FEMA IS-37.22 Managerial Safety and Health Answers

1. Which one of the following choices lists the best resources that managers, supervisors, and designated management representatives should use to ensure that the organization has an effective safety and health program?
A. Section 19 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
B. The Disaster Safety Officer and The Safety, Health, and Medical Readiness Division
C. The Office of Chief Counsel and the Office of Workers’ Compensation Programs
D. The OSHA Standards found in 29 CFR and the Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual

2. Which one of the following choices describes the correct procedure to follow when an OSHA Compliance Safety and Health Officer arrives at a FEMA facility?
A. Immediately notify the jobsite/facilities senior manager and the safety official.
B. Notify Safety, Health, and Medical Readiness Division management within 24 hours.
C. Notify the jobsite/facilities senior manager and safety official within 24 hours.
D. Notify Safety, Health, and Medical Readiness Division management within seven business days.

3. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Disaster Safety Officer?
A. Provide safety and health training to all contractors working at the disaster site.
B. Evaluate compliance with Occupational Safety and Health standards/regulations and policies.
C. Serve as the local technical advisor/subject matter expert on safety and health matters.
D. Identify and coordinate abatement of hazards that may be encountered at a disaster or exercise site.

4. Which one of the following choices lists the employees whose safety and health are the responsibility of the Federal Coordinating Officer?
A. Only full-time FEMA employees working at the site
B. All FEMA employees at the site, including full-time, part-time, CORE, and reservists
C. All employees at the site, including reservists and contractors
D. All FEMA employees at the site except members of the Occupational Safety and Health Disaster Cadre

5. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement of all FEMA managers, supervisors, and management representatives?
A. Provide employees with a workplace free from recognized hazards
B. Comply with the occupational safety and health standards applicable to FEMA operations
C. Serve as the local technical advisor/subject matter expert on safety and health matters
D. Comply with all FEMA rules, policies, and procedures to protect employees from recognized hazards

6. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A. OSHA conducts periodic inspections of Federal work sites.
B. OSHA compliance inspections may be initiated by employee complaints.
C. OSHA compliance inspections are sometimes unannounced.
D. OSHA is required to notify managers and safety officials prior to inspections.

7. Which one of the following injuries is NOT recordable?
A. An accident caused by contractor operations resulting in the injury of a FEMA employee and lost time
B. Electric shock resulting in hospitalization of an employee and prescribed time off work
C. Loss of consciousness while working at a disaster site due to heat stress
D. Chemical exposure for which a medical examination was done for surveillance purposes only

8. What is the purpose of GSA Form SF-91?
A. To report any injury or illness that has occurred in the workplace.
B. To report a motor vehicle accident, regardless of who was at fault.
C. To report a traumatic injury that has occurred in the workplace.
D. To report a motor vehicle accident only if a Government employee is at fault.

9. Which statement best describes the primary aim of the POWER Initiative?
A. To establish a new system for reporting unsafe and unhealthy working conditions
B. To improve workplace safety and health and reduce occupational injuries and illnesses
C. To provide orientation and training about occupational safety and health programs
D. To empower the Disaster Safety Officer to be the sole manager of all aspects of safety and health

10. Which FEMA division serves as FEMA’s principal subject matter expert and advisor in all aspects of occupational safety and health?
A. Occupational Safety, Health and Environment (OSHE)
B. Office of Employee Safety and Health (OESH)
C. Occupational Safety and Health (OSH)
D. Safety, Health and Medical Readiness (SHMR)

FEMA IS-33 FEMA Initial Ethics Orientation Answers

1. A FEMA manager supports a candidate for a local partisan election. Select the reason below as to why the manager cannot send an e-mail invitation to a fundraiser for a candidate from his office computer.
A. Government employees may not fundraise from their office area, but may post campaign materials in their break room.
B. Government employees may only fundraise in the workplace if they support all candidates equally.
C. Government employees may not use Government workplaces or equipment for political activities.
D. Government employees may only use their position if the candidate is a relative.

2. Yolanda, a FEMA employee, plans to solicit contributions for a retirement gift for her boss. Which of the following is Yolanda NOT permitted to do?
A. Send an e-mail to all employees soliciting a voluntary contribution.
B. Limit contributions to $10 or less.
C. Encourage contractors to sponsor the retirement party.
D. Describe the gift but not require a dollar contribution for the gift.

3. Chris, a FEMA educational specialist is working with a local university to develop a fire safety training program for FEMA employees. The university offers Chris a part-time consulting job on developing fire safety courses. Which of the following should Chris do?
A. Turn down the job because it would create a conflict of interest.
B. Accept the job because it is related to the training program being developed.
C. Defer payment until Chris’ official duties associated with the university are finished.
D. Agree to teach the course because the salary is minimal.

4. Ruth, a FEMA supervisor, has a side business selling cookware out of her home. Can she sell any merchandise to her subordinates at FEMA?
A. No, Ruth may not sell the merchandise to her subordinates.
B. Yes, Ruth may sell the cookware to her subordinates because participation is optional.
C. No, Ruth may not sell in the office but may contact subordinates after hours.
D. Yes, Ruth may sell merchandise to subordinates if the total cost of value is under $20.

5. Rita, a FEMA manager, has a second job as a realtor. Which of the following is Rita allowed to do?
A. She may use her personal cell phone to contact clients during her lunch break.
B. She may e-mail her clients from her Government account.
C. She may call her clients on her office phone.
D. She may enter her real estate listings from her Government computer.

6. Helen is a FEMA employee. Her friend is working on a proposal for a Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) contract bid solicitation related to pandemic influenza. During a social event, Helen mentions some facts to her friend that are contained in internal, nonpublic agency information about a recent pandemic influenza exercise that might help her friend’s in putting together a technical proposal for the bid. Is this a violation of ethics rules?
A. No, because the documents were not provided to Helen’s friend.
B. Yes, Helen cannot reveal internal, nonpublic information to her friend.
C. No, because the proposal is being submitted to HHS rather than FEMA.
D. Yes, because Helen should not be associated with anyone who provides contractual services to the Federal agencies.

7. A FEMA office needs a conference planner, and Bert’s sister has a conference planning business. Which of the following actions may Bert take?
A. Tell his sister where a contract solicitation or announcement is publicly posted.
B. Provide his sister with project details so she can make the best presentation.
C. Fill out and submit an application or offer to be submitted by his sister to the agency.
D. Recommend his sister’s company to his boss.

8. Which of the following is TRUE about Government ethics rules?
A. Federal ethics regulations only apply to Presidential appointees and senior director-level positions.
B. Federal ethics rules are designed to maintain public confidence in the integrity of Government.
C. There are no disciplinary penalties for violating Government ethics rules.
D. A Government employee should rely on his or her own conscience to decide if he or she is acting ethically.

9. You are a FEMA employee assigned as a contracting officer to work with Five Star Generators. Five Star Generators’ current contract, worth over $10 million, is being re-competed. A Five Star Generators manager asks you to write an endorsement for the company to use on its bid. The manager also offers you a job. Which of the following is the best course of action for you to follow?
A. Refuse to take the job or give an endorsement, and notify your supervising contracting officer or the head of the contracting activity.
B. Provide the endorsement for the company, but turn down the job.
C. Refuse to take the job or give an endorsement, but offer Five Star Generators inside information regarding the bid.
D. Provide the endorsement for the company and agree to take their offer of employment.

10. George, a FEMA employee, assesses Information Technology (IT) needs for FEMA. An IT vendor who does business with FEMA knows that George is a football fan and offers him two tickets to a game. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE: George may accept the free tickets because this is a one-time event, not a frequent occurrence.
A. True
B. False.

FEMA IS-32 Mitigation eGrants Internal System Answers

1. To process a registration for a grant applicant user to submit SRL grant applications to FEMA, you would select which of the following:
A. FMA Grant Application Packages: View/Print
B. F MA Grant Application packages: Create/Edit
C. SRL Grant Applications: Sign/Submit
D. FMA Grant Applications: Sign/Submit

2. Which functionality shows a record of revision requests that have affected a particular subgrant application, as well as any revisions that have affected the grant application?
A. Attachments
B. Comments
C. Revision History
D. Rework History

3. For ___________applications, the EHP Review and Pre-Award review can be completed concurrently.
A. PDMC
B. FMA
C. Planning
D. Project

4. The ________________ functionality and the _________________functionality can both be accessed from any queue regardless of whether the queue is checked out or has already been processed.
A. Grant Revision; Rework
B. Comments; Grant Revision
C. Attachments; Rework
 D. Attachments; Comments

5. Which queue helps PDM/FMA Coordinators to document the programmatic review of the Quarterly Reports?
A. Receipt and Delegate
B. Quarterly Report Grants Review Queue
C. Notification Coordination
D. Quarterly Report Program Review Queue

6. The first Quarterly Report is automatically generated for the Grantee to complete upon award of the grant and each subsequent report is generated___________________.
A. At the beginning of each year of the award
B. On the 15th of each month
C. On the first day of the new quarter
D. On the last day of the current quarter

7. The National Review Process only applies to which program(s)?
A. LPDM and PDMC
B. LPDM
C. PDMC
D. PDMC and SRL

8. True or False. In order to work on a queue in the eGrants Internal System, you must have the appropriate eGrants role based on your NACS position and team.
A. True
B. False

9. Which button allows you to request the Grant Applicant to provide a correction to a specific subgrant application that is required to continue to process the application?
A. Rework
B. Attachments
C. Comments
D. Revise

10. Which of the following are the three (3) eGrants Internal System workflows?
A. Grant Review, Pre-Award Eligibility, and Awards Workflows
B. Pre-Award Eligibility, Awards, and Quarterly Reports Workflows
C. Grant Review, Awards, and Quarterly Reports Workflows
D. Subgrant Reviews, Grant Reviews, and Quarterly Reports Workflows

11. Which of the following are the two (2) workflow queues that are a part of the PDMC program National Review Process?
A. Regional Director Review and Quarterly Report Program Review
B. National Technical Review and Notification Coordination
C. National Technical Review and Subgrant Selection for Award
D. Subgrant Select of Award and Notification Coordination

12. Which queue is performed for a grant application as a whole and assigns the subgrants associated with the grant application to a user for processing the next queue in the Workflow?
A. Planning Review
B. Cost Review
C. Receipt and Delegate
D. Initial Review

13. Which of the following queues are part of the Pre-Award Eligibility Workflow for all subgrants?
A. Cost Review, Pre-Award Review and EHP Review
B. Cost Review and Pre-Award Review
C. Receipt and Delegate, National Technical Review and Pre-Award Review
D. Initial Review, Cost Review, and Pre-Award Review

