JKO Nuclear Weapons Surety (NWS)

September 11, 2022 Dwayne Morise

-Protection level 1-

unacceptable mission degradation catastrophic consequences (Ex. weapons, Potus President is on it.)

-Protection Level 2-

significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the United States. (EX. One of a kind systems, B2)

-Protection Level 3-

mission degradation to the war fighting capability United States. (Ex. F-16s, Smart-t)

-Protection Level 4-

adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force. (Ex. PO, Armory)

-FPCON NORMAL:

general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.

-FPCON ALPHA:

An increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel of facilities, and the nature and extent of which unpredictable.

FPCON BRAVO:

An increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.

-FPCON CHARLIE:

incident has occurred or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist activity against personnel and facilities is likely.

-FPCON DELTA:

A terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received indicating that some form of terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.

-Tamper

To knowin gly perform an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure involving a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system or critical component.

-Opportunity:

To have the time and close physical proximity needed for an individual to tamper with or damage a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system or critical component.

-No-Lone Zone:

designated area where the Two-Person Concept be enforced because it contains one or more nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon systems or critical components.

Nuclear Weapon Security Standard:

-Deny unauthorized access to nuclear weapons -Prevent loss of custody -Prevent, to the maximum extent possible, radiological contamination caused by unauthorized acts.

Two fundamental tenets of nuclear weapon security are to:

-Failing denial of access, commanders shall take any and all actions necessary, up to and including the use of deadly force to regain control of nuclear weapons immediately

-NUCFLASH:

accidental, unauthorized, or unexplained occurrences that could create the risk of war

-BROKEN ARROW:

nuclear weapon accident that could not create the risk of war

-BENT SPEAR:

This includes mishaps not in the accident category.

-EMPTY QUIVER:

identify a loss, thefi, seizure or destruction ofa nuclear weapon.

-DULL SWORD:

muclear weapon safety deficiency includes mishaps not falling into the accident or incident categories.

Safety Standards:

-The Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program and nuclear weapon systems to satisfy ensures personnel design and operate nuclear weapons Defense the safety standards in Department of 3150.2,

Safety Standards:

1-There shall be positive measures to prevent nuclear weapons involved in accidents or incidents, or jettisoned weapons, from producing a nuclear yield.

Safety Standards

2-There shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE prearming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons, except upon execution of emergency war orders or w hen directed by competent authority.

Safety Standards

3-There shall be positive measures to prevent INADVERTENT prearming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons in all normal and credible abnormal environments

Safety Standards

4-There shall be positive measures to ensure adequate security of nuclear weapons, pursuant to DOD 5210.41-M.

Nuclear enterprise key components

Nuclear forces
Nuclear support forces
Support infrastructuee

Department of Energy (DOE)

OWNS all US nuclear weapons

NNSA

lead DOE agency for nuclear related issues

Department of Defense (DoD)

Has CUSTODY of nuclear weapons

Defense Threat Reduction Agency (DTRA)

Lead DoD agency for weapons of mass destruction related programs

Nuclear surety focused efforts

Storage/handling
Acquisition
Removal
Operational employment
Maintenance

Critical component

A component of a nuclear weapon that if bypassed, activated, or tampered with could result in deliberate prearming, arming, or launch of a combat delivery vehicle carrying a nuclear weapon.

Two person concept

Requires the presence of at least two certified personnel in these areas.
Designed to make sure a lone individual cannot perform an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure.

No Lone Zone

Area where the two-person concept must be enforced because it contains nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon systems, and certified critical components

Sole Vouching Authority

responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area/granting them access

Critical Position

Has access and technical knowledge
Can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of a nuclear weapon

Controlled Position

Has access but no technical knowledge
May be executing functions around areas controlling weapons (CE, SF, etc.)

PRP Certifying Official (CO)

Typically squadron commander
Makes determination of reliability of each PRP individual

PRP Competent Medical Authority (CMA)

Provide the CO with sufficient medical information to make sound judgement on PRP individuals

PRP Monitor

Focal point for daily admin functions of PRP
ensures all unit personnel are trained on PRP

PRP Supervisor

Monitors the reliability of subordinates

PRP individual

Monitors themselves/others

Suspension

Initially up to 3 months
CO may extend period up to 1 year in 3 month increments
CO's may return individual to PRP duties at any point during suspension

Decertification

Mandatory when:
Alcohol/substance use disorder
Loss of confidence
Revocation of security clearance
Sexual harassment/assault

Master Nuclear Certification List (MNCL)

Sole authority for determining certification status

NUCFLASH

Accidental, unauthorized, or unexplained events that could create the risk of war

Broken Arrow

Accidental, unauthorized, or unexplained events that could NOT create the risk of war

Dull sword

A reporting flag word identifying a nuclear weapon system deficiency in safety or security

What is NWSS

NWSS is to deny unauthorized access to nuclear weapons, prevent loss of control, and prevent radiological contamination caused by unauthorized acts, to the maximum extent possible.

Two Tenets of NWSS?

The Two tenets of NWSS are to deny unauthorized access to nuclear weapons & if unauthorized access is gained then commanders will take immediate lawful actions to regain control.

AFCIA-R

Asses, Final Denial, Control, ISD, Assault, Restore to Government Control

Asses in AFCIA-R?

Immediately determine the level of access an enemy force has achieved or their physical proximity in relation to areas containing nuclear weapons.

Final Denial in AFCIA-R?

The last line of defense prior to an adversary gaining unauthorized access to nuclear weapons.

Control in AFCIA-R?

The goal of control is to optimize available weapon fire and maneuverability through aggressive means to gain and maintain superiority in the defined battle space.

ISD in AFCIA-R

Those actions proportional to the threat, that disrupt the adversary and delay them from meaningful work in order to prevent theft, damage, sabotage, destruction or detonation of a nuclear weapon.

Assault in AFCIA-R?

Actions taken by the security force to neutralize hostile persons in the area surrounding the nuclear weapon.

Restore to government Control in AFCIA-R?

Physically regain possession of resources and locations containing nuclear weapons and ensure minimum of two personnel are positioned to control entry to the affected area.

ALARA?

As Low As Reasonably Achievable. A major philosophy of current radiation protection practice that requires every reasonable effort to be made to keep radiation exposures as far as below the dozen limits practical.

What is a combat delivery vehicle?

A vehicle, with its installed equipment and components, used to deliver a nuclear weapon to a target.

What is a Controlled Area?

A land or water area, building, structure room to which entry must be controlled to protect Air Force physical resources situated thereon or contained therein.

What are Critical Components?

A component of a nuclear weapons system that if bypassed, activated, or tampered with could result in or contribute to deliberate or inadvertent authorizing, or prearming, arming, or launch of a combat delivery vehicle carrying a nuclear weapon or the targeting of a nuclear weapon to other than its planned target.

What is an Exclusion Area?

A designated area that immediately surrounds one or more nuclear weapon(s). Normally, the boundaries of the area are the walls, floors, and ceiling of a structure or are delineated by a permanent or temporary barrier.

