3/4 inch shackle.

False

The minimum D/d ratio allowed for wire rope slings is:

1:1

With the proper D/d ratio a sling in a basket hitch can lift ___ of the rated load of the sling.

200

A 60° sling angle will be formed when you match the sling length to the diagonal distance between attachment points.

true

An object has a length of 5 feet, a width of 3 feet, and a distance of 5 feet 6 inches between attachment points. What length slings would you select to ensure the horizontal sling angle was 60° or greater?

to find sling angle stress...

multiply the weight in the attachment point with the angle factor

What markings are required on hoists?

The name of the manufacturer, model number, rated load, and re-inspection due date

What are the two types of inspections performed on hoists and rigging equipment?

pre-use inspection
periodic inspection

When securing a chain hoist ________________ may be used by securing the hand chain around the load chain.

half hitches

Two people may operate a hoist at the same time if the pull chain is too hard for one person to pull.

False

A hoist can be hung from a wire rope sling without a shackle installed if the diameter of the hook is equal to or greater than the diameter of the sling.

true

When lifting a load that is near the rated capacity of the hoist the hoist brake should be checked by:

lifting the load just clear of its supports, stopping movement, then checking to ensure the load is not lowering.

Why should hoists not be used in tie down applications?

because they may be subjected to shock loading

Hoist hooks must have latches or be moused during lifting operations.

true

Prior to use load chains should be inspected for:

damage
proper reeving

Direct voice should only be used when:

the operator and rigger are working in close proximity and ambient noise is low.

In the crane cab, the crane operator must have a clear view of the ...

ASME Hand Signal Chart

How many signalers shall communicate with the crane operator at the same time.

one signaler at a time

A universal language understood by everyone involved with weight handling is:

hand signals

Any additional hand signals must be ...

approved by user

When operating cranes, the operator's primary responsibility is to:

operate safely

Crane operators at naval activities may operate various types, makes, and models of cranes for which they are licensed. How must safety and operator proficiency be assured under these circumstances?

Operators must be familiarized (as directed by a supervisor) before operating.

certification number

Which of the following operator responsibilities is considered the basis for ensuring a safe and reliable crane?

the presue Check or Operators Daily Checklist

What information should be posted, clearly understandable, and readily available to the operator?

Lables for each function

When can an unlicensed crane operator trainee operate a crane?Only under the direct observation of a licensed operator

Only under the direct observation of a licensed operator

When lifting loads with a crane, which of the following is the first thing an operator should do?

Center the hook over the center of gravity of the load.

The second step in the procedure for lifting loads is to:

hoist slowly and remove slack from the rigging gear

The third step for lifting loads is to:

lift the load until completely suspended and stop

While operating, the crane operator becomes concerned over the safety of the lift. The Rigger-In-Charge sees no problem and tells the operator to continue. The operator should:

Refuse to continue until safety is assured.

Side loading a crane boom by dragging loads or lifting a load with a non-vertical hoist may result in:

any of the listed factors above.

In general, which of the following things should an operator do when traveling cranes with loads?

Perform all of the listed actions above

The crane operating envelope includes the crane, the operator, the riggers, the crane walkers, and ...

rigging gear between the hook and

any supporting structures

the load

The rigging operating envelope contains the rigging gear and miscellaneous equipment covered by P-307 section 14, the load itself and...

NOT the crane removal procedure

U.S. Navy Equal Opportunity

September 17, 2022 Dwayne Morise

A naval message sent to Naval Inspector General or elected officials, is required by parent command upon receipt of a

formal complaint

The climate assessment triangulation method is accomplished by using the DEOMI Organizational Climate Survey (DEOCS) and a minimum of two of the following:

a. Review of records and reports
b. Individual interviews
c. Observations
d. Focus groups
e. Other methods deemed appropriate by the commander

CMEO (Command Managed Equal Opportunity manager)

E7-E9 with 4 years of service appointed by CO to be single point of contact for EO issues

Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)

Responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity.

DEOMI Organizational Climate Survey (DEOCS)

The questionnaire measures climate factors associated with the military Equal Opportunity (EO) program,

Informal Complaint.

Allegation of unlawful discrimination or SH made either in writing to the offending party or verbally per the Informal Resolution System (IRS) process. Informal complaints do not require a command directed investigation.

Formal Complaint.