14. Which queue allows the Assistance Officer to document the financial review of the Quarterly Reports for a grant application?
A. Receipt and Delegate
B. Quarterly Report Grants Review Queue
C. Notification Coordination
D. Quarterly Report Program Review Queue

15. Which of the following are users of the Mitigation eGrants Internal System?
A. Grant applicants
B. Federally recognized Indian Tribal Governments
C. FEMA HQ and Region Staff
D. Subgrant applicants

16. True or False: A Grant Applicant cannot access the eGrants External System until a FEMA user approves their registration in the Internal System.
A. True
B. False

17. In which queue does the HQ PDM Coordinator select the eligible planning and project subgrants to be considered for further review based on the total funding available.
A. EHP Review
B. National Technical Review
C. Subgrant Selection for Award
D. Pre-Award Review

18. The __________ screen displays your approved eGrants roles.
A. Pre-Award Eligibility
B. MyRoles
C. Inbox
D. All Grants

19. Which of the following is only part of the Pre-Award Eligibility Workflow for the PDMC program?
A. EHP Review
B. Initial Review
C. Notification Coordination
 D. National Review Process

20. True or False. To process user registrations, you must have one of the following eGrants roles: Assistance Officer, regional FMA Coordinator, or PDM Coordinator .
A. True
B. False

21. Alex has privileges for the Flood Programs. Abigail has privileges for the PDM Program. Alex is going to be out of the office unexpectedly for several weeks and Abigail has asked that FEMA reassign Alex’s applications to her. What is the problem with that request?
A. You can only reassign applications to users who has privileges to both the Flood Program and the PDM Program
B. You can only reassign applications to a user with privileges for the same program area.
C. You can only reassign PDM program applications.
D. You cannot reassign Flood or PDM Program applications

22. The _________screen displays the pending queues for each application available for you to work on based on your eGrants roles.
A. Inbox
B. All Grants
C. Pre-Award Eligibility
D. myRoles

23. You are in the midst of processing an application through the Pre-Award Eligibility Workflow when it is withdrawn. What program administration functionality will eliminate the application from further processing?
A. Rework
B. Reset
C. Restore
D. Remove

24. True or False. You must be behind the FEMA firewall to access the eGrants Internal System?
A. True
B. False

25. Which program administration functionality allows you to add the current FY Account Classification Coding System codes?
A. Total Funding
B. Application Period
C. ACCS Codes-Annual
D. ACCS Codes-Carryover

FEMA IS-31.b Mitigation eGrants for the Grant Applicant Answers

1. True or False: When logging into the eGrants system, you will be asked for your User Name, Password, and Access Code.
A. True

2. From the Subgrant Application section in a grant application, what would you select to attach subgrants to the grant application?

B. Add Subgrant Application(s) button

3. How do you add items to the cost estimate section?

C. Enter the Activity Cost Estimate

4. By selecting the duration of access for a user, this determines how long a user has access to an application. True or False.
A. True

5. Which two fields in the Review and Submit Application Section are required to submit an application?

B. Password and Checkbox for statement with name of signer and date

6. True or False: There are 2 methods of creating a new application—completing an entire blank application or copying an existing application.
A. True

7. If you are copying an existing application, you first select the Create New Application Link, and then enter the application title and type. What is the next step?

D. Select the application you want to copy, and then select the Copy Existing Application button

8. You had previously provided your co-worker Bill View/Print and Create/Edit access to several applications you have created so that he could review them. Bill is now moving on to another position and will no longer need access to your applications. What course of action should you take?

C. Revoke Bill’s access

9. From the Grant Applicant Home Page, what preferences can be set up for all your subgrant users by selecting the administration link?

D. All of the Above

10. What are the types of files you can attach to your application?
A. Electronic documents/Files and Paper documents/files

11. You have completed entering the paper intake subgrant application. You need your supervisor Deborah to sign the application. What type of access do you grant Deborah?

C. View/Print, Create/Edit and Sign/Submit

12. Which of the following are the two correct ways to log out of the eGrants System?
A. Logout Link and Logout Button

13. In order to work on an un-submitted application, you first select the Work on Un-submitted Application(s) link from the Grant Applicant Home Page. What is the next step?

C. Locate the application you want to work on and select the Complete Sections Link

14. You have received a paper subgrant application from the City of Prosperity and wish to enter the application into eGrants. What do you select from the Grant Applicant Home Page?

B. Enter Paper Subgrant Application (Application Intake) link

15. From the Grant Applicant Home Page, in order to review subgrant applications you must first select the Review Submitted Subgrant Applications link. What is the next step?

B. You have to check out subgrant applications

16. How do you determine that each section of the application is complete?
A. Review each section and make sure all fields are completed
B. The system will display an error message if you log off before completing all sections
C. The Progress Column will show as “100%”
D. The Status Column will show as “Complete”

17. Which of the following methods can be used to navigate through the 11 parts of the Environment/Historic Preservation (EHP) Information Section? Select all that apply.
A. From the links in the Sidebar Menu
B. From the links in the Task Menu
C. Selecting each of the parts from a drop-down list
D. From a link in the Grant Applicant Home Page

18. Once the both the grant applicant and FEMA have signed the award packages, what is the status of that award package?
A. Accepted
B. Signed
C. Awarded
D. Not accepted

19. When completing the SubApplicant Information Section of the application, what is the best method for entering your organization?
A. Perform a search by selecting the Search button
B. Perform a search by selecting the Organization button
C. Enter in the full unabbreviated name of your organization
D. Enter in the abbreviation for your organization if available

20. True or False: In the Mitigation Activity section, you can change the title of the proposed activity.
A. True
B. False

21. If your email address or phone number changes, what should you do to reflect the change in eGrants?
A. Request a new access code
B. Revise all of your applications
C. Edit your Profile
D. Register as a New User

22. You are completing the Add Cost Share portion of the Cost Share section of the application. You are receiving funds from a City grant for your project. What option do you choose from the Funding Source drop-down menu?
A. Private Non-Profit Funding
B. State Agency Funding
C. Local Agency Funding
D. Other Agency Funding

23. When reviewing subgrant applications, what does “Release to Stockpile” mean?
A. Application has been approved for inclusion in grant application
B. Application has been released by FEMA
C. Application has been approved for inclusion in grant application and submitted to FEMA
D. The application has not yet been approved or disapproved

24. In order to add a comment in the Comments and Attachments Section, what do you need to do?
A. Select the Add Button and then select the Comments Radio Button
B. Select the Comments Radio Button
C. Select the Add Button and attach a word document containing your comments
D. Select the Add Button and then enter the desired comment

25. To accept an award package in eGrants, the user must have what type of access?
A. Create/Edit access for applications
B. Sign/Submit access for applications
C. Create/Edit access for award packages

26. From the Grant Applicant Home Page, which link do you select to authorize access to an application you created?
A. Update/Complete Un-submitted Applications
B. User Access
C. Application Access
D. Edit Profile

27. What do you need to do in order to gain access to the Mitigation eGrants system?
A. Register as a new user in ISAACS and obtain an Access Code from FEMA
B. Request access to Mitigation eGrants from FEMA in writing
C. Wait for an email from FEMA
D. Create an account in ISAACS

28. True or False. You are only required to have one (1) cost line item for each mitigation activity.
A. True
B. False

29. Which section of an application must be completed before you can complete the Match Sources Section?
A. Hazard Information
B. Cost Effectiveness Information
C. Applicant Information
D. Cost Estimate

30. What should you do if you have forgotten your password?
A. Select the Forgot Pwd/PIN? Button on the login screen
B. Register for access to eGrants
C. Call FEMA to request your password
D. Call FEMA to Request your password be reset

FEMA IS-30.b: Mitigation eGrants for the Subgrant Applicant Answers

1. If you are copying an existing application, you first select the Create New Application Link, and then enter the application title and type. What is the next step?
D. Select the application you want to copy, and then select the Copy Existing Application Button

2. In order to add a comment in the Comments and Attachments Section, what do you need to do?
B. Select the Add Button and then select the Comments Radio Button

3. From the Subgrant Applicant Homepage, which link do you select to authorize access to an application you created?
B. Update/Complete Un-submitted Applications

4. Once you have selected the access level you want to approve, what is the next step?
A. Selecting the duration of the access

5. Which of the following are the two correct ways to log out of the eGrants System?
B. Logout Link or Logout Button

6. When choosing to copy an existing application, which sections of the application can you choose to copy?
D. Any or All Sections

7. Which of the following methods can be used to navigate through the 11 parts of the Environment/Historic Preservation (EHP) Information Section
B. Sequentially with the Save and Continue Button or selecting each of the parts from the drop-down menu

8. When viewing the status of a submitted application, what does ‘Submitted to Stockpile’ mean?
D. The application has not yet been reviewed for inclusion in a grant application

9. In order to work on an un-submitted application, you first select the Update/Complete Un-submitted Applications link from the Subgrant Applicant Homepage. What is the next step?
D. Locate the application you want to work on and select the Review Applications Link

10. You are going to be on vacation next week, and you would like your co-worker to make some changes to an application you have created and then submit it. What type of access do you grant your co-worker?
B. Sign/Submit

11. If you select to attach an electronic file, which two of the following are required fields?
D. Compression Format and Operating System

12. In part 2 of the Scope of Work Section, for each task that you add, which of the following are required?
C. Description, Starting Point, and Duration

13. What are the types of files you can attach to your application?
B. Electronic documents/files or mailed documents

14. True or False: When logging into the eGrants system, you will be asked for your User Name, Password, and Access Code.
B. False

15. In order to register as an eGrants Subgrantee user, you must first obtain an Access Code from a State or Tribal Official. Once you have received this Access Code, what is the next step?
C. Wait for an email from State or Tribal Officials

16. What is the status of the Submit Button if you have not completed all required fields of the application?
B. Grayed out/Unavailable

17. What type of information should you provide regarding paper files mailed directly to the grant applicant?
C. Date Mailed and type of document being mailed

18. What link do you select to begin editing your profile?
C. Edit Profile Link

19. Which section must be completed before you can complete the Match Sources Section?
D. Cost Estimate

20. How do you determine that each section of the application is complete?
D. Status Column

21. Which of the following is not a required field in the Applicant Information Section?
C. Congressional District

22. Which two fields in the Review and Submit Application Section are required to submit an application?
A. Password and Checkbox for statement with name of signer and date

23. In the Community Information section, when searching for the City of Adversity, what is the best search term to use?
B. Adver

24. When the application has been released for editing, what link appears in the Action Column on the Application Status Page?
A. Update Application

25. From the Subgrant Applicant Homepage, what would you select if you want to revise an application that has a status of Revision Requested by Grantee?
B. Revise/Amend Submitted Applications

26. When creating a new subgrant application, you first select the Create New Application Link. What is the next step?
A. Enter a title and choose the type of application

27. Once you have added all of the tasks, what is the next step?
B. Select the Save and Continue Button

28. When completing the Applicant Information Section of the application, what is the best method for entering your organization?
D. Enter in the abbreviation for your organization if available

FEMA IS-21.22 Civil Rights and FEMA Disaster Assistance Answers

1. The Fair Housing Act of 1968 prohibits housing discrimination:

B. In all types of housing regardless of funding.

2. Under the laws that protect civil rights, which of the following actions is acceptable?
A. Change established application procedures to accommodate an individual with a disability.