What is INRAD?

Intrinsic Radiation. The ionizing radiation emitted through the weapon surface from directly exposed components of the nuclear weapon.

What is a Limited Area?

A designated area immediately surrounding one or more Exclusion areas. Normally, the area between the boundaries of the exclusion area(s) and the outer or inner barrier or boundary of the perimeter security system.

What is a National Defense Area (NDA)?

NDA's contain and secure federal government resources in U.S. and U.S. territorial areas that don't fall under the jurisdictional of the D.O.D.

What is a No Lone Zone?

An area where the two-person concept must be enforced because the area contains one or more nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems or critical components.

Define Nuclear Surety?

A term used to encompass all activities that ensure the Air Force compliance with the DoD Nuclear Weapon System Safety Standards.

What is a Nuclear Weapon?

A complete assembly in its intended ultimate configuration which, upon completion of the prescribed arming, fusing, and firing sequence, is capable of producing the intended nuclear reaction and release of energy.

What is a Nuclear Weapon System?

A combat delivery vehicle with its nuclear weapon or weapons and associated support equipment, non combat delivery vehicles, facilities, and services.

Define Oppurtunity?

Time and close physical proximity to a nuclear weapon in such a manner as to allow the individual to tamper with or damage a nuclear weapon.

Define Restricted Area?

An area containing PL 1, 2, or 3 resources using a single entry system legally established military zone under Air Force jurisdiction into which a person may not enter without specific authorization.

What is the Safe Haven Law?

Temporary storage provided by the DOE classified shipment transporters at DoD facilities in order to ensure safety and security of nuclear material and nonnuclear classified material.

What is Split Handling?

A stringent procedure used to maintain a launch function separation that was intentionally designed into two or more different critical components. This procedure prevents a single individual or two person concept team from having access to the entire launch function.

What is Split Knowledge?

The separation of information contained in the complete certified critical component so an individual or two person concept team is denied knowledge of the total information.

Define Tamper?

To knowingly perform an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure involving nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component.

What is Two Person Concept?

Designed to ensure that a line individual is denied access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon systems or critical components, never allowing the opportunity for tampering, damage, or an unauthorized act to go undetected.

Nucflash?

A nuclear weapon system accident that can create the risk of war.

Broken Arrow?

A nuclear weapon system accident that doesn't create the risk of war.

Empty Quiver?

The loss, theft, seizure, or destruction of a nuclear weapon or critical component.

Bent Spear?

A nuclear weapons system incident that has major damage that requires major rework, replacement, examination, or recertification by the DoE.

Dull Sword?

Identifies a nuclear weapon safety deficiency. A nuclear weapon system incident that has minor damage but requires major rework, replacement, examination, or recertification by a designed agency.

What are the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards?

Five D's. Deter, Detect, Delay, Deny, Defeat.

Deter?

The prevention from action by fear of consequences.

Detect?

Accomplished through human, animal, or electronic means. Detection alerts security personnel to possible threats and attempts at unauthorized entry or intrusion into the site or into weapons areas, by insider or outsider threats, whether to covert or overt, in sufficient time to permit appropriate response by security forces.

Delay?

Achieved through the use of active and passive security measures and barriers that impede intruders in their efforts to gain unauthorized access to or cause damage to nuclear weapons.

Deny?

Effect achieved by a security system or devices that prevent an intruder or adversary from gaining unauthorized access to a nuclear weapon.

Defeat?

Response by trained and equipped forces to immediately defeat an opposing adversarial force that is attempting to or has gained unauthorized access to nuclear weapons.

JKO Applied Radiological Response Techniques (ARRT-1) Module 5 - Solid State Detectors

September 11, 2022 Dwayne Morise

The material emits light when it interacts with radiation, the the basic principle behind what type of detector?

Scintillator

Which instrument is the best choice for general purpose radiation work and specifically detection and evaluation of contaminated surfaces but cannot differentiate between types of radiation and their energies?

Geiger- Mueller

Which of the following is NOT a component of the scintillation detector?

Refracting Window

A liquid scintillation counter is commonly used to analyze gamma emitters.

False

The analysis of the type and energies of radiation emitted to identify the radionuclide, best describes what type of analysis?

Nuclear Spectroscopy

Name one of the three types of semiconductor detectors.

Semiconductor

There are several ways in which a radionuclide can be identified. Which of the following is NOT one of those methods?

Size

Alpha probes and sodium iodine detectors fall under which type of detector?

Scintillator

Name the primary type of radiation that a cadmium telluride detector is used to measure.

Gamma

Which instrument is the best choice for the laboratory analysis of alpha and beta emitters but is not practical for use in the field due to electronics, weight, shielding, and quality control issues.

Liquid Scintillation

JKO Applied Radiological Response Techniques (ARRT-1) Module 8 - Radiological Survey and Planning

September 11, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What is a systematic sampling of an open area or structure or an overlay is drawn over that survey area and results in more detail information for radiological characterization?

Grid survey

Which of the following best describes a surveyor's philosophy?

Surveyor must be critical in their approach to evaluating the environment and cynical of the results they may find

When conducting a green survey grandson how many meters are usually sufficient when serving large open space areas?

An action level is a meter reading where the surveyor must investigate or perform a certain task.

True

Which of the following pieces of information should be detailed and radiation survey result?

All of the above

Match the detector most suitable to measure this type of radiation.

Beta
Gamma
Alpha

Which detector is the best choice to perform contamination and ambient radiation surveys in the presence of Strontium-90?

Windowed Geiger Mueller

Which of the following statements about alpha contamination survey is NOT correct?

With Instruments producing backgrounds from 1 to 3 cmp, a single count doesn't provide sufficient cause to stop and investigate further.

A systematic set of measurements made in order to determine the radiological characteristics of an area is called a radiological survey

True

Based on the results from the radiation survey which of the following significance of findings criteria must the report state?

Extent of contamination and evaluation of radiation exposure

JKO Applied Radiological Response Techniques (ARRT-1) Module 3 - Radiation Units of Measure

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

You are the Operations NCOIC for a WMD-Civil Support Team. During a real world emergency response, your Survey Team calls back a measurement of 127 rad/hr. How much radiation is present in gray/hr?

1.27 Gray/hr

In what unit is dose equivalent represented?

Roentgen Equivalent Man

What is the term used to describe the amount of radiation energy absorbed or deposited per unit of mass?

Absorbed Dose

What is the dose equivalent of 115 rad of gamma radiation?

115 rem

What is the SI (International) unit used to measure absorbed dose?

Gray

What is the dose equivalent of 85 rad of alpha radiation?

1700 rem

In the initial triage following the detonation of a radiological dispersal device, it is found that over 250 people have been exposed to radiation. 180 people have received a dose equitant of 90 REM. What is their dose equivalent in sieverts (Sv)?

0.9 Sv

You are assigned to an initial survey team, responding to a radiological incident. You get a reading of 205 rad/hr, how much radiation in gray/hr is there?