Allegation of unlawful discrimination or SH that is submitted in writing via a NAVPERS 5354/2, UCMJ article 138, U.S. Navy Regulations article 1150, communication to Naval Inspector General or elected officials, NAVPERS 1626/7 and any other communication the commander deems appropriate.

how long are CMEO documents such as formal/informal complaints and assessments kept?

36 months

Individuals who believe they have experienced (or observed) a sexually harassing or discriminating situation are encouraged to use the

informal resolution system (IRS) (NAVPERS 15620) to reach a satisfactory resolution.

how soon after recieving a report of complaint should the proper authority or CO be notified?

within 1 calendar day

The level of investigation on a formal complaint is determined by the ....................................

Commander

investigation must commence ..... hrs after submission

72hrs

a naval message describing the situation must be sent to

General Courts-Martial Authority (GCMA)

when must a closeout message be sent after the start of investigation?

20 days if not closed out by then, a message must be sent every 14 days

The initial appeal of a decision on a formal complaint should be to the......

first commander in the chain of command with GCMA.

EOA

EQUAL OPPORTUNITY ADVISOR

EOAs serve as primary advisors and subject matter experts to

commanders and Command Managed Equal Opportunity
(CMEO) Managers,

Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel?

SECNAVINST 5300.26D

What promotes positive common morale and quality of life by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual bias based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex, or religious stereotypes?

Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)

Who monitors the Navy's progress towards accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates?

CNO

How often must the Navy EO office provide and EO climate assessment, describing the health and organizational effectiveness of the Navy?

annually

Which office is responsible for providing the overall direction, guidance, support, and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climate?

Navy Equal Opportunity Office

By which date each year must the OJAG provide a summary of the fiscal year's UCMJ Article 138 and U.S.N. Regulation's Article 1150 actions related to unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Navy EO office?

November 15th

Who is the investigative authority for all EO and sexual harassment complaints against flag officers or SES officials?

Naval Inspector General

Which center functions as the Navy's EO training manager and developed the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels?

Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)

Within how many days of assuming command will immediate superiors in command ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate?

How often must CO's, and officers in charge provide EO and sexual harassment training and grievance procedures instruction as required per SECNAVINST 5350.16A for all assigned command members as part of CPPD generated GMT?

annually

What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service for officers to be the CMEO manager?

How long, at a minimum should CMEO managers serve in their position?

1 year

How many year must CO's or OIC's ensure that completed copies of the NEO and sexual harassment formal complaint forms are maintained in the CMEO manager record file?

CO and OIC's shall ensure that detailed Naval messages are sent upon receipt of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or essay per which reference?

DOD directive 1325.6

Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO's and OIC's ensure that a climate assessment executive summary is submitted to the eshalan 3OA as applicable via the ISIC?

Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO managers as well as provides assistance to other members of the chain of command on EO issues?

EOA

Who functions as the single point of contact when practicable for command EO issues?

CMEO manager

How many years will CMEO managers maintain CMEO record files?

Which representatives are assigned by the Commander to ensure that complaisance, accused, and witnesses in EO and sexual harassment cases are informed of the complaint process and are advised of the available support and counseling services?

advocates

What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration and military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity?

Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute

What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified?

equal opportunity

Which NEC is held by EO advisors?

NEC 9515

Which system resolve EO complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level?

informal resolution system

Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment?

reasonable person's standard

Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action or any other active retaliation against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication?

reprisal

Which process identifies areas of concern or issues related to command climate by finding areas of commonality in a minimum of three areas of the command assessment?

triangulation method

What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?

chain of command

Which instruction contains the DON's policy on military EO complaint processing?

SECNAVINST 5350.16A

How many days within the offending incident should EO complaints be made?

Which forms can individuals use to file EO complaints?

NAVPERS 5354/2

Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a formal EO complaint submit to the CO or other designated authority?

Within how many hours of receiving a formal EO opportunity complaint must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender, as well as any witness to ensure that they are informed about a complaint processing?

Within how many hours after receiving an EO complaint submission must the investigation commence?

Within how many days after the EO investigation commences must a close out message be sent describing what actions were taken?

How often must an updated message be sent if the EO complaint investigation is not completed at the 20 day point until the close out message describing case disposition is released?

every 14 days

How many days after the final EO investigation actions must commands conduct a follow up debrief?

30 to 45

How many months must commands maintain completed EO complaints and investigations for?

Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to Commanders and command managed equal opportunity managers, providing assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?

EOA

How often must EOA's conduct a review of subordinate commands executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concerns to the commander?

annually

The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused and witness in an EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are advised about available support and counseling services?