3. An effective way to help ensure that funding decisions are fair to all segments of the community is to:

D. Notify community organizations such as minority, ethnic, disability, and other advocacy groups of grant opportunities.

4. All of the following are true statements EXCEPT:

B. It is acceptable to house a disaster-related program in a non-accessible building if no accessible buildings are readily available.

5. Which law authorizes Federal assistance in Presidentially declared disasters and prohibits discrimination during disaster relief and assistance activities?

B. Stafford Act (1988), as amended.

6. A Federally assisted disaster relief program is trying to streamline its services and provide one-stop shopping for residents with special needs. As part of this effort, program planners decide to coordinate all “special” services, such as language interpreters, sign language interpreters, and readers for the visually impaired, at a single facility at the edge of town. Individuals who require these services must therefore travel farther than other residents. Providing services in this way:

D. Is permissible only if the facility is located on a major public transportation route.

7. If you feel something you have said or done may be perceived as a civil rights violation, the best approach is to:

B. Discuss the matter with your supervisor or Equal Rights Officer immediately.

8. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination based on race. It also prohibits discrimination based on:

D. Color and national origin.

9. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?

C. Emergency programs, services, and activities for individuals with disabilities typically must be provided in an integrated setting.

10. Under the Age Discrimination Act of 1975:
A. Programs receiving Federal assistance may not provide different or lesser services based on age.

FEMA IS-20.22 Diversity Awareness Course 2022 Answers

1. Something as simple as the way you introduce yourself can bridge cultural differences and improve understanding of disaster assistance programs.
A. True

2. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, our population is becoming more racially and ethnically similar.

B. False

3. Diversity is:
D. About being inclusive of individual differences such as communication styles.

4. During deployment of the disaster workforce, the Federal Coordinating Officer has the sole responsibility for fostering a positive and inclusive culture.
A. True

5. If you make a cultural communication misstep, the best thing to do is to:

B. Apologize and express a willingness to learn.

6. Review the statements below. Which statement is TRUE?

C. Recognizing generational traits is part of understanding workforce diversity.

7. Groups with more diverse members are effective at solving difficult problems because they:

C. Leverage the different opinions and outlooks of the group members.

8. Culture influences all of the following EXCEPT FOR:

D. Notions of time.

9. Diversity is generally defined as acknowledging, understanding, accepting, valuing, and celebrating the variety of characteristics that make individuals unique.
A. True

10. All of the following are goals of FEMA’s Diversity Action Plan EXCEPT FOR:

C. Build a work environment that minimizes differences in perspectives and outlooks.

FEMA IS-19.22: FEMA EEO Supervisor Course 2022 Answers

1. A supervisor was interviewing a female applicant for a position that would require extensive out-of-town travel to rough areas. The supervisor commented that “as a woman,” she probably would have trouble with the travel “because it is dangerous.”
A. The supervisor should not have interviewed the woman for the job in the first place if it was too dangerous for a woman to do it.
B. The supervisor, after telling the woman of the job requirements and locations, should have allowed her to decide if she wanted the position.
C. The supervisor isn’t allowed to say anything about the danger of the territory, and should simply choose the best qualified applicant for the job.
D. The supervisor was acting in accordance with FEMA’s safety policies in warning the woman that she wouldn’t want to travel to dangerous locations.

2. One of your subordinate employees, Timothy, worked extra hours on Tuesday and Thursday so he could attend Ash Wednesday services at his church. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Timothy should have taken personal leave in order to miss work to attend religious services during his scheduled work time.
B. This situation is only problematic if a colleague complains about Timothy’s absence Wednesday or is offended by the ashes on his forehead.
C. Supervisors can use individual discretion when deciding whether to allow a subordinate to adjust his work schedule for religious practices.
D. Permitting Timothy to make up time lost due to the observance of religious practices is a reasonable religious accommodation.

3. Who is responsible for demonstrating the existence of unlawful discrimination by a preponderance of the evidence?
A. Supervisor
B. EEO Officer
C. FEMA Office of Equal Rights
D. Complainant

4. According to the Age Discrimination and Employment Act, at what age does an employee fall into the age-protected class?
A. 39
B. 40
C. 50
D. 65

5. Which statement below is false as it pertains to mediation (a form of Alternative Dispute Resolution)?
A. All employees who file an EEO complaint must go through mediation.
B. A trained neutral party such as an ADR Specialist conducts mediation.
C. Mediation can occur at various times during the EEO complaint process.
D. A mediator helps the parties work toward reaching a mutually acceptable resolution.

6. Martha and Rose work in the same office, and have worked on several projects together. Martha, a middle-aged African-American woman, was surprised when Rose, a young white woman, was given a supervisory position for which Martha thought she was more qualified. Rose has worked for FEMA for only a short time. In order to minimize the potential of a charge of age and/or race discrimination, Rose’s supervisor should:
A. Tell Martha she doesn’t have the right attitude and leadership skills to be a supervisor.
B. Tell Martha she will be considered for the next supervisory opening.
C. Have records proving Rose was better qualified for the job.
D. Prepare statistics to show an increase in minority promotions over the past 5 years.

7. If an employee feels he or she has been the victim of unlawful discrimination, that individual must initiate contact with an EEO Officer within how many days of the occurrence of the alleged discriminatory act?
A. 15 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

8. After receiving the Notice of Right To File a Discrimination Complaint, the Complainant has how many days to file a formal complaint?
A. 7 calendar days
B. 15 calendar days
C. 60 calendar days
D. 90 calendar days

9. After the Complainant files a formal complaint, within how many calendar days must the EEO investigation be
completed?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 180 days

10. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990, and ADA Amendments Act of 2008 protect persons with which of the following conditions?
A. HIV
B. Disorders from current illegal drug use
C. Pyromania
D. Compulsive gambling

11. Tom, a supervisor, calls a team meeting and asks Mary, the only woman on the team, to take notes and make copies of a memo for team members who are her peers. In previous meetings, he has asked her to make coffee. Mary complains to an EEO Counselor. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Tom should not have asked only Mary to do these things; however, it is solely Mary’s responsibility to ensure her boss treats her fairly.
B. These peripheral requests are not sufficient basis for a complaint. An EEO complaint must relate to the essential functions of a job.
C. Because of the sexist treatment from her supervisor, Mary may have grounds for a complaint of sex discrimination under Title VII.
D. Because her peers were not asked to do the menial tasks, Mary may have grounds for a complaint of sex discrimination under the Equal Pay Act.

12. After receiving the Report of Investigation, how many calendar days does the Complainant have to request
either an EEOC hearing or a final agency decision?
A. 10 calendar days
B. 15 calendar days
C. 30 calendar days
D. 60 calendar days

13. If the Complainant is not satisfied with the results of the final agency decision, then he or she may file a civil action in Federal court. Filing must take place within how many days of receipt of the decision?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

14. After receiving a request for a final agency decision, how many days does the agency have to issue its decision?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

15. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable accommodation?
A. Exempting an employee with a disability from performing essential functions of the job.
B. Providing a modified work schedule structured around an employee’s physical therapy.
C. Constructing a wheelchair ramp to accommodate an employee in a wheelchair.
D. Providing a large-screen computer monitor for a visually impaired employee.

16. Which of the following is an example of discrimination under Title VII?
A. Discrimination on the basis of physical or mental impairment.
B. Discrimination based on unequal pay.
C. Discrimination on the basis of race or national origin.
D. Discrimination on the basis of age. .

17. Cathy, a supervisor, asked Bob, one of her employees, to go out with her on several occasions. Each time, Bob refused. When training opportunities became available, Bob requested training. Although other employees were allowed to take training, Cathy refused to approve Bob’s request. The actions on the part of Cathy, the supervisor,
may constitute sexual harassment.
A. True
B. False

18. The No FEAR Act protects employees from:
A. Racial harassment.
B. Age discrimination.
C. Reprisal discrimination.
D. Sexual harassment.

19. While deployed to a disaster operations center, an employee informs a supervisor that they have a medical condition, and require some sort of adjustment to their normal work routine. What should the supervisor do?
A. Determine if there is something you can do to provide an accommodation. Contact the deployed Equal Rights Officer, or the Disability Employment Program Manager at HQ.
B. Explain to the employee that you are not prepared to discuss such information, and tell the employee to go somewhere else.
C. Recommend that the employee meet with the FCO to discuss the matter further.
D. Explain to the employee that you have the same medical condition, and you do not require any accommodations, so you
do not believe they need one either.

20. After a complaint is investigated, the Complainant may either request a final agency decision or:
A. Refile a formal complaint.
B. Appeal to the EEOC for reconsideration.
C. Participate in counseling with an EEO Counselor.
D. Request an EEOC hearing and decision.

21. If an employee at Headquarters feels that he or she has been discriminated against, he or she should inform:
A. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
B. The Office of Equal Rights.
C. All co-workers in his or her work unit.
D. His or her immediate supervisor.

22. During the informal stage of the EEO complaint process, the Complainant may opt to use EEO counseling or he or she may:
A. File a formal complaint with the EEOC.
B. Bring the case before an Administrative Judge.
C. Hire a lawyer and sue FEMA in Federal court.
D. Use Alternative Dispute Resolution if it is offered.

23. Who is responsible for issuing decisions on EEO complaints?
A. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
B. Administrative Judge
C. ADR Specialist
D. EEO Officer

24. Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act requires Federal agencies to:
A. Accommodate the religious practices of employees and prospective employees unless it would pose an undue hardship on the employer.
B. Provide comparable access to and use of information and services for people with and without disabilities.
C. Pay women and men comparable wages for work performed that is of similar skill, effort, and responsibility.
D. Post on their public Web sites statistical data relating to EEO complaints filed against the Agency.