2.05 Gray/hr

JKO Applied Radiological Response Techniques - (ARRT-1) Module 1 - Basic Radiation Science

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What unit is radioactivity NOT measured in?

Count Rate

Is an isotope has an atomic number of 92 and a mass number of 196, what is the number of neutrons?

104

What is the term used to describe the actual mass of an atom?

Atomic Weight

How much radioactivity is left?
Initial Activity- 6 Ci of Sr-90
Time Elapsed- 16 years, 3 months
Half Life- 28.8 years

4.06 Curies

How much radioactivity is left?
Initial Activity- 17 Ci of Cf-252
Time Elapsed- 6 years, 7 months
Half Life- 2.6 years

2.87 Curies

What is the term used to describe the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom?

Atomic Number

What is the term used to describe the number of protons and neutrons in the atom?

Atomic Mass

Match the atomic particles with their respective charges.

Electron- Negative
Nucleus- Neutral
Proton- Positive

If uranium has 92 protons and an isotope has 143 neutrons, what is the mass number of the isotope?

235

How much radioactivity is left?
Initial Activity- 310 Ci of Co-60
Time Elapsed- 12 years, 2 months
Half Life- 5.27 years

62.6 Curies

How much radioactivity is left?
Initial Activity- 8 Ci of Cs-137
Time Elapsed- 21 years, 4 months
Half Life- 30 years

4 Curies (might be wrong, sorry!)

What is the term used to describe the time required for the activity present in a radioactive material to be reduced to one half of the original activity?

Half Life

JKO Emergency Preparedness and Response Course (EPRC) - Basic Awareness Course

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

The greater your distance from the source of harm, the less your _________.

Exposure

These chemical agents are classified as non-lethal and normally only irritate the skin, eyes, and inside of the mouth.

Riot control agent

After September 11, 2001, the _____________ was established to provide a framework that provides a comprehensive national approach, applicable at all jurisdictional levels and across functional disciplines.

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

What CBRNE agent is accompanied with a highly destructive explosion that instantly devastates people and buildings because of extreme heat and impact of the blast?

Nuclear

__________ eliminates critical seams and ties together a complete spectrum of incident

...

Disaster Management is more often referred to as ______________.

...

Tornados, earthquakes, hurricanes, wildfires, tsunamis are examples of?

Natural hazards

Burned skin, shrapnel wounds, blunt trauma injuries, and ruptured organs may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

High-yield explosives

What measure should you NOT take to protect yourself during a CBRNE incident?

Stay where you are at for the first responders to come to you

Red or irritated eyes and skin, chocking, vomiting, convulsions or seizures, pinpoint pupils may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Chemical

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities:
To quickly involve FEMA to assist with casualties resulting from a natural disaster.
To increase the speed, effectiveness, and efficiency of incident management.
To identify terrorists prior to them striking.

...

In regards to the Disaster Response process, ___________ is designed to reduce or eliminate risks or to lessen the actual or potential effects or consequences of an incident.
Mitigation

Coordination

Recovery

...

Coughing/flu-like symptoms, fever, weakness or fatigue, vomiting and diarrhea may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Biological

The greater your distance from the source of harm, the less your _________.

Exposure

These chemical agents are classified as non-lethal and normally only irritate the skin, eyes, and inside of the mouth.

Riot control agent

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

What CBRNE agent is accompanied with a highly destructive explosion that instantly devastates people and buildings because of extreme heat and impact of the blast?

Nuclear

__________ eliminates critical seams and ties together a complete spectrum of incident

...

Disaster Management is more often referred to as ______________.

...

Tornados, earthquakes, hurricanes, wildfires, tsunamis are examples of?

Natural hazards

Burned skin, shrapnel wounds, blunt trauma injuries, and ruptured organs may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

High-yield explosives

What measure should you NOT take to protect yourself during a CBRNE incident?

Stay where you are at for the first responders to come to you

Red or irritated eyes and skin, chocking, vomiting, convulsions or seizures, pinpoint pupils may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Chemical

...

Coughing/flu-like symptoms, fever, weakness or fatigue, vomiting and diarrhea may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Biological

The greater your distance from the source of harm, the less your _________.

Exposure

These chemical agents are classified as non-lethal and normally only irritate the skin, eyes, and inside of the mouth.

Riot control agent

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

What CBRNE agent is accompanied with a highly destructive explosion that instantly devastates people and buildings because of extreme heat and impact of the blast?

Nuclear

__________ eliminates critical seams and ties together a complete spectrum of incident

...

Disaster Management is more often referred to as ______________.

...

Tornados, earthquakes, hurricanes, wildfires, tsunamis are examples of?

Natural hazards

Burned skin, shrapnel wounds, blunt trauma injuries, and ruptured organs may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

High-yield explosives

What measure should you NOT take to protect yourself during a CBRNE incident?

Stay where you are at for the first responders to come to you

Red or irritated eyes and skin, chocking, vomiting, convulsions or seizures, pinpoint pupils may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Chemical

...

Coughing/flu-like symptoms, fever, weakness or fatigue, vomiting and diarrhea may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Biological

JKO Emergency Preparedness Response Course (EPRC) - Executive and Commander Course

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Emergency Management coordinates and integrates activities needed to mitigate against, prepare for, respond to, and recover from emergencies due to all hazards.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Incident Command System (ICS) that makes it suited to manage incidents? [Remediation Accessed :N]

Organizational resources and facilities (wrong)

The Department of Defense (DOD) may require that your organization:

Develop and maintain an Emergency Operations Plan.

The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 requires:

Jurisdictions seeking certain disaster assistance funding to have approved mitigation plans.

Preparedness is defined as actions taken to plan, organize, equip, train, and exercise to build and sustain the capabilities necessary to: Prevent, Protect against, _________________, Respond to, and Recover from those threats that pose the greatest risk.

Mitigate the effects of

Which of the following is NOT a recovery capability. [Remediation Accessed :N]

Providing adequate interim and long-term housing for survivors (wrong)

Immediate response, under DOD Directive 3025.18, Defense Support to Civil Authorities (DSCA), may include assistance to civil agencies in meeting the following needs EXCEPT?

Rescue, evacuation of personnel (wrong)

National Guard personnel providing support to the Governor of their State and are not part of Federal military response are classified as:

Title 32

All requests for military support to civil authority must be approved by?

The Secretary of Defense

Which plan outlines essential functions that must be performed during an incident that disrupts normal operations and the methods by which these functions are performed?

Continuity Plan

What plan is the centerpiece of the planning effort?

Emergency Operations Plan

When it is clear that State capabilities will be exceeded, which of the following individuals requests Federal assistance, including assistance under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (Stafford Act)?

Governor

The National Incident Management System (NIMS): [Remediation Accessed :N]

Provides a proactive approach to ensuring that responders from across the country are organized, trained, and equipped in a manner that allows them to work together seamlessly.

Agency Executives/Senior Officials

Provide strategic direction and delegate the authority needed to accomplish the incident objectives.