Personal advocate

1. Equal Opportunity (EO) is the right of all persons to participate in and benefit from programs and activities for which they are qualified?
a. True
b. False

2. Which of the following is a type of behavior that can be considered sexual harassment?
a. Telling sexually explicit jokes
b. Verbally correcting a sailor's uniform
c. Touching in a suggestive manner
d. a and c
e. a and b

3. Sailors can participate in organizations that
a. Deprive others of their civil rights
b. Support supremacist causes
c. Practice discrimmination
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

e. None of the above

4. Equal Opportunity (EO) shall apply without regard to race, ethnicity, religion, gender, or age.
a. True
b. False

a. True

5. Those who commit harassments or unlawful discrimination are subject to what disciplinary action?
a. Liberty
b. Non-judicial Punishment (NJP)
c. Informal counseling
d. Leave

b. Non-judicial Punishment (NJP)

6. The acronym CMEO stands for ______________?

Command Managed Equal Opportunity

7. Which of the following is the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) sexual harrassment formal complaint form?
a. NAVPERS 5354/2
b. NAVPERS 5354/3
c. NAVPERS 5354/4
d. NAVPERS 5354/5

8. A complaint of wrongs can be submitted via the chain of command in accordance with what article?
a. UCMJ Article 136
b. UCMJ Article 137
c. UCMJ Article 138
d. UCMJ Article 139

9. Fraternization is gender-neutral within the United States Navy.
a. True
b. False

10. Navy personnel that knowingly make false accusations of sexual harassment will be punished under the ______?
a. UCMJ
b. Navy regulations
c. Civilian courts
d. Coast Guard regulations

a. UCMJ

11. Fraternization could involve which of the following?
a. Dating
b. Living together
c. Business partnership
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

12. Personnel who believe they are victims of sexual harassment can report complaints via informal complaints only?
a. True
b. False

b. False

13. The following are examples of sexual harassment except?
a. Unwelcomed sexual behavior
b. Unwanted request for dates
c. Request for sexual favors
d. Having lunch outside of work with shipmates

d. Having lunch outside of work with shipmates

14. Race discrimination is treating someone unfavorably because he/she is of certain race or because of personal characteristic associated with a race.
a. True
b. False

a. True

SECNAVINST 5300.26 D

Which instruction outlones sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel

Defense equal oppurtunity management institute (DEOMI)

What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations and diversity?

DOD directive 1325.6

CO's/OIC's shall ensure that detailed naval messages are sent upon receipt of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH per which reference?

NAVPERS 5354/2

Which form can individuals use to Ike equal opportunity complaints?

Quid pro quo

Which type of sexual harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?

Annually

How often must EOA's conduct a review of subordinate commands executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander?

30-45

How many days after the final equal oppurtuniy investigation action must commands conduct a follow up debrief?

Annually

How often must the naval equal opportunity office (NEO) provide an EO climate assessment describing the "health" and organizational effectiveness of the navy?

Naval inspector general

Who is the investigative authority for all equal opportunity and sexual harassment complaints against flag officers or SES officials

Annually

How often must commanding officers and officers in charge provide equal opportunity and sexual harassment training and grievance procedure instruction as required per SECNAVINST 5350.16 for all assigned command members as part of cod generated GMT?

What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service for officers to be the CMEO manager m?

One year

How long at a minimum should CMEO managers serve in their position?

How many years must CO's/OIC's ensure that completed copies of all navy equal opportunity (EO) sexual harassment (SH) formal complaint forms are maintained in the CMEO manager record file?

Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO's/OIC's ensure that a climate assessment executive summary is submitted to the echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC?

Equal opportunity (EO)

What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified?

NEC 9515

Which NEC is held by equal oppurtuniy advisors?

EOA

Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?

How many years will CMEO managers maintain CMEO record files?

Advocates

Which representatives are assigned by the commander to ensure that complaints accused and witnesses in equal opportunity and sexual harassment cases are inform ends of the complaint process and are advised of the available support and counseling services

Command managed equal oppurtuniy (CMEO)

What promotes positive command morale and quality of life (QOL) by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability I impeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes

November 15

By which date each yeah must the OJAG provide a summary of the fiscal years UCMJ article 138 and US Navy regulations article 1150 actions relating in unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Navy EO office?

Within how many days of assuming command will immediate supervisors in command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate

CMEO manager

Who functions as the single point of contact when practicable, for command equal opportunity issues? M

Navy equal opportunity office (NEO)

Which office is responsible for providing the overall direction, guidance support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates?