25. EEO Counselors are responsible for assisting employees who allege they have been discriminated against,
helping employees and supervisors resolve potential EEO matters, and:
A. Deciding if an EEO claim is valid based on EEO laws and regulations.
B. Notifying supervisors if their employees are being discriminated against.
C. Serving as a neutral party during the EEO complaint process.
D. Helping a supervisor determine if someone is the most qualified person for a job.

26. _____ on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, age, or genetic information is illegal.
A. Harassment
B. Mentoring
C. Accommodation
D. Networking

FEMA IS-15.B: Special Events Contingency Planning for Public Safety Agencies Answers

1. Which position is responsible for establishing incident objectives, strategies, and priorities and has overall responsibility for managing an incident.

B. Incident Commander

2. Having a pre-event emergency plan in place will help:
A. Reduce response times for first-response agencies.

3. A multidisciplinary planning team should be composed of the promoter or sponsor and all:
C. Vendors who wish to participate in the event.

4. One of the many advantages of using a team approach to planning for special events is:
C. Professional relationships developed during planning translate into better cooperation during emergencies.

5. The use of ___________________________ is/are a good way to protect the bases of temporary structures from damage by vehicular traffic.
A. Buffer zones

6. A special events hazard analysis should include analysis of:
A. Special and unique hazards inherent in the event.

7. If additional response resources are thought to be required for an incident at a special event, a good option for obtaining those resources is to:
D. Develop mutual aid and assistance agreements with neighboring communities.

8. A special event:

• Is nonroutine.

• Places a strain on community resources.

• May involve a large number of people.

• ___________________________________
A. Requires special permits or additional planning, preparation, and mitigation.

9. One way for special event planners to gather information about event specifics is to require the promoter or sponsor to:
D. Obtain permits.

10. The Public Information Officer, the Safety Officer, and the Liaison Officer are all part of the:
A. Operations Section.
B. Logistics Section.
C. Command Staff.
D. General Staff.

11. To help reunite lost children with their parents or guardians, event planners should:
A. Announce the names of lost children at the end of the event.
B. Hire security personnel to look for lost children.
C. Designate “meet me” locations throughout the site.
D. Require children to be restrained by hand-holding or in strollers.

12. Whether you are handling a routine emergency, organizing for a special event, or managing the response to a
major disaster, the five major management functions that must be covered are:

• Command

• ___________________

• Planning

• Logistics

• Finance/Administration
A. Operations
B. Response
C. Tactics
D. Control

13. Because each special event is somewhat different from others, a hazard analysis should be conducted prior to each event.
A. True
B. False

14. Planners should assign ___________________ to events that are expected to draw very large crowds and impact mobility throughout the community.
A. A motorcycle squad
B. A traffic management group
C. Public transportation
D. Volunteer traffic controllers

15. Because ___________________________ provide a less confrontational security presence, this technique has been effective with young audiences.
A. Peer security personnel
B. Younger uniformed police officers
C. Private security guards
D. Plain-clothes security guards

16. One reason for developing contingency plans for permit-approved special events is to:
A. Prepare for events that may not run as planned.
B. Determine if the event is too risky to approve.
C. Ensure that nothing out of the ordinary occurs.
D. Evaluate high-risk, high-impact events more thoroughly.

17. When assessing food safety measures at a special event, the planning team should consider the vendor compliance with appropriate State and local regulations related to food preparation, handling, distribution, and storing of food.
A. True
B. False

18. At its initial meeting, the planning team should:

• Develop a mission statement.

• Develop the event objectives.

• ____________________________
A. Determine where the Incident Command Post will be located.
B. Determine the necessary components of the public safety plan.
C. Determine whether the event will require that a curfew be imposed.
D. Determine how many resources will be required to respond to incidents related to the event.

19. A rock festival has been planned for this weekend. The promoter and sponsor have been advertising the festival
for weeks. On the day before the event, large crowds of teens and young adults swarmed into the area. Many spent the night drinking and using drugs. By the morning of the event, several fights had already broken out between competing local gangs. The Mayor and City Council want to cancel the festival, but the sponsor is balking. Which statement below describes the preferable way to deal with such an event?
A. Private security guards should have negotiated with the gangs.
B. A barrier should have been erected to separate the gang members.
C. The Mayor and City Council should have taken control and canceled the event.
D. Agreement on who could cancel the event should have been reached during event planning.

20. A national organization has been issued a permit to demonstrate at the State capitol building. An opposing
group has threatened to turn out to disrupt the demonstration. Public safety officials are concerned that the
demonstration may turn violent. What should they do?
A. Develop contingency plans to address the potentially violent situation.
B. Forbid the opposing group from demonstrating.
C. Activate the National Guard.
D. Revoke the organization’s demonstration permit.

21. The placement of launch pads for pyrotechnic displays must anticipate the:
A. Level of audience control.
B. Desirability of ground displays.
C. Prevailing wind direction and strength.
D. Time of year.

22. User Pays policies are intended to:
A. Offset the costs of public services at special events.
B. Cover overtime costs for event staff employed by the promoter or sponsor.
C. Discourage the promoters from making excessive profits.
D. Transfer the costs of the event to the public safety agencies.

23. ___________________________ is a main factor in determining stage configuration.
A. The necessity to erect temporary platforms
B. Whether temporary seating will be used
C. Expected crowd behavior
D. Whether the venue has a temporary or permanent stage

24. Crowds are complex social structures that can assume roles that are different from the personalities of the individuals. Those who provide verbal support for crowd leaders are called:
A. The active core.
B. Ring leaders.
C. Observers.
D. Cheerleaders.

25. Spontaneous events present unique difficulties to public safety personnel because they offer no warning.
A. True
B. False

26. One area of great concern in special events planning is the physical setup of the event. Both temporary and permanents structures must comply with:
A. The planning team’s safety recommendations.
 B. Local building codes.
C. Items pointed out during inspection.
D. The Job Aid Manual included in this course.

27. Sponsors of organized auto races conducted by professional racing organizations at permanent facilities typically have sophisticated contingency plans available.
A. True
B. False

28. Hampton is a rural community in the Midwest. The local high school football team has just won the State championship. The team has never won a championship in any sport before. The community is sponsoring a parade to celebrate the win. Thousands of people are expected to turn out for the event, including many from surrounding communities. There isn’t much time to plan the parade, and the Mayor is concerned about whether Hampton’s four-person police department can manage traffic and control the anticipated crowd.
Is this event a special event?
A. Yes
B. No

29. The purpose of public safety special event planning is to:
A. Increase the budget for public service agencies.
B. Bring more events to the community.
C. Ensure a successful event for the promoter or sponsor.
D. Plan for incidents that might impact or result from the event.

IS-11.a Animals in Disasters: Community Planning

True or False- pet owners may refuse to evacuate if they cannot take their pets with them is a potential problem during disasters that may stem from people's affection for their animals.

True

True or False- families may spend too much on animal supplies during a disaster is a potential problem during disasters that may stem from people's affection for their animals.

False

True or False- people may risk their own safety trying to save an animal is a potential problem during disasters that may stem from people's affection for their animals.

True

True or False- residents may try to return to unsafe areas if they left their animals behind is a potential problem during disasters that may stem from people's affection for their animals.

True

According to survey results, what percentage of pet owners consider their pets to be their family members?

about 50%

True or False- Emergency planners should assume that pets will remain with their owners in public shelters.

False

True or False-Providing care for household pets, service animals, and livestock during disasters does not impact the safety and care of humans.

False

True or False- The care of household pets, service animals, and livestock in disasters should take precedence over the care of people.

False

True or False- In disasters, consideration has to be given to avoiding unnecessary exposure to animals by persons with animal allergies or phobias.

True

True or False- The best disaster preparedness starts with individual protection and safety.

True

True or False- The U.S. animal agriculture industry generates nearly $125 billion each year.

True

True or False- Traditional concerns involving animals in disasters include the spoilage of the human food and water supply.

True

The importance of animal ownership in the United States is evidenced by...

Increased revenue of the pet industry

Who is most qualified to identify common hazards and threats in your community?

People with local expertise

What does the Pets Evacuation and Transportation Standards Act (PETS) do?

Ensures that State and local emergency preparedness operational plans address the needs of individuals with household pets and service animals.

What are mutual aid and assistance agreements?

Provide a means for jurisdictions to provide resources and other support to each other during an incident.

True or False- An emergency operations plan provides a systematic way of responding to an emergency situation.

True

True or False- Local resources that can help in plan development include veterinarians, humane organizations, and pet suppliers.

True

True or False- Response to a crisis should always rely on the highest level of government.

False

True or False-According to Federal planning guidance, all local emergency operations plans must be organized in the functional format.

False, consistent format

True or False- Emergency managers are the most qualified to develop standard operating procedures for the care of animals in disasters.

False

True or False- Appendices to an EOP may contain details, methods, and technical information that are unique to the specific hazards likely to pose a threat to the community.

True

True or False- based on facts or valid assumptions are characteristics of an effective emergency operations plan

True

True or False- Includes a community resource inventory are characteristics of an effective emergency operations plan

True

True or False- Uses technical language and agency-specific jargon are characteristics of an effective emergency operations plan

False

True or False- avoids duplication and conflicts in tasks are characteristics of an effective emergency operations plan

True

The best way to test an emergency operations plan is to...

Exercise the plan using a variety of techniques

In planning for animal care in all types of hazards, five planning steps are recommended. What are they?

1-Work with joint planning teams
2-Assess local hazards and threats
3-Identify animal issues
4- Develop an animal-care annex
5- Exercise the plan

Several factors should be considered when assessing your community's risk. Determining dangers likely to affect your community based on size and population is an example of what factor?

Community characteristics

True or False- Size and composition of animal-care industries should be considered as part of your vulnerability analysis with regard to animal issues.

True

True or False-Federal laws governing emergency response should be considered as part of your vulnerability analysis with regard to animal issues.

False

True or False-History of animal agriculture in your jurisdiction should be considered as part of your vulnerability analysis with regard to animal issues.

False

True or False-State budget for veterinary licensing should be considered as part of your vulnerability analysis with regard to animal issues.

False

Establishing construction standards to help ensure that buildings can withstand the effects of an earthquake is an example of what?

Mitigation

Adding a distinctive smell to odorless liquid propane gas is which type of mitigation activity?

Modifying the basic qualities of a hazard.

True or False- Creating flood protection for roads into and out of the farm is a method of reducing the impact of floods on animals.

True

True or False- Locating stables and other animal buildings on high ground is a method of reducing the impact of floods on animals.

True

True or False- Making plans for evacuation of companion animals is a method of reducing the impact of floods on animals.

True

True or False- Identifying cost-effective methods of disposing of animal carcasses is a method of reducing the impact of floods on animals.