During an incident, the senior official should:

Retain authority for making command and tactical response decisions. (wrong)

Select the FALSE statement from below:

It is advisable to make emergency management decisions during times of disaster rather than integrating these considerations into daily decisions.
While protecting the population is a primary responsibility of government, senior officials cannot accomplish this responsibility without building partnerships among disciplines and across all sectors, including the private sector.(true statement)
Emergency management coordinates and integrates activities and capabilities to address emergencies due to all hazards.(true statement)
Ideally, the emergency manager should report directly to the jurisdiction's chief elected official. This arrangement allows the senior official to have direct access to unfiltered information from the emergency manager.(true statement)

The Incident Command System (ICS) is a standardized, on-scene, incident management approach that is

Flexible and can be used for incidents of any type, scope, and complexity.

Which of the following is NOT a mitigation capability.

Rebuilding infrastructure systems
Efforts to improve the resilience of critical infrastructure and key resource lifelines (true)
Community-wide risks reduction projects (true)
Risk reduction for specific vulnerabilities from natural hazards or acts of terrorism (true)

One important function for executive/commanders is to make policy decisions, which of the following criteria would you NOT use in making these decisions? [Remediation Accessed :N]

Threat to responders (wrong)

JKO Emergency Preparedness Response Course (EPRC) - Operator Course

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Which of the following is NOT a challenge in gaining access and acceptance?

similar cultural values (correct)

This form of detection provides warning in sufficient time to implement protective and/or treatment measures before exposure to agent.

Detection to warn (correct)

Radiation burns, which cause delayed, irreversible changes of the skin, can be caused by high doses of what form of ionizing radiation?

Beta (correct)

Which of the following is a cyanide antidote?

Nitrite (correct)

A patient presented with the following symptoms for the past week: fever, chills and weakness, very swollen tender lymph nodes of bubo, and skin ulcerations. He states the ulcerations are exactly where very small insects bit him. Which type of plague is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Bubonic (correct)

Over 20 people who worked together developed cough, excess fluid in their lungs, and difficulty breathing. Chest x-rays show bilateral infiltrates with bronchial aspirates rich in protein. Several died. What was the likely agent?

Ricin (correct)

Which of the following agents is considered to be a slow effect agent?

Chlorine (correct)

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________________.

the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people. (correct)

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant (correct)

Advantages of adopting a comprehensive all-hazards approach include the following EXCEPT:

Attention is directed towards a single hazard (correct)

During which post disaster phase do survivors realize that they will need to solve their problems of rebuilding their homes, businesses, and lives and have gradually assumed the responsibility to do so?

Reconstruction/Recovery Phase (correct)

Eyes are the most vulnerable to this agent due to their thin, moist, warm mucosa.

Sulfur mustard (correct)

The Disaster Mental Health Response Team can be called upon to assist victims and disaster responders. Which of the following is NOT a service that they may provide:

Provide professional psychological treatment (correct)

All of the following are procedures for activating the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties (correct)

The immediate concern of chlorine exposure is the effects on the ____?

Airway and lungs (correct)

Which of the following would NOT be used for the detection or collection of radiological material?

Nucleic acid amplification (correct)

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair. (correct)

Decontamination will be conducted in the __________ hazard control zone.

Warm (correct)

Smallpox can spread from one person to another by the following routes:

All of the Above (correct)

What form of ionizing radiation is the least penetrating?

Alpha (correct)

__________ occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Secondary Contamination (correct)

How is the victim of vesicant (blister agent) exposure with skin burn over less than 5 percent of Body Surface Area (BSA) and minor eye irritation classified?

Minimal (correct)

A nerve gas attack has occurred in one of the city's underground subway stations. This is the second attack this month. After arriving on the scent, a veteran responder, considered a "tough guy" by his team, freezes up and is unable to continue. After talking to him, you determine he responded to the previous attack. What personal situation stressor is this veteran exhibiting?

Prior disaster experience (correct)

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture (correct)

Which of the following compounds can be administered to reduce the absorption of radiation that targets the thyroid?

Potassium Iodide (correct)

Type of decontamination that is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination equal to natural background or to the lowest level possible.

Thorough (correct)

Which of the following cell types are least sensitive to ionizing radiation damage?

Cells that divide slowly (correct)

Processed foods and temperature-abused foods are most commonly associated with ________ poisoning.

Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (SEB) (correct)

What is the role of the liaison officer within the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS)?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source laboratories (correct)

Which of the bacterial disease produces a non-specific illness that may produce a prolonged disability but is rarely fatal?

Q Fever (correct)

What is the value of verification or confirmation of biological agents?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source laboratories (correct)

What level of civilian chemical equipment would healthcare providers don when providing initial medical treatment after an incident but not involved with decontamination?

Level C (correct)

Which of the following is a way to organize chemical agents that manifest most of their symptoms for several hours to days?

Slow effect (correct)

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately. (correct)

What is the most available explosive agent?

Nitroglycerin (correct)

Which of the following bacterial diseases produce ulcers on the skin?

Tularemia (correct)

The decontamination site should NOT be located:

Near waterways and drainage systems (correct)

Patient presents with 5-day-old blisters/rash mostly on the arm, face, and hands. No scabs are present. Patient reports fever started several days before blisters appeared. Based on the information would you suspect chickenpox or smallpox?

Smallpox, because the rash is centrifugal on the patient (correct)

Select the two categories Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is generally divided into.

Respiratory Protection & Chemical Protective Garments (correct)

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity (correct)

Acute Radiation Syndrome results from high-level external exposure to ionizing radiation. Which sub-syndrome is normally seen at the higher range of exposure?

Neurovascular Syndrome (correct)

Your patient is recovering from injuries sustained in a terrorist incident and is exhibiting stress symptoms. Which of the following is a common behavior reaction associated with severe short-term stress reactions?

Substance abuse (correct)

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal (correct)

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate (correct)

Nerve agents are organophosphorus agents that cause all the following EXCEPT?

Slow heart rate (correct)

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil authorities?

Phase III - Operate (correct)

All-hazards are often categorized as:

Man-made: technological (correct)

When conducting a medical assessment, what status is checked first?

Respiratory Status (correct)

What directive establishes policies to strengthen the preparedness of the US to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attack, major disasters and other emergencies by requiring a national domestic all-hazards preparedness goal?

Presidential Policy Directive-8 (correct)

Penetrating trauma caused by shrapnel is usually attributed to which of the following?

Secondary blast effect (correct)

Reconstruction/Recovery Phase

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level provides the greatest level of protection?

How is the victim of vesicant (blister agent) exposure with skin burn over less than 5 percent of Body Surface Area (BSA) and minor eye irritation classified?

Minimal

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________________.

the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people.

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate

Eyes are the most vulnerable to this agent due to their thin, moist, warm mucosa.

Sulfur mustard

What is the most available explosive agent?

Nitroglycerin

Radiation burns, which cause delayed, irreversible changes of the skin, can be caused by high doses of what form of ionizing radiation?

Beta

What is the role of the liaison officer within the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS)?