Center for personnel and professional development (CPPD)

Which center functions as the navy's equal oppurtuniyy training manager and develops the overall navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels?

Within how many hours after receiving equal opportunity complaint submission must the investigation commence?

How many months must commands maintain completed equal opportunity complaints and instigations for?

Triangulation

Which process identifies areas of concern or issues related to command climate by finding areas of commonality in a minimum of three areas of the command assessment?

How many days within offending incident should equal opportunity complaints be made?

Personal advocate

The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused and witness in a EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are advised of available support and counseling services

Informal resolution system

Which system resolve equal opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level?

Reasonable person standard

Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment?

Reprisal

Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or with holding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action or any other act of retaliation against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication?

Unwelcome

Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive?

Work environment

Where must unwelcome sexual behavior occur in or impact to be considered sexual harassment?

Green

Which color light on the traffic light scale would touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) be identified as?

Yellow

Which color light on the traffic light scale would repeated request for dates, leering, staring or whistling be that many would find unacceptable?

Red

Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment?

Chain of command

What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?

SEC NAVINST 5350.16A

Which instruction contains the DON's policy on military equal opportunity complaint processing?

Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a formal equal opportunity complain submit the complaint to the commander of other designated authority?

Within how many hours of receiving a formal equal opportunity complaint must an advocate be assigned to each complaint, alleged offender as well as any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing?

Within how many days after the equal opportunity investigation commences must a close out message be sent describing what actions were taken?

Every 14 days

How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity complaint investigation is not completed at the 20!day point until the code out message describing case disposition is released?

EOA's

Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanded and command managed equal opportunity (CMEO) managers providing assistance to other members in the chain of EO issues?

OPNAV Instruction 5354.1F

Navy Equal Opportunity Policy

Purpose of OPNAV 5354.1F

To provide guidance on equal opportunity, including prevention of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment.

Acts of unlawful discrimination and SH are contrary to:

The core values of Honor, Courage and Commitment.

The objective of command Managed Equal Opportunity is to:

Promote positive command morale and Quality of Life.

CMEO is intended to be one of many commanders tools for:

The prevention of unprofessional behavior and for ensuring EO goals are obtained.

Chief of Naval Operations shall:

Advocate the EO program for Navy military and civilian personnel.

Report Navy wide climate assessment survey results to the Fleet.

Deputy Chief of Naval Operations shall:

Develop and monitor total force manpower and personnel policies and objectives.

Diversity and Women's Policy Branch shall:

Maintain overall control of the Military Equal Opportunity Assessment

Navy Equal Opportunity Office shall:

Annually provide and EO Climate Assessment describing the Health and organization effectiveness of the Navy, by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication.

Provide overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates.

Commander, Navy Personnel Command shall:

Schedule officers who fill EO program manager billets.

OJAG shall provide summary of fiscal year UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150, actions relating to:

Unlawful discrimination and SH by 15 November annually to the Navy EO Office.

NAVINSGEN and Echelon 2 Inspector Generals shall:

Provide summary of flag officer or Senior Executive Service official allegations relating to unlawful discrimination and SH by 15 November annually to the Navy EO Office

Naval Inspector General is the investigative authority for all:

EO/SH complaints against flag officer and SES officials

Echelon 2 commanders shall:

Monitor Equal Opportunity status within subordinate commands.

Monitor reporting and status of unlawful discrimination and SH complaints.

Immediate Superiors in Command shall:

Ensure subordinate commanders assess their command climate within 90 days of assuming command.

Monitor the command climate of subordinate commands.

Commanders, Commanding Officers, and Officers in Charge shall:

Promote a positive command climate through personal example.

Ensure that career actions are consistent and fair across all grades

Assess their command climate 90 days after assumption of command.

The purpose of the climate assessment is to determine the:

Determine the "Health" and mission readiness of the unit.

Recommend CMEO Manager be of what Enlisted Rank or an Officer with how many or more years of service:

E-7 to E-9 or an Officer with Four or more years.

EOAs shall:

Screen prospective EOA candidates.

Serve as primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders and CMEO Managers, and provide assistance to other members in the Chain of Command on EO issues

CMEO Managers shall:

Shall report EO matters to the commander via the executive officer when applicable.

Serve as the coordinator for the command climate assessment.

Ensure formal complaints are submitted with established guidance and timelines.