False, does not mitigate

True or False- Non-native wildlife, often referred to as "exotic" animals, can often be dangerous to emergency personnel in disaster situations.

True

True or False- Microchips, tattoos, and ear tagging are ways to mitigate the potential loss of animals in a disaster.

True

True or False- Vehicular accidents involving horses and livestock are so rare that owners are advised to make transport a low priority in disaster planning.

False, common

True or False- Contamination of the human food supply is a potential danger associated with hazardous material spills.

True

True or False- Spread of hazardous chemicals to workers who handle rescued animals is a potential danger associated with hazardous material spills.

True

True or False- Spread of communicable diseases from animals to humans is a potential danger associated with hazardous material spills.

False

True or False- Endangering wildlife through contamination of the environment is a potential danger associated with hazardous material spills.

True

True or False- In a HAZMAT emergency, the State health department may provide health scientists to assess the impact of the toxic release on the human population.

True

True or False- When a hazardous materials incident occurs, the response is initially headed up by agencies of the Federal Government.

False, local then state then federal

True or False- Responsibilities of an Incident Command Post during a hazardous materials incident include monitoring and containing the spill.

True

The Federal response to a hazardous materials incident near an inland farming community would be coordinated by what organization?

Environmental Protection Agency

You and your planning team are developing an animal care annex to your community's emergency operations plan. You have gathered information about animal populations, the animal care industry, geographic features, and community characteristics. What other information do you need in order to develop the annex?

Community's history of past incidents

True or False- ICS is a standardized approach to incident management that enables a coordinated response among various jurisdictions and agencies.

True

True or False- Use of ICS is limited to natural hazards; technological and human-caused incidents require more complex response organizations.

False, applies to all hazards

True or False- Under ICS, when an incident occurs within a single jurisdiction, an Incident Commander from each response agency is designated to oversee emergency operations.

False, a single Incident Commander

True or False- OSHA requires that an ICS be used by all organizations that handle hazardous materials.

True

Define span of control.

The number of subordinates one supervisor can manage effectively

In the Incident Command System, who develops the incident objectives that direct all subsequent incident action planning?

Incident Commander

The Command Staff typically includes who?

The Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, and Liaison Officer

Multiagency coordination is defined as what?

A process that allows all levels of government and all disciplines to work together more efficiently and effectively.

During a major flood, a temporary animal shelter has been opened where people who are evacuating their homes can bring their animals. Information about this facility...

Should be conveyed to the public by the Public Information Officer to ensure a coordinated and consistent message.

True or False- Herd animals are typically the easiest animals to evacuate because they tend to stay together.

False

True or False- Persons should never place themselves in danger to capture or rescue an animal.

True

True or False- The primary reason that emergency management officials help facilitate the care of animals is to enhance the care of people.

True

Zoonotic diseases...

Can transfer between animals and humans.

True or False- Emergency management can help minimize the business losses caused by disasters for livestock producers, veterinary practices, and humane shelters.

True

True or False- In the United States, incidences of zoonoses following disasters have been on the increase since the 1950s.

False

True or False- If an aggressive dog threatens you, standing still can reduce your risk of being bitten.

True

True or False- type of incident is a factor affecting the method used to dispose of animal carcasses.

True

True or False-location of the bodies is a factor affecting the method used to dispose of animal carcasses.

True

True or False-number of animals killed is a factor affecting the method used to dispose of animal carcasses.

True

True or False-concern for animal welfare is a factor affecting the method used to dispose of animal carcasses.

False

Heavy rains and the spring thaw combined to create serious flooding in Colmes County. Despite sandbagging and other efforts, many towns were inundated. People were successfully evacuated and sheltered, but there were no provisions for animals. Photos of desperate abandoned pets and stranded livestock became front-page stories. A potential impact of this situation is that...

Public perception of the emergency management operations will be negatively affected.

True or False- One way to improve animal welfare in disasters is to rely on animals' natural instincts to obtain food and water by foraging when conditions are harsh.

False

True or False- One way to improve animal welfare in disasters is to include provisions for animal rescue, identification, and care in the emergency operations plan.

True

True or False- One way to improve animal welfare in disasters is to encourage pet owners to avoid animal entrapment by turning their animals loose before evacuating.

False

True or False- One way to improve animal welfare in disasters is to send positive animal rescue stories to the media to improve public perceptions.

False

True or False- When accounting for the care of animals and their owners, damage assessment includes effects of animal loss on community mental health.

False

True or False- When accounting for the care of animals and their owners, damage assessment includes number of animals that left the jurisdiction with their owners.

False

True or False- When accounting for the care of animals and their owners, damage assessment includes damage to animal-related businesses.

True

True or False- When accounting for the care of animals and their owners, damage assessment includes percent of the population that intends to adopt homeless animals.

False

True or False- The local damage assessment and report to the State emergency management office are the responsibility of the Federal Government.

False

True or False- While not specifically mandated to do so, the National Guard may assist in animal care and control issues and animal-related investigations.

True

True or False- Most States require the chief executive of the local government to officially request a Governor's declaration of disaster in order to obtain State assistance.

True

True or False- The State Coordinating Officer (SCO) serves as the primary representative of the Governor within the Joint Field Office.

True

True or False- Emergency program managers are responsible for requesting Federal disaster declarations.

False, State Governor

True or False- One of the responsibilities of a Federal Coordinating Officer (FCO) is to conduct an initial appraisal of needed assistance.

True

True or False- Grants are available for improvement of emergency medical services if they are found to be inadequate in times of emergency.

True

True or False- Federal loan guarantees are only available to businesses, not individuals.

False

True or False- One condition for receiving Federal assistance following a Presidential disaster declaration is that recipients must take measures to mitigate the hazards in the area.

True

Military veterinarians are using sophisticated computer models to help the local community assess widespread damage to the poultry industry following a hurricane. This is an example of which type of Federal assistance?

Technical assistance

True or False- Crop insurance is a type of assistance provided to individuals immediately following a disaster.

False, before a disaster occurs

True or False- Food coupons is a type of assistance provided to individuals immediately following a disaster.

True

True or False- Temporary housing is a type of assistance provided to individuals immediately following a disaster.

True

True or False- Legal services are a type of assistance provided to individuals immediately following a disaster.

True

True or False- Farmers and ranchers may apply for loans to cover losses from a disaster.

True

True or False- Families are eligible for loans after a Presidential disaster declaration.

True

True or False- Emergency assistance funding is based on the concept that each level of government begins to provide assistance simultaneously.

False, assistance must be exhausted at one level before assistance from the next level will be made available

Riverdale is an agricultural community situated along the banks of Big Walnut River. Every few years, the dairy and pig farmers sustain major economic losses when the river overflows its banks and inundates their land. Last year, many animals drowned in the flood. The community wants to learn what can be done to prevent this type of damage and protect the farmers against financial ruin. Where can they go for help?

National Flood Insurance Program

A community in a western State obtained assistance from the Federal Government to repair bridges that were made unsafe by earthquake damage. This is an example of which type of Federal mitigation program?

Reconstruction

True or False- Training for community groups should provide a broad overview of the plan and inform individuals of their specific duties and responsibilities during an emergency.

True

True or False- The most effective way to get government personnel involved with an EOP is to hold training sessions about the plan or the topics it covers.

True

True or False- Sending a memo is the best way to inform key individuals in your community of their emergency responsibilities.

False, meeting and training sessions are more effective

The public is likely to be most interested in:

Warning, evacuation, and public and animal welfare.

True or False- A well-written EOP will be effective in an emergency situation regardless of whether or not you have informed the community about it.

False, more informed people the better your plan will work

True or False- Veterinary practices and animal shelters should be included in planning for disasters.

True

True or False- The public is the primary audience for emergency operations plans.

False, people with responsibilities in community organization and emergency operations

True or False- a benefit of public awareness campaigns is that they put the responsibility for preparedness on the public instead of on emergency managers.

False

True or False- a benefit of public awareness campaigns is that they arm the public with information about how to protect themselves and their animals before a disaster occurs.

True

True or False- a benefit of public awareness campaigns is that they eliminate the need for costly training programs for emergency responders.

False

True or False- a benefit of public awareness campaigns is that they can be done at the last minute, when an emergency is imminent.

False

True or False- Senior citizen groups are a good source of volunteer help for promoting your plan.

True

True or False- It is generally more effective to mail press releases to busy reporters than to deliver them in person.

False, more effective to meet with reporters

True or False- Brochures are ineffective in providing the public with information regarding emergency plans.

False, brochures can be extremely effective

Training should be seen as...

Part of the planning process.

For purposes of emergency planning, you can safely assume that County extension educators are familiar with...

Animal husbandry, community resources, and financial issues.

True or False- Promoting the idea that the course is useful is an effective method for implementing training.

True

True or False-Providing incentives for study is an effective method for implementing training.

True

True or False-Using trained members of the public as a resource is an effective method for implementing training.

True

True or False-Sharing information only among trained emergency management personnel is an effective method for implementing training.

False, should share information

Wassau County's animal care annex was developed by a team that included emergency management, nongovernment organizations, and animal-care industry representatives. As part of their training program, they are planning a series of audience-specific seminars. Who would be the best choice to help the emergency manager train local veterinarians in how to prepare for disasters?

Veterinarians from the team

IS-10.a Animals in Disasters: Awareness and Preparedness

True or False- private individuals and corporations coordinate the most effective protection against disasters, without the help of Federal and State agencies

False

True or False- care of animals in disasters should take precedence over the care of people

False

True or False- in disasters, plans should include training first responders on safety issues, including dangerous animals

True

True or False- care for animals during disasters has no effect and care on humans

False

People's concern for their animals during a disaster...

May impair their ability to make sensible decisions about their own safety and that of rescue workers

Equipping your car with a cell phone charger and joining a roadside assistance association are examples of what?

Preparedness

Replacing the spare tire and scheduling an appointment with your own vet to examine your dog after returning home are examples of what?

Recovery

What organization provides sheltering, emergency food supplies, counseling services, and other vital support services on a voluntary basis?

Nongovernmental organization

Who assumes ultimate responsibility for his/her own preparedness and that of his/her animals?

Individual

What organization develops and exercises community preparedness plans?

Local government

What organization provides resources to supplement local efforts before, during, and after incidents?

State government

Define prevention.

Includes actions to avoid an incident or to intervene to stop an incident from occurring

Define preparedness.

A continuous cycle of planning, organizing, training, equipping, exercising, evaluating, and taking corrective action in an effort to ensure effective coordination during incident response.

Define mitigation.

Includes activities to reduce loss of life and lessen the impact to property from natural and/or human-caused disasters; note that mitigation lessens the impacts or effects of an incident, while prevention stops it from happening in the first place

Define response.