Function as the incident contact person for representatives from other agencies

Type of decontamination that is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination equal to natural background or to the lowest level possible.

Thorough

Which of the following bacterial disease is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic plague

The decontamination site should NOT be located:

Near waterways and drainage systems

Acute Radiation Syndrome results from high-level external exposure to ionizing radiation. Which sub-syndrome is normally seen at the higher range of exposure?

Neurovascular Syndrome

All of the following are procedures for activating the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties

Ricin

Prior disaster experience

Chlorine casualties that require immediate treatment would most likely be suffering from:

Larynospasm

Substance abuse

A patient is exhibiting the following symptoms: fever, cough, dyspnea, prominent gastrointestinal symptoms, absence of buboes. Which form of plague is responsible?

Pneumonic

__________ occurs when people comes in direct contact with a harmful agent at or near an incident.

Contamination

Select the two categories Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is generally divided into.

Respiratory Protection & Chemical Protective Garments

START stands for:

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

What form of ionizing radiation is the least penetrating?

Alpha

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair.

What is the value of verification or confirmation of biological agents?

Determination of genetic differences in pathogens may allow determination of source laboratories

Which phase of CBRN response focuses on the prioritization of forces to deploy for mission task?

Phase II - Response

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately.

Which of the following is a way to organize chemical agents that manifest most of their symptoms within seconds or minutes?

Fast effect

Area immediately surrounding a hazardous material incident which extends far enough to protect personnel outside the zone from contamination.

Hot Hazard Zone

What device detects and discriminates between nerve and mustard vapors and can be used to sort contaminated and clean personnel during decontamination?

Improved Chemical Agent Monitor (ICAM)

What type of biological toxin is predominantly derived from the bean of the castor plant?

Ricin

What type of care is a stress management component that fosters a mourning process and helps treat psychological stress reactions?

Pastoral care

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal

Which of the following statements does NOT describe spores produced by Bacillus anthracis, causative agent of anthrax?

Sensitive to UV light.

Smallpox, because the rash is centrifugal on the patient

Which of the following cell types are least sensitive to ionizing radiation damage?

Cells that divide slowly

What is the comprehensive preparedness required to manage the casualties resulting from the host of possible hazards?

All-hazard preparedness

Presidential Policy Directive-8

One of the five intervention principles in the management of the stress response is promoting the sense of safety. How can this be accomplished?

Leadership provide an accurate, organized voice to help circumvent threat

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Nerve agents are organophosphorus agents that cause all the following EXCEPT?

Slow heart rate

This form of detection provides warning in sufficient time to implement protective and/or treatment measures before exposure to agent.

Detection to warn

For which virus is the mosquito not known as a possible vector?

Smallpox

Which of the following agents is considered to be a slow effect agent?

Chlorine

A patient suffering blast effect presents with dyspnea, some hearing loss, and tinnitus following an explosion. Which of the following is NOT a likely diagnosis?

Intestinal rupture

Advantages of adopting a comprehensive all-hazards approach include the following EXCEPT:

Attention is directed towards a single hazard

Penetrating trauma caused by shrapnel is usually attributed to which of the following?

Secondary blast effect

Which of the following compounds can be administered to reduce the absorption of radiation that targets the thyroid?

Potassium Iodide

________ blocks aerobic metabolism by interfering with cell use of oxygen.

Cyanide

JKO Emergency Preparedness Response Course (EPRC)

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

What CBRNE agent are microorganisms and/or biologically derived compounds or molecules that cause disease in personnel, plants, or animals?

Biological

A systematic approach to the immediate assessment and treatment of critically ill or injured persons is represented by the acronym ABCDE, which stands for:

Airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure

_______ is (are) a collection of various intentional threats and unintentional contamination hazards.

All-Hazards

What type of hazard tends to occur repeatedly in the same geographical location because it is related to weather patterns or physical characteristics of an area?

Natural Hazards

What CBRNE agent typically intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injured, or incapacitate mainly through their physiological effects?

Chemical

Burned or Reddened skin, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, and convulsions may be symptoms of what type of CBRNE exposure?

Radiological/Nuclear

The greater our distance from the source of harm, the less your ___________.

Exposure

What common characteristic is NOT associated with terrorist activities known around the world?

Terrorist organizations are always associated with gangs

A truck explodes downtown during rush hour near a government building. There are more than 100 casualties. Many more victims are injured by the blast. In what hazard category would this incident be categorized?

Threat or Human-caused

What measure should you NOT take to protect yourself during a CBRNE incident?

Get downhill and downwind of the source of contamination

Radiation burns, which cause delayed, irreversible changes of the skin, can be caused by high doses of what form of ionizing radiation?

Beta (correct)

Who is responsible for directing the command and control of all operations.

Incident Commander (correct)

The Disaster Mental Health Response Team can be called upon to assist victims and disaster responders. Which of the following is NOT a service that they may provide

Provide professional psychological treatment (correct)

What type of biological toxin is predominantly derived from the bean of the castor plant?

Ricin (correct)

Which of the following bacterial diseases is contagious person to person?

Pneumonic plague (correct)

__________ occurs outside of the incident area when people come in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Secondary Contamination (correct)

What blood test is available that will give an accurate estimate of radiation dose?

Lymphocytes count (correct)

A secondary explosive device has been spotted. Which of the following options describes how to proceed?

Withdraw at least 50 yards from the scene and tell the Incident Commander (IC) immediately. (correct)

What CBRNE agent inhibits the enzyme AChE allowing ACh to accumulate affecting the way cells transmit signals to the body?

Nerve (correct)

Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution efforts with the efforts of the supported civil authorities?

Phase III - Operate (correct)

An explosion casualty suffering from crush injuries of the lower extremities has been admitted to your hospital with severe hyperkalemia. What emergency treatment is NOT recommended?

Limit fluids. (correct)

A patient presents to the emergency room all exhibiting the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, problems with eye movement, dry mouth, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, no gag reflex, and extreme weakness. Patient is alert and oriented during the exam. What toxin do you suspect and how do you treat it?

Botulinum toxin, supportive care and antitoxin. (correct)

Which of the following decontamination method is NOT recommended for removing vesicants from casualties?

Wash patient with their clothing still on. (correct)

A bomb blast victim presents with nausea and abdominal pain. A Computed Tomography (CT) scan shows no hemorrhage. What treatment should be recommended?

Admit patient for observation for 12 to 24 hours in case a hematoma develops. (correct)

Patients with concurrent surgical injuries and radiation exposure should either be operated on expeditiously or _____________________________.

delayed until past the time of bone marrow suppression and delayed wound healing (correct)

Which of the following is NOT relevant to a laboratory diagnosis of smallpox (variola)?

A positive Tzank smear (correct)

ICS has been used to manage incidents such as fires, earthquakes, hurricanes, and acts of terrorism. Which of the following situations represents another viable application for the use of ICS?

The planning and operation of the Central City annual Labor Day celebration, including a parade and fair. (correct)

Your unit has responded within minutes to a suspected CBRNE incident. Select the important steps that you should take.