Maintain CMEO record files for three years.

Individual service members shall:

1)Treat others with respect and dignity

2) Promote positive command climate

3) Be responsible and accountable for reporting acts of unlawful discrimination

Effective communication within a unit depends on the:

Smooth, orderly, and constant flow of information that is received, understood, and accepted by all.

Commanders are responsible for mission accomplishment as well as:

Unit Morale

commanders may issue an order that only English be spoken in a work place when:

They have a legitimate, non discriminatory reason such as Bridge-to-Bridge radio and interactions with the ground crew.

NAVPERS 5354/2:

Navy Equal Opportunity Formal Complaint Form

NAVPERS 1626/7

Report of Disposition of Offenses

Climate Assessment is accomplished by using the DEOMI Organizational Climate Survey and a minimum of two of the following:

1) Review of records and reports

2) Individual interviews

3) Observations

4) Focus groups

Command Managed Equal Opportunity Manager functions as the:

Single point of contact for EO issues within the command

A naval message is required by parent command upon receipt of a formal complaint.

DEOMI Organizational Climate Survey measures factors associated with what programs:

1) Equal Opportunity

2) Equal Employment Opportunity

3) Organizational Effectiveness

Ethnic Group:

A group socially distinguished or set apart by others and/or by itself, primarily on the basis of culture or nationality characteristics.

Ethnic and Racial Categories:

American Indian

Asian

Black/African American

Hispanic/Latino

White

Native Hawaiian or Pacific Islander

Informal Resolution System:

A system for resolving EO complaints at the lowest appropriate level in the chain of command.

Religion:

A personal set or institutionalized system of attitudes, moral or ethical beliefs, and practices that are held with the strength of traditional religious views

Reprisal:

Taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action.

Reprisal can be overt or subtle and can include, but is not limited to the following:

1) Reduction in fitness evaluation marks without justification

2) Increased duty assignments, watch standing, or workload

3) Failure to recommend an individual for advancement, an award, recognition, or special programs

Quid-Pro-Quo is also known as:

This for That. Normally this is from a senior to a junior.

Green Zone behavior:

These behaviors are not SH

Yellow Zone behavior:

Many people would find these behaviors unacceptable and they could be SH. For example;

1) Violating personal space

2) Off-color jokes

3) Foul Language

Red Zone:

These behaviors are always considered SH. For example;

1) Sexual favors

2) Threats

3) Obscene letters

NAVPERS 535400A:

Navy Diversity and Equal Opportunity Pocket Guide

Complaints should be resolved informally whenever possible; however there is no requirement to attempt informal resolution prior to filing a:

Formal Complaint

A complaint should be made within how many days of the offending incident:

60 days

Military Justice Article 138:

Complaints of Wrongs against the commander

NAVPERS 1626/7:

Report and Disposition of Offenses

Personnel receiving a formal complaint shall submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority within how many days;

One calendar day of receipt

Within how many hours of receipt of a formal complaint , advocates shall be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender and any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing.

24 hours

The investigation must commence within how many hours of complaint submission:

72 hours of submission

A close-out message must be sent describing action taken, within how many days of investigation commencement:

20 days

If the investigation is not completed at the 20 day point, an updated message must be sent every how many days:

14 days

Request for a higher level review must be made within how many days of notification:

7 days

Commands must conduct a follow up debrief how many days after final action:

30-45 days

Command must maintain completed complaints and investigations for how many months:

36 months

Executive summaries will be maintained for historical files for how long:

3 years

EOAs do not conduct investigations due to perception of conflict of interest

The most important support an advocate can give is listening without:

Prejudging the situation

Who issues policies and procedures as a separate instruction on Department of the Navy Civilian Discrimination Complaints Program?

Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (DASN CHR)

What are the possible disciplinary actions for persons who discriminate?

Informal Counseling; Coments in fitness reports and evaluations and punitive measures under the UCMJ; Administrative Separation

What shall servicemembers be evaluated on?

Individual merit, fitness, and capability

What is not part of the Navy's focus when our Navy's Core Values are not adhereed to?

Sex of the members involved

Which article states that Navy personnel are prohibited from participating in organizations that support supremacist causes?

1167

What are prohibited under this instruction regardless of who originates the action?

Reprisals

Who shall advocte the EO program forNavy military and civilian personnel, and report Navy-wide climate assessment survey results to the fleet?

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

Who shall ensure leadership opportunities and an equitable assignment process exist for all personnel?

Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)