Includes the actions taken in the immediate aftermath of an events to save lives, meet basic human needs, and reduce the loss of property and the impact on critical infrastructure and the environment

Define recovery.

Encompasses both short-term and long-term efforts for the rebuilding and revitalization of affected communities

If you are asked to evacuate, what action is the safest for your pet?

Take your pet with you

True or False- permanent identification or ID tags and collars should be on animals at all times

True

True or False- personal safety must be considered before safety of animals

True

True or False- pets lost after a disaster can often find their way home using olfactory or visual cues

False

True or False- your disaster kit should be kept in an area where it is easily retrieved

True

True or False- building and repairing buildings to meet or exceed construction codes and considering ease of evacuation are effective mitigation measure that farmers can take.

True

True or False- replacing or covering glass windows with materials that will not shatter or injure animals or personnel are effective mitigation measure that farmers can take.

True

True or False- overfilling dams and ponds to ensure that there will be sufficient water available in case of an emergency are effective mitigation measure that farmers can take.

False

True or False- securing or removing anything that could become blowing debris or objects that may become projectiles are effective mitigation measure that farmers can take.

True

What are the chances of flooding in a 100-year floodplain per year?

1%

True or False- farms usually receive priority for restoration of power following an emergency.

False

True or False- neck band ID should be placed on horses prior to evacuating them to higher ground.

True

True or False- knowing where a farm is located, how to access facilities, how many animals are there, and where large volumes of water are available can make a difference when firefighters respond to an incident.

True

True or False- use of a buddy system is discouraged because it is informal and based on neighbors helping neighbors

False

True or False- because of contamination following a disaster, you should avoid conducting a post-mortem on animals that have died or have to be euthanized

False

True or False- all personnel, including those who have not received training, should help clean up any hazardous spills

False

True or False- many business issues can be addressed before a disaster by obtaining adequate insurance coverage and entering into agreements with neighboring farms to share facilities and resources

True

True or False- the National Weather Service has issued a severe thunderstorm warning, indicating that severe thunderstorms have been sighted in your area. You should avoid touching people or animals struck by lightning because they will continue to carry an electrical charge and cannot be handled safely.

False

True or False- the National Weather Service has issued a severe thunderstorm warning, indicating that severe thunderstorms have been sighted in your area. You should seek shelter under a tall tree, especially if you are in an open area without many trees.

False

True or False- the National Weather Service has issued a severe thunderstorm warning, indicating that severe thunderstorms have been sighted in your area. You should lead your animals to open water, such as a lake, pond, or river

False

True or False- the National Weather Service has issued a severe thunderstorm warning, indicating that severe thunderstorms have been sighted in your area. You should keep yourself and any animals away from metal objects, such as tractors, that could carry electricity.

True

To mitigate the potential effects of a thunderstorm, you should do what?

Install lightning suppression systems on all high-risk buildings

True or False- keeping animals confined during a flood is essential

False

True or False- fungal contamination of animal feed may harm animals or humans

True

True or False- the National Flood Insurance Program is a Federal program enabling property owners to purchase flood insurance

True

True or False- hazardous material releases can occur during flooding

True

True or False- When returning to a building that has been flooded, you should spread wet feed or hay outside to dry before feeding it to animals.

False, should not feed to animals at all

True or False- When returning to a building that has been flooded, if the power is out, use a match or lantern as a source of light

False, can have gas leak and cause fire

True or False- When returning to a building that has been flooded, you should air out a building for several minutes before entering

True

True or False- When returning to a building that has been flooded, you should allow animals, such as horses, to return immediately

False, should let air out first

True or False- if your home has no basement, squat down near an exterior supporting wall and avoid being near heavy, solid furniture

False, stay away from exterior supporting walls and utilize heavy, solid furniture

True or False- if you own a mobile home, the safest place for pets is any small room within the structure

False, not within the mobile home

True or False- during a tornado, turning horses and livestock out will help prevent them from being injured by a building collapse

True

True or False- if you are driving during a tornado warning, pull over and if possible lie face down on the back seats

False, get out of car

True or False- boil water orders apply to human consumption. During such alerts you may give your animals tap water.

False, applies to both human and animal water consumption

True or False- do not attempt to evacuate during a hurricane. Stay indoors, in windowless rooms or hallways. Keep your small animals in carriers or confined areas

True

True or False- pump out the basement rapidly if it is flooded to avoid standing water.

False, pump out slowly

True or False- store drinking water in clean bathtubs, bottles, pans, and containers suitable for livestock.

True

True or False- in the event of a winter storm, you should wear a single layer of thick clothing to get the greatest protection if you must be outdoors

False, multiple layers

True or False- in the event of a winter storm, you should keep animals outdoors because they will readily eat snow or ice if drinking water is not available.

False

True or False- in the event of a winter storm, you should burn charcoal in a fireplace to keep warm during power failures

False, dangerous

True or False- in the event of a winter storm, you should use cation doing strenuous physical activities because the cold puts more strain on the heart

True

True or False- If they are provided with plenty of water to drink, it is safe to exercise animals when it is extremely hot outside

False

True or False- if you have to work with animals in extreme heat, you should provide regular rest periods for the animals

True

True or False- animals that regularly require salt licks should not be provided with them during periods of extreme heat or drought

False

True or False- as long as a window is partly rolled down, it is safe to leave pets in parked cars in the summer

False

What is a sign of heat stress in animals?

body temperature greater than 104F

True or False- one way to decrease the chance of barn fires is the implementation and enforcement of no-smoking policies

True

True or False- sources of water to fight wildfire could include pools and farm ponds

True

True or False- if you have installed sprinkler systems, it is not necessary to evacuate from a wildfire when officials ask that you do so

False

True or False- areas around burned buildings may contain debris that is hazardous to animals

True

What is the most common cause of animal death in fires?

complications from smoke inhalation

True or False- if you are inside a building during a landslide, stay inside and get under a desk, table, or other piece of sturdy furniture

True

True or False- planting ground cover on slopes will help prevent damage from landslides on your property

True

True or False- animals may be safely left behind when evacuation due to a landslide or mudflow because they will be able to outrun the danger

False

True or False- tilting trees, poles, or walls may give warning to impending landslides

True

True or False- install rigid piping to protect gas lines from earthquake damage

False, flexible piping

True or False- if you are indoors when an earthquake occurs, immediately run out of the building

False, stay inside

True or False- earthquakes usually occur without warning, causing animals to become very nervous and apprehensive

True

True or False- have an expert investigate and repair any deep plaster cracks in ceilings and foundations

True

True or False- a tsunami is a series a giant ocean waves produced by a major underwater disturbance

True

True or False- a pronounced rise or fall of coastal water usually preeceds approaching tsunami

True

True or False- refitting coastal structures can make them stronger and safer from a tsunami

False

True or False- it is important to plan several escape routes in the event a tsunami should occur

True

True or False-power failures are common following a volcanic eruption

True

True or False-the danger area around volcanoes can extend several hundred miles

True

True or False-ash is light weight and poses little risk where it accumulates

False, heavy

True or False-volcanic ash is often contaminated with heavy metals that can be toxic to humans and animals

True

True or False-milk from dairy cows exposed to hazardous materials does not present a potential danger to people

False, does

True or False-common household compounds like cleaners are not considered hazardous material

False, are considered hazardous

True or False-animals that ingest low levels of hazardous materials may not appear clinically affected

True

True or False-owners are encouraged to retrieve their animals from a secured area and evacuate them to safety

False

Where is the safest place to store pesticides and other chemicals?

in a locked cabinet on the lower shelves to prevent spillss

A site area emergency alert has sounded at a nearby nuclear power plant. This alert indicates what?

a reactor accident has occurred that involves likely major failures of the plant function

True or False-finding a pre-arranged location for sheltering your pets would be the most effective action for radiation incident preparedness.

True

True or False- Stockpiling food and water for sheltering in your home would be the most effective action for radiation incident preparedness.

False

True or False- practice drop, cover, and hold drills in the even an alert sounds would be the most effective action for radiation incident preparedness.

False

True or False- ensuring that all pets and livestock are current on vaccinations would be the most effective action for radiation incident preparedness.

False

What are some concerns involving household pets and service animals during disasters?

-The spoilage of food and water supplies for people and animals.

-Animal bites.

-Outbreaks of diseases transmitted between animals and people, such as rabies, as well as illness to animals due to contaminated waters.

-The loss of local veterinary care capabilities.

-Unintended release of animals from their normal residences.

What does effective incident management ensure?

-The physical and mental health needs of these individuals are addressed.

-The individuals and assistance providers remain together to the maximum extent possible during evacuation, transport, sheltering, or the delivery of other services.

What should emergency operations plans address?

-Sheltering of Household Pets and Other Animals.

-Service Animals.

-Dangerous Animals.

True or False: In disasters, plans should include training first responders on safety issues, including dangerous animals.

True

True or False: People's concern for their animals during a disaster may impair their ability to make sensible decisions about their own safety and that of rescue workers.

True

What are the 5 mission areas of the National Preparedness Goal?

1. Prevention
2. Protection
3. Mitigation
4. Response
5. Recovery

Equipping your car with a cell phone charger and joining a roadside assistance association before a flat tire are examples of...

Protection

Replacing the spare tire and scheduling an appointment with your own veterinarian to examine the dog after returning home after a flat tire are examples of..

Recovery

After you develop your personal emergency management plan, you may...

-Be prepared to deal with many emergencies;

-Find it much easier to understand the actions of official emergency managers;

-Help with the official response.

The chief executive officer or jurisdiction manager is charged with creating...

Effective emergency services

Local governments...

-Develop preparedness plans, including a chain of command to follow.

-Conduct mitigation activities to reduce the impact of an incident.

-Provide resources to protect their citizens in response to emergencies.

-Conduct recovery operations.

You can assist your community in developing and improving community disaster plans for the care of animals and their owners by...

Find out who your emergency manager and animal industry representatives are.

-Determine how these groups perceive hazards in your community.

-Review with the emergency manager and animal-care groups in your community the most important areas of need to provide care for animals and their owners in disasters.

-Determine where you might fit in and be able to help your community as a whole.

The role of the State government in response is...

to supplement local efforts before, during, and after incidents.

What are four facts about floods?

- More than 300,000 people evacuate their homes each year
- 200 flood related fatalities each year
- $2 billion in flood damage each year
- Animals affected can suffer hypothermia and drowning

What are some drought prevention/awareness protocols?

- Water conservation
- Recognize signs of heat stress
- Allow for animals to have accessible shade

What is some volcano readiness protocols?