Practice protective measures of time, distance, and shielding (correct)

Which of the following cell types are most sensitive to radiation damage?

Cells that are actively dividing (correct)

Which of the following is considered a pulmonary (choking) agent?

Chlorine (correct)

The decontamination site should NOT be located:

Near waterways and drainage systems (correct)

What type of laboratory test(s) would NOT be conducted if you suspect a patient has contracted plague?

Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (correct)

How is the victim of nerve agent exposure presenting with convulsions classified?

Immediate (correct)

Smallpox, because the rash is centrifugal on the patient (correct)

Which of the following statements does NOT describe Brucellosis?

The brucellae are highly infectious via the aerosol route and brucellosis is associated with a high mortality rate. (correct)

You approach the scene of a terrorist incident that occurred 2 minutes prior in an enclosed room. It is reported that the smell of bitter almonds is in the air. The door is open; many victims are lying on the floor. What do you do first?

Don your mask before going into the room (correct)

Decontamination will be conducted in the __________ hazard zone.

Warm (correct)

The amount of radiation that an individual absorbs depends on ____?

All of the Above (correct)

The majority of the injuries to gas-containing organs is usually attributed to which of the following?

Primary blast effect (correct)

What technique may be used to test for T-2 Mycotoxins in environmental and clinical samples?

Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (correct)

Cyanide is historically found in the following EXCEPT:

Teflon (correct)

Vesicant (blister) agents include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Sarin (GB) (correct)

Wearing PPE can put the responder at considerable risk both physically and psychologically. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor?

Hyperactivity (correct)

Treatment of patients suffering from pulmonary agent exposure should focus on?

Recognizing which compartment(s) are damaged and minimizing that damage. (correct)

How does cyanide cause cell death in the body?

Interferes with anaerobic metabolism of the cell (correct)

Reconstruction/Recovery Phase (correct)

How is the victim of a pulmonary agent exposure presenting with respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure classified?

Expectant (correct)

Secretary of Defense has the responsibility to provide defense support to civil authorities when the actions:

are legal (correct)

What directive establishes a single comprehensive national incident management system that allows all levels of government to work efficiently and effectively together?

Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5 (correct)

For which virus is the mosquito not known as a possible vector?

Smallpox (correct)

Select the three components, in correct order of administration, utilized in the treatment for cyanide exposure.

Amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, sodium thiosulfate (correct)

Which nerve agent is the most persistent, is very oily, and will stay active in an area for several days?

VX (correct)

An all-hazards approach affects preparedness by allowing communities to:

Increase the speed, effectiveness, and efficiency of incident management. (correct)

Experts anticipate that biological incidents are ________________.

the most likely to occur, and will have the greatest impact on the greatest number of people. (correct)

Ricin (correct)

Which of the following is NOT a challenge in gaining access and acceptance?

similar cultural values (correct)

Substance abuse (correct)

A patient is suffering from painful, highly corrosive burns similar to acid, and wheals have begun to appear on the skin. Which vesicant (blister agent) is suspected?

Phosgene oxime (correct)

All-hazards are often categorized as:

Man-made: technological (correct)

When conducting a medical assessment, what status is checked first?

Respiratory Status (correct)

A patient is exhibiting the following symptoms: fever, cough, dyspnea, prominent gastrointestinal symptoms, and absence of buboes. Which form of plague is responsible?

Pneumonic (correct)

What phase is characterized by improvement of symptoms but becomes shorter with increasing doses.

Latent (correct)

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level provides the greatest level of protection?

IV (correct)

What is the most available explosive agent?

Nitroglycerin (correct)

A patient who works at an insecticide manufacturing plant is admitted to the emergency room. He states he was splashed with a large quantity of liquid and is now exhibiting symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, difficulty breathing, body twitching and is generally very weak. What is the preferred treatment to block the effects of excessive ACh?

Administer additional 2-PAM Cl (correct)

A patient was admitted to the hospital suffering from the following symptoms for the last 5 days: fever, malaise, fatigue, and nonproductive cough. Chest x-rays reveal a widened mediastinum and the patient's white blood cell count is elevated. Which type of anthrax is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Inhalational (correct)

A nerve gas attack has occurred in one of the city's underground subway stations. This is the second attack this month. After arriving on the scene, a veteran responder, considered a "tough guy" by his team, freezes up and is unable to continue. After talking to him, you determine he responded to the previous attack. What personal situation stressor is this veteran exhibiting?

Prior disaster experience (correct)

All of the following are procedures for activating the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) EXCEPT:

Refer to your Job Action Sheet (JAS) for response duties (correct)

JKO Navy Health Promotion Basics

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

To enhance the acceptance and potential success of the Health Promotion (HP) Program by encouraging command, crew members, and staff ownership of the program is the primary job description of?

(T)- Health Promotion Committee.

What is the name of the survey that is funded by DoD (Health Affairs) and is conducted every three years?

(T)- The Department of Defense (DoD) Survey of Health Related Behaviors Among Military Personnel.

Student manuals, course fees, and Health Promotion Program participation incentives are all examples of what type of expense?

(T)- Variable Costs.

At what point in the ten step planning process does the Health Promotion Coordinator implement Health Promotion Program activities?

(T)- After developing a budget.

What is the Navy website that has a Health & Wellness page targeted with information for DAPAs, CFLs, HP Coordinators and the individual Sailors?

(T)- NKO website.

Which is the first step in developing a successful Health Promotion Program?

(T)- Form a HP Committee

What is the last step in developing an effective Marketing Plan for your command Health Promotion Program?

(T)- Evaluate marketing efforts

What is a prerequisite of a Health Promotions Committee Coordinator?

(T)- Has been at the command at least six months or is familiar with the command and the command culture and has good "people" skills

Which award is designed to enhance battle readiness by promoting health, fitness, and mental well being of active duty Sailors assigned to Commander Naval Surface Force (COMSURFOR)?

(T)- Green H Health Promotion Award

What needs to be established prior to evaluating a Health Promotion Program?

(T)- Program goals and objectives

Which of the following is a method that can be used at your command to determine the interests of your crew or staff?

(T)- Conduct key leader interviews

Looking at the pros and cons of making a behavior change is one of the key issues involved in what?

(T)- Contemplation

Which of the following is a type of Health Promotion Program evaluation?

(T)- Outcome

What is an example of an uncontrollable risk factor that can influence the level of risk for developing particular diseases or that can contribute to early death and disability?

(T)- Family history

What is the fifth stage in the Stages of Behavior Change model?

(T)- Maintenance

Using a short article in the command newsletter or a flyer to report Needs Assessment results would be most appropriate and effective for which group?

(T)- Command personnel

Which of the following is an example of a measurable process objective?

(T)- By September 30, 2008, the command will decrease tobacco use by at least 10%, as evidenced by results on the Fleet & Marine Corps HRA.

What serves as the construction phase of a program evaluation?

(T)- Data analysis

Which of the following is a data source for an Outcome Evaluation?

(T)- Pre/post Tests, Measurement of health risk factors, and Monitor use of healthcare system.

Which of the following is essential in conducting an Outcome Evaluation?

(T)- Customer satisfaction surveys

What is the first step in developing an effective Marketing Plan for your command Health Promotion Program?

(T)- Identify the audience

What step in the HP Program planning process can help ensure that command personnel know about the Health Promotion Program, the activities and events offered, the benefits of participation, and the long term outcomes of adopting a healthy lifestyle?

(T)- HP Program Marketing Plan

How many steps are there to designing a successful Health Promotion Program?

(T)- Ten

What element of the Health Promotion Program Evaluation Report highlights the purpose of the program evaluation?

(T)- Summary of results

What should the Health Promotion Coordinator consult when scheduling a Health Promotion Program activity?

(T)- The results of the Command Assessment

Encouraging enrollment in an Intervention level program, such as ShipShape or a Tobacco Cessation Program, is most effective for individuals who are in at least what stage of behavior change?

(T)- Contemplation

What is an indicator of the success of a Health Promotion Program activity?

(T)- Participation rate

What is an advantage to using Health Promotion Program participation incentives?

(T)- Encourages participation in Health Promotion Programs.

How much of the annual Health Promotion Program budget should be dedicated to Intervention level programs?

(T)- 5-50%

What is focused on the necessary actions to achieve one or more marketing objectives?

(T)- Marketing Plan

The long-term components should be reviewed and possibly updated every two years.

= Vision Statement, Mission Statement, Goal Statements

The short-term components should be updated annually.

= Develop measurable objectives, Develop strategies and action steps, Develop a budget, Develop an evaluation plan

A Marketing Plan is developed on an annual basis, consisting of these 5 steps.

1. Identify audience
2. Research methods to reach target audiences
3. Develop and pretest materials
4. Distribute marketing message
5. Evaluate marketing efforts

According to the national Healthy People 2010 report over 70% of all premature deaths in this country are directly related to behaviors and environmental factors.

True.

What is the level of prevention that should be the major focus of your command's Health Promotion Program?

(T)- Primary

Videotapes, DVDs, reference books, and computer software programs are all examples of what type of expense?

(T)- Fixed

Which type of question used on a written questionnaire typically asks for a Yes or No answer?

(T)- Closed, form questions

What is the name of the annual Health Promotion Program award that is given for excellence in the delivery of Health Promotion programming and divided into two categories, medical and fleet?

(T)- Health Promotion and Wellness Award

What stage of behavior change is an individual in when they have no intention of making any behavior changes even though their family and friends may recognize the need for that person to change?

(T)- Pre-contemplation

What instruction provides guidance to the Navy's comprehensive Health Promotion Program?

(T)- OPNAVINST 6100.2A

What is a key element of a command Health Promotion Program Evaluation Report?

(T)- Cost of the program activity

Who appoints members to the Health Promotion Committee?

(T)- Commanding Officer

What characteristic of a successful Health Promotion Program is being addressed when the staff and crews preference for content is taken into account?

(T)- High satisfaction rate

What tool can be used by Navy and Marine Corps commands to quickly assess the lifestyle of its members?

(T)- Fleet and Marine Corps Health Risk Appraisal (HRA)

Which group would an abbreviated, executive summary with charts or graphs be most appropriate and effective to report the results of the Command Assessment?

(T)- Chain of command

What provides general statements about the expectations for the program?

(T)- Goal Statements

Which of the following is an example of a long term component of a Health Promotion Plan?

(T)- Vision Statement

The Navy Health Promotion Coordinator should use Health Promotion Program resources that are primarily focused on what?

(T)- Navy Health Promotion Program priority areas

What determines the type of Health Promotion Program participation incentives?

(T)- Target audience

How much of the annual Health Promotion Program budget should be dedicated to Education/Motivational level programs?

(T)- 20-40%

What is the first stage in the Stages of Behavior Change model?

(T)- Pre-contemplation

What is the participation rate for Awareness level program activities?

(T)- 100%

What is the next step after "Developing Measurable Program Objectives" in the Health Promotion Program planning process?

(T)- Develop strategies and action steps

JKO DMHRSi - Annual Refresher: Policy Updates and Reminders

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Knowledge Check #1

When is your DMHRSi Timecard due?

The first business day after the end of the pay period

Test Question #1

DMHRSi tracks the time staff spend supporting all the MTF's missions. This includes clinical missions, administrative missions, training missions, and Army readiness missions. DMHRSi does not affect an individual's pay.

True

Test Question #2

The best strategy for accurately capturing labor hours is to:

Capture your hours every day by either entering them into DMHRSi or noting them on a calendar spreadsheet, or notepad and then entering them into DMHRSi

Test Question #3

I am a soldier and I just finished an hour of Physical Training (PT), what code would I use in DMHRSi to capture my PT time?

GFAA or GFAD (depending on assignment to MEDDAC or DENTAC)

Test Question #4

Time spent providing non-face-to-face patient care is Virtual Health (telephone calls, returning emails, TCONs). Virtual Healthcare to include telephone calls, returning emails via secure messaging, and TCONs not for Periodic Health Assessments is capture using the individual's normal clinic Task Code with a sub identification code added.

Which Task Codes would be correct?

B***__DMIS ID.99
B***__DMIS ID.06 for skill type 3 (nursing)

JKO Why is DMHRSi Important

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Knowledge Check #1

When staff accurately report their time in DMHRSi, this communicates resourcing requirements.

True

Knowledge Check #2

Which of the following are benefits of accurate time reporting? Select all of the correct answers.

Adequate Budget & Resources
Adequate Staffing
Patient Satisfaction

Knowledge Check #3

It is a good practice to use your patient or administrative schedule to help input your time into DMHRSi each day to increase accuracy.

True

Test Question #1

The most important mission to capture as we input our labor hours in DMHRSi is...

All missions are equally important

Test Question #2

Labor data from DMHRSi is used by...

All the Above

Test Question #3

Capturing all your available time as patient care time...

Overinflates the cost of delivering patient care

Test Question #4

ATAAPS tells leadership how you support all of the Army medical missions.

False

Test Question #5

Who is responsible for accurately capturing your labor hours against the missions you support?

You are responsible to ensure the hours in DMHRSi accurately reflect the missions you supported

JKO DHA Virtual Health Provider Training

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Which of the following video teleconferencing technologies include a built in system with an integrated CODEC and audio/video components, to include medical peripherals and typically handled by a tele-presenter?

Dedicated VTC systems

Which of the following is NOT a common technical troubleshooting issue during a VTC session?

Language barriers

Which of the following is true about virtual health care?

- It provides and supports healthcare when distance separates the patient and provider.

- It may also be known as telehealth, video teleconferencing, eHealth, telecare, etc

- It uses electronic, information, imaging and communication technologies

VH providers may encounter a wide variety of virtual health care equipment. Which of the following are common options for virtual health care settings?