- Heed official warnings; evacuate when told
- Wear approved respirator
- Clear rooftop of ashes to avoid collapse after all clear

The most common natural disasters are...

- Thunderstorms
- Flood
- Tornado
- Hurricane
- Winter Storm
- Drought
- Wildfire

What are the forms of Emergency IDs?

- Painting hooves
- Body markings/crayon
- Clipping phone number into animals hair
- Neck Banding
- ID on halters
- Glue on number's

What are three important concepts about your disaster kit?

- Store somewhere easily accessible
- Recheck twice a year when clocks change
- Replace food supply every two months

In case of a disaster, you should train your animals to...

- Be obedient
- Be familiar with crate
- Be familiar with transport

IS-8.A: Building for the Earthquakes of Tomorrow: Complying with Executive Order 12699

Adoption of zoning is a regulatory measure used by local governments to dictate how land in a certain area can be used, which can help mitigate the impact of natural disasters by preventing construction in high-risk areas.

1. Mitigation activities may include a wide range of actions aimed at reducing or eliminating long-term risk to people and property from hazards and their effects.

2. A community that is likely to incur a great deal of damage during an earthquake is referred to as having a high risk.

3. The Earthquake Hazards Reduction Act was a piece of legislation passed in the United States in 1977 with the aim of reducing the risks to life and property from earthquakes.

4. The National Earthquake Hazards Reduction Program (NEHRP) was created as a result of the Earthquake Hazards Reduction Act.

5. Executive Order 12699, drafted by the ICSSC, mandates that a building should be designed to prevent total collapse, significant loss of life, and significant economic impact.

6. The NEHRP Provisions addressed the effective methods of seismic design and construction of buildings and other structures.

7. Scientists use surface waves to find an earthquake's epicenter.

8. Surface waves cause most of the damage to the built environment during an earthquake.

9. Earthquake activity can be caused by both horizontal and vertical movement of tectonic plates.

10. A fault is a fracture in the earth's outer shell, on either side of which rock mass moves.

11. Seismic waves generally travel much shorter distances on the West Coast than on the East Coast because the soil composition is different in the two regions.

12. The Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale measures the impact of an earthquake.

13. The Richter Scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake.

14. Liquefaction occurs when ground motion causes loose, sandy soil to act like a fluid.

15. A tsunami refers to powerful ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide, or volcanic eruption on the sea floor.

16. When a building and the ground vibrate at the same rate, they resonate and the vibrations increase, putting more stress on the building.

17. Partitions, ceilings, and exterior walls can dampen a building's vibration.

18. A diaphragm is not a horizontal bracing system.

19. The types of structures built in an area were not considered in developing the NEHRP Provisions' seismic hazard maps.

20. Buildings are assigned to Seismic Use Groups on the basis of community's need.

21. The provisions consider a building's seismicity and its Seismic Use Group and assign it to a Seismic Design category in order to define its seismic safety requirements.

22. The clearest indication that your community is seismically safe is if earthquake hazard maps say the seismicity of your state is low.

23. If the region in which you live has not experienced an earthquake in 200 years, your earthquake hazard is low. (False)

24. Two of the objectives of NAHRP were to educate the public about earthquake risk reduction and increase the use of existing scientific and engineering knowledge to mitigate earthquake hazards. (True)

25. The owner of a new office building, currently under construction, is going to lease 20 percent of the building's space to the Federal Government and is therefore subject to the requirements of Executive order 12699. (True)

26. All federal agencies have the same seismic safety standards. (False)

27. Temporary as well as permanent structures built following a disaster using Federal funds through the Stafford Act must meet the requirements of Executive order 12699. (False)

28. A building constructed according to the NEHRP Provisions may sustain enough damage during an earthquake that it must be demolished. (True)

29. All faults will cause earthquakes. (False - Not all faults cause earthquakes; some are inactive and do not move.)

30. A tall building has a longer natural period than a short one. (True - The natural period of a building, which is the time it takes for one complete cycle of vibration, tends to increase with the height of the building.)

31. The ideal characteristics for building materials in seismically active areas are ductility and stiffness. (False - While stiffness is important, ductility - the ability to deform without breaking - is often more important in seismically active areas to absorb and dissipate the energy of an earthquake.)
    

Records Management - Commander/Designated POC (Feb 2022) AFQTPXXXXX-222RM

(1) What is the primary document that governs the Records Management program?

- AFI 33-322

(2) Which Statement is correct pertaining to the evolution of changes made to AFI 33-322

- Commanders have many options when it comes to assigning records management POC's

(3) Who holds primary responsibility for properly maintaining Air Force records?

- All the above

(4) Where are the (NARA) approved disposition instructions listed

- Table and Rules (T&R) of the AF Records Disposition Schedule (RDS)

(5) The Role of the Base Records Manager in the Records Management hierarchy is to?

- Oversee the insulation records management program, manage staging areas, and provide training

(6) Poorly managed records can result in?

- Select all the boxes (CBT is stupid and doesn't say select all that apply)

(7) Who ensures that the (BRM) role is filled?

- Installation commander

(8) After assuming command, how long does a commander have to publish a records management plan or affirm the existing plan in use?

- 60 days

(9) Who records the responses for record searches in AFRIMS?

- Designated POC's record results for their respective office

(10) How are the records that are identified during Litigations/ Records Search treated?

- Once identified on the Litigation Worksheet they can return to their normal disposition schedule

(11) Idk just get it wrong

(12) An essential disaster plan

- has records that are properly marked stored, and have valid backups

- must be located in the base agency or MAJCOM emergency preparedness plan

- establishes a disaster & restoration plan for both paper & electronic essential records

IAC and NIAC

can a NIAC be considerd as a conflict by Porxy between a foreign state ( supporting the government) and an armed group ( rebels or insurgents)?

Travel Card Program (Travel Card 101) v3.0.2

(ALL OF THE CHECKPOINT QUESTIONS CAN BE SKIPPED)

Assessment

Question: Which item is a benefit of using the travel card?

Answer: Using it prevents travelers from having to use their own money for official travel expenses.

Question: Which statement about an individually billed account (IBA) is true?

Answer: Regardless of reimbursement status, travelers must pay the bill on time.

Question: Which situation will result in an individual being issued a restricted travel card?

Answer: The traveler refuses to authorize a credit score check but completes a DD 2883.

Question: Patricia is preparing to go TDY. Which of the following is NOT an action she should take to prepare?

Answer: Hold onto vouchers from earlier trips, so she can process them all together when she returns.

Question: Vanessa is applying for an IBA. She completed the online application form and then completed the Program & Policies – Travel Card Program [Travel Card 101] training class and provided a copy of her completion certificate to her APC. What does Vanessa need to do next before she can receive a travel card?

Answer: Sign a DD3120 Statement of Understanding and provide it to her APC.

Question: Which is a reason for account suspension?

Answer: Account delinquent after 61 days

Question: Which of the statements about a reported lost or stolen travel card is true?

Answer: The cardholder is responsible for authorized charges made before losing the card.

Question: Mike used his travel card to purchase airfare, lodging, rental car, gasoline, meals, and parking, and used an ATM to obtain a cash withdrawal. Which expenses must Mike split disburse to the travel card vendor when he submits his voucher?

Answer: All of the listed expenses, including the cash withdrawal.

Question: Which is an action you should coordinate with the APC before you start a Permanent Change of Station (PCS) move?

Answer: Ensure your IBA is placed into a PCS and Mission Critical Status

Question: Which statement applies only to restricted cardholders?

Answer: They can upgrade their GTCC by simply requesting their APC to upgrade their account, agree to a new credit score check and have a credit score above 659.

Question: Why should you log into your online or mobile app account with the travel charge card vendor?

Answer: Because it provides easy access to statements, payments, and mobile alerts.

Question: What should you do if there are incorrect transactions on your monthly statement?

Answer: File a dispute with the GTCC vendor within 60 days of the statement date.

Mental Health Pre-Deployment - Airmen and Leadership

[Leadership] In this scenario, what principle of leadership does Senior Master Sergeant Buchanan recommend to Lieutenant Colonel Sullivan?

Being visible to the troops more often

[Leadership] What positive element(s) of leadership has Lieutenant Colonel Sullivan demonstrated?

All of the above.

[Airmen] What signs or symptoms show that SSgt Benson might be experiencing COSR?

All of the above

[Airmen] What positive coping technique(s) did TSgt Finney tell SSgt Benson he used to deal with stress?

All of the above

[Airmen] When TSgt Finney offers to go to the gym with SSgt Benson, which element of psychological first aid is he using?

Making himself available to hang out

Intro to MAF Maintenance Production Questions and Answers

Which of the following accurately describes a responsibility of the Production Superintendent?

Directs the overall maintenance effort of his/her unit

The Section NCOIC/CHIEF is responsible to the Flight/CC/Chief or AMU OIC/Chief for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel.

True

Which of the following is an accurate statement about the Expediter?

Reports to the Production Superintendent

Which of the following is a true statement about the manpower process?

All of the above

What is the Logistics Composite Model is used for?

To assess the effectiveness and cost of policy alternatives to assist in authorizing additional manpower

The UMD is a detailed manpower listing, drawn from the Unit Authorization File, reflecting the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations (by work center), and the UPMR is an extension of the UMD which puts names to position numbers.

True

Which of the following is NOT an area that the LCOM calculations are based on?

...

Which of the following is NOT a training resource for aircraft maintenance personnel?

Public Colleges

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Master Training Plan (MTP)?

Both A and B

Which of the following describes the purpose of Maintenance Recovery Teams (MRTs)?

MRTs are mobilized to support the recovery of mission essential aircraft that are NMC

Which of the following is the correct process for how an MRT is tasked?

XOCL calls MOC who calls the unit Production Superintendent who assembles an MRT.

Notifies the base MOC to assemble an MRT.

XOCL

Coordinates with the MRT chief the duty schedule and maintenance actions of MRTs deployed to their location.

Production Superintendent

Tasks squadrons to support XOCL directed MRTs.

MOC

Verifies all necessary parts are available and taken with the MRT.

MRT Chief

Resources, such as the AMC IG Website, IG Evaluation Management System (IGEMS), and IG Performance Reporting System (IGPRS) exist to help maintenance staff learn more about IG Inspections.

True

Which of the following accurately describes the purpose of the Operational Readiness Inspection (ORI)?

To evaluate and measure the ability of units to perform their wartime, contingency, or force sustainment missions

Which of the following accurately describes the purpose of the LCAP Program?

This is an inspection that is used to evaluate key logistic processes throughout Air Force logistics units to ensure standardized, repeatable, and technically compliant aircraft maintenance.

While everyone plays a role in accurate forms documentation, which of the following roles does NOT deal specifically with the active forms?

Section NCOICs

Which of the following is NOT a component of the MESL?

Combine System List (CSL)

Lists a unit's specifically assigned wartime, training and test missions and the systems and subsystems that must work for a unit to accomplish those missions.

...

An aircraft is PMC if...

one or more systems, subsystems, or components are not working and have an "X" in the FSL column only.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Quality Assurance (QA)?

Units are not responsible for QA - QA is performed at a higher level.

Compliance with currency of TOs and directives (aircraft, systems and equipment forms documentation, Compliance and Management of Safety, Environmental, Bioenvironmental, Housekeeping, and FOD Programs) are focus areas of which QA program?

Maintenance Standardization Evaluation Program (MSEP)

List of routine inspections that must be performed.

Routine Inspection List (RIL)

Inspections not covered by QVIs, PEs or MIs.

Special Inspections (SI)

Perform these inspections to follow-up on trends, conduct investigations or conduct research to get to the root cause of problems.

Management Inspections (MI)

An unsafe act by an individual. The inspector must stop the unsafe act immediately.

Direct Safety Violation (DSV)

Why are functional check flights performed?

To ensure an aircraft is airworthy and/or capable of accomplishing its mission

Which of the following is NOT a reason for impoundment?

Comm 1 radio inop

Individual authorized to impound aircraft or equipment.

Impoundment Authority

Individuals authorized to release aircraft or equipment from impoundment.

Impoundment Release Authority

Single point of contact for the affected aircraft or equipment item and are responsible for controlling, monitoring, and investigating the impounded aircraft or equipment.

Impoundment Official

The means to show aircraft or equipment is impounded, usually by ropes or cones.

Isolation Area

SEJPME-US002-06 Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with the questions and answers for SEJPME-US002-06

To create balance between the three main types of operations, planning for stability operations should begin when?

When joint operation planning begins

To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally do what?

Seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive offensive operations

Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase.

shape

Which of the following best describes the JFC combination of linear operations in contiguous area of operation (AO)?

When conducting sustained offensive and defensive operations against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces

Which of the following best describes how SOF contributions provide operational leverage?

By gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary's will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces

During stability operations, what is critical to avoid doing?

Inadvertently legitimizing an individual or organization in a country where no government exists.

During the enable civil authority phase of operations, the JFC may be required to do what?

Transfer responsibility of operations to another authority as the termination criteria

When required to engage in several types of joint operations simultaneously, across a range of military operations, what must commanders combine and sequence?

offensive, defensive, and stability operations to achieve objectives

_____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance.

Peace operations

Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which required _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission.

combat operations

_____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to, and recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents.

Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear consequence management

By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can do what?

better integrate and synchronize subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose

Which of the following best describes a Transition?

Marks a change of focus between phases or between the ongoing operations and execution of a branch or sequel

_____ is the routine contact and interaction between individuals or elements of the U.S. Armed Forces and other nations' armed forces, or foreign and domestic civilian authorities or agencies, to build trust and confidence, share information, coordinate mutual activities, and maintain influence.

Engagement

_____ provides a framework within which combatant commands engage regional partners in cooperative military activities and development.

Security cooperation

_____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency.

Continuity of operations

_____ is/are DoD's unified effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the U.S. Government.

Security force assistance

Which of the following best describes what U.S forces may do if the crisis is caused by an internal conflict that threatens regional stability?

U.S. forces may intervene to restore or guarantee stability

The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation.

crisis response

The _____ is responsible for conducting military operations to assist in the implementation of emergency action plans.

Geographic Combatant Commander

_____ is generally limited in scope and duration because it is intended to supplement or complement efforts of civil authorities or agencies with the primary responsibility for providing assistance.

Foreign humanitarian assistance

When can a noncombat operation, such as foreign humanitarian assistance, turn into a major operation?

If the combination of size, scope, and duration requires the commander to phase the operation as a set of tasks, activities, and missions over time.

Which statement best describes what campaigns are?

The most extensive joint operations in terms of time and other resources

Attacking enemy centers of gravity is an action in the _____ phase.

seize

CCMRF Tactical Course

The job of the CCMRF is to focus on what caused the CBRNE incident

False answer

CCMRF units would most likely be deployed and employed under.

The President's Constitutional authority
The Stafford Act
The SECDEF's statutory authority
All of the above

What kind of function does a "posse comitatus" perform?

Law enforcement

Which National Guard team augments the WMD-CSTs?

CBRNE Enhanced Force Package (CERPs)

How many force package can be involved in a CCMRF deployment?

Four

Which of the following are reimbursable expenses?

Travel and per diem expenses of military and civilian personnel
Cost of consumable items of supply requisitioned for issue to disaster victims
Cost to repair or recondition non-consumable items returned
Cost to pack and crate supplies and equipment

DoD plays a minor role in the National Disaster Medical System's patient evacuation and logistics operations

false

After samples are analyzed for contamination, the results should be sent to whom?

The Incident Commander

Which of the following biological agents can be relatively persistent and may require decontamination?

Anthrax, Tularemia, Ricin, Botulism

Decontamination processes must be established for personnel and equipment exiting which zones

Hot zone, Warm zone

Most logistics support requirements will probably come from the:

Base support installation

In a DSCA operation, when will CCMRF members will receive a briefing on the Communications Plan?

During Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement and Integration (JRSON)

Which Federal civilian organization can provide 24/7 availability to deploy and provide emergency medical service at incidents involving radiation anywhere in the world?

Radiation Emergency Assistance Center/Training Site (REAC/TS)

What is the primary mechanism for forecasting and filling routine logistical requirements and tracking requirements?

Situation Report (SITREP)

How many force packages can be involved in a CCMRF deployment?

The Economy Act allows reimbursable agreements between Federal agencies for total costs, when which of the following apply:

One Federal agency needs goods/services

Another Federal agency can provide the goods/services

The goods/services cannot be provided by contract as conveniently or economically by a commercial enterprise

All of the above

Any costs incurred before a disaster declaration is made, which generally reflect "leaning forward" to be prepared for a possible response, are funded by the unit through direct budget authority while response costs incurred after a disaster declaration are often reimbursable under the Stafford Act.

True

DoD plays a minor role in the National Disaster Medical System's patient evacuation and logistics operations.

True

The Posse Comitatus Act applies to the Army and Air Force, but not to the Navy, Marines, or Coast Guard.

true

DoD will respond to a catastrophic incident only after local, State, and Federal civilian agencies are overwhelmed.

True

The CCMRF may respond to a catastrophic incident only at the direction of the President or Secretary of Defense

True

There are no exceptions to the Posse Comitatus Act

False

Which of the following is a critical National Guard CBRNE response unit

When commenting on any aspect of the response, DoD personnel should understand and make clear that we are playing a _____ role

Support

What kind of functions does a "posse comitatus" perform

Cost to repair or recondition non-consumable items returned
Travel and per diem expenses of military and civilian personnel
Cost to pack and crate supplies and equipment
Cost of consumable items of supply requisitioned for issue to disaster victims

Which Federal civilian organization uses fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft to assess the location, size, dispersion pattern, radioisotope content, and radiation intensity of the contamination on the ground?

Aerial Measuring System (AMS)

SEJPME II Module 19

Joint intelligence organizations analyze the impact of the operational environment (OE) on mission accomplishment. Which of the following is not an aspect of the OE?

Joint task force (JTF) financials

In _____, Information is structured to look deep into an adversary and support national and theater strategic commanders.

Traditional Warfare

Interdicting smuggling networks to cut flow of precursors falls under which DIME activity.

Military

the _____ architecture needs to be capable of allowing information to be quickly identified as relevant to priority intelligence requirements (PIRs) and then rapidly disseminated.

Processing, exploitation, and dissemination (PED)

_____ are generally equated to a group of critical nodes and links, though they can be single nodes.

Centers of gravity (COGs)

Intelligence at the _____ level supports planning and conducting of battles and engagements, provides commanders with information imminent threats to their forces, and provides commanders with obstacle intelligence.

Tactical

_____ locations provide ability to strike with surprise at the right time and place.

Forward

_____ incorporates various highly classified and advance networking technologies.

Joint worldwide intelligence communication systems (JWICS)

The _____ differs from joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment (JIPOE) in terms of purpose, focus, and detail, requires microanalysis, provides a finer degree of detail, and supports component command operations.

Intelligence preparation of the battlespace (IPB)

When users access information at their own discretion it is referred to as _____.

Pull communication

_____ consist of collect

ive sets of associated information and support the understanding of PIRs.

Specific information requirements (SIRs)

Shortages of skilled workers are caused by highly skilled workers leaving the region, further burdening fragile economies. This is a crisis of _____.

Demographics

Most commands make prioritization a(n) _____ teamed
effort.

operations-intelligence

_____ collection and dissemination involves satellites, manned aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles, imagery analysis and assessment, non-classified internet protocol router network (NIPRnet).

**NOT**

Signals intelligence (SIGINT)

The J2 has overall staff responsibility for consolidating and recommending _____.

priority intelligence requirements (PIRs)

Targeting opium farmers with public affairs messages to influence them to accept alternative income for the opium crop falls under which diplomatic, informational, military and economic (DIME) activity?

informational

_____ locations ensure agility, speed, and depth of intelligence analysis and support.

Reachback

An example of intelligence federation in Central Asia is the _____.

Central Asia Regional Information and Coordination Centre (CARICC)

Which of the following is a strategic level center of gravity (COG)?

political leaders

A concern by intelligence staff is the speed at which they can _____ the intelligence collected.

process, exploit, and disseminate

In Central Asia, the commander increasingly instills an intelligence-driven operational mindset in _____.

The headquarters

During operational level, force-on-force confrontations, the _____ utilizes a macro-analytic approach that seeks to identify an adversary's vulnerabilities and centers of gravity (COGs).

joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment (JIPOE)

Poor infrastructure and distribution, political instability, and chronic poverty will lead to exacerbated malnourishment in parts of Central Asia, and thus establishing a secure food source is a high priority for the region. This is a crisis of _____.

**NOT**

Demographics or Global Finances

Which of the following is a traditional information resource?

**NOT**

Public affairs

_____, despite being an evolving concept, supports tactical action, including counter-insurgency, counter-narcotics, and humanitarian assistance and assists in the development of host country intelligence operations.

Fusion center

Which of the following is a non-traditional information resource?

**NOT**

National systems

Central Asia remains an unattractive destination for foreign direct investment because of political instability and low manufacturing output. This is a crisis of _____.

Regional economy

An uplink terminal used to convert and relay signals.

Swe-dish