- A dedicated VH cart with or without peripheral devices such as vital sign tools and held hand cameras

- A video conferencing setup with a desktop screen and speaker phone

- Mobile phones and tablet capabilities

All of the following are examples of differences between in-person care and virtual health care EXCEPT:

Patient education to alter behavior or improve their health status

The provider can often rely on a presenter (technician or nurse) who serves as the face of VHC at the patient site and acts as the hands of virtual health for the provider.

True

Which of the following terms matches this definition: "Real time video or telephone appointments which involves dialog, interactions, electronic communication exchange in at least two directions in the same time period."?

Synchronous Virtual Health

DOD uniformed providers have traditionally been exempt from state licensure, then in 2012 the waiver was implemented. "The Wavier" refers to?

The exemption of state licensure was expanded to facilitate telemedicine in the Military Health System

The three I's referees to an acronym related to privacy and security which may be jealously for the provider to use during the "meet and greet" portion of VH session. what do the three I's stand for?

Identify, Introduce, Inquire

XXXXXMatch the terms to the correct definition
A) Privileging by Proxy
B) Licensure
C) Virtual Health to the Patient's location
D) Privileging

A) Allows Commanders at originating/patient end site to accept the decision of the distant/provider site.

B) Uniformed providers are traditionally exempt from originating site in-state requirements

C) Uses a secure, DOD-approved, HIPAA-compliant health information technology platform.

D) A provider must be explicitly given this by the facility in which he or she is providing services

Select the statement that best explains the he presenter's role in supporting virtual health care. The presenter....

- Facilitates the communication when the provider and patient are in separate locations

- Coordinates the patient care at the originating site

- Uses technology to connect the patient with the provider

Federal law requires that virtual health providers must personally complete an in-person assessment of a patient before he/ she can prescribe, renew it refill controlled substances

False

In virtual health care the originating site of care refers to...

The physical location of the patient.

Match the terms and to the correct patient experience terms with the examples given.

A) Framing
B) Staging
C) Netiquette

A) Sit a comfortable distance from the camera.

B) Avoid patterns, white coats and bold colors, while using bright natural light if possible.

C) Speak slowly, confirm understanding, and allow time for the patient to respond.

Match the terms:
A) Staging
B) Netiquette
C) Framing

A) Remove visual clutter and extraneous background noise.

B) Make eye simulated contact by looking at the camera rather than the patient's eye on the screen.

C)Position camera at top center of the monitor if possible for better eye to eye display.

Which of the following benefits applies to virtual health?

- Increases access to care

- Reduces travel and other costs

- Leverages specialty providers

- Links scattered medical resources

Match the terms:

A) Synchronous
B) Asynchronous
C) Distant site
D) Originating site

A) Immediate form of interaction-think "dialogue", like video chat.

B) A delayed form of interaction-think "series of monologues" like emails or texting.

C) The treatment facility where the provider is

D) The treatment facility where the patient is

JKO DMLSS: GFEBS Purchase Request Card (FOUO)

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

An invoice cannot be unblocked if the Managing Account on an EDI-821 and the EDI 810 _____ are different

Invoice

Which account assignment is used specifically for AXOL Rebates?

Which of the following is a government approved acquisition method that allows approved cardholders to make purchases?

Purchase card

If the GPC purchase exceeds the obligation amount, what must be adjusted in GFEBS for successful posting?

How many card accounts can be identified per PR?

Each PR line item can have _______?

Only 1 line of accounting

How many LOAs can one Managing Account have?

Multiple

Who is responsible for identifying errors between AccessOnline (AXOL) and GFEBS?

The Invoice Interface Processing Monitor

What is the tolerance for GPC purchases?

10%

When does the U.S. Bank send obligation transactions?

End of the billing period

The card identifier in GFEBS is _______?

A pseudo number which has cardholder info

Changes to a PO are done with what transaction code?

ME22N

Who establishes user accounts in AccessOnline (AXOL), the U.S. Bank's purchase card system?

The Contracting Office

Material Master creates and maintains Material Master Data by performing ______, or the sourcing, maintenance, and application of material master data.

Material Configuration

Who determines who resolves the error if an error occurs in the interface between AccessOnline (AXOL) and GFEBS?

The Invoice Interface Processing Monitor

Which PO type is manually created in GFEBS for GPC?

None of the above

What is created in AXOL after the PO is auto-generated in GFEBS?

eOrder

The Invoice Interface Processing Monitor identifies errors with the interface between AccessOnline (AXOL) and GFEBS. The resolution of these errors may require coordination with whom?

The Invoice Processor

A managing account is established by which of the following?

AccessOnline (AXOL)

How is the final invoice indicator identified for an invoice?

Both AXOL and GFEBS

JKO DMLSS: GFEBS Purchase Order (FOUO)

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

When creating a Purchase Order, which flow process is used for SPS?

Purchase Requisition - Fund Certification - Contracting - Purchase Order

Transactions which run reports and analyzing POs include ____.

ME5A

A funds commitment document does not require a _____.

Goods receipt

Which of the following is a method of charging goods and/or services to a specific cost object?

Account Assignment

Which role can change a manually entered Purchase Order?

The Purchase Order Processor

An obligation is recorded in GFEBS for an SPS PR when _____.

A contract is awarded

Which of the following statements is true of Purchase Orders lines for goods and for services?

Both lines are quantity-based

A Purchase Order for an outbound MIPR (direct cite) is entered into GFEBS _____.

Manually

Which type of transaction uses a manual funds commitment document in GFEBS as the source document to record an obligation?

All of the above

Each Purchase Order document is assigned a unique document number by ____.

GFEBS

A Purchase Order line for a good can be identified by a(n) ____ in the Item Category field on the Purchase Order?

Which of the following is NOT a type of Purchase Order funding?

Supplemental Funded

GFEBS supports only the ____ units of measure.

International Organization for Standardization

If additional funding is required, _____ changes the PR amount and sends the PR back through the workflow for the appropriate approvals.

The Purchase Requisition Processor

The transaction code for the Create Funds Commitment Document is ____.

FMZ1

The Automated Fund Control Order System (AFCOS) is a pay, travel order, and Miscellaneous Obligation Document (MOD) writing system for which activity?

Army National Guard

Which of the following GFEBS transactions is used to create a Purchase Order?

ME21N

A funds commitment document is entered into GFEBS by a(n) _____.

Interface from another system

A ______ is an agreement used to allow approved agencies to order and pay for supplies and services from approved vendors several times a year using orders or calls.

Blanket Purchase Agreement

Which of the following transactions is used to change a Funds Commitment Document?

FMZ2

JKO Mental Health Assessment Health Care Personnel Training Course

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

n accordance with Title 10, United States Code, 1074m, Mental Health Assessments for Members of the Armed Forces Deployed in Connection with a Contingency Operation, deployment mental health assessments are required for the following Service members deployed in connection with a contingency operation:

All of the above

Follow-up questions assessing functional impairment help providers identify which of the following items?

All of the above

How many questions on the Primary Care PTSD Screen (PC-PTSD) must be answered "yes" to require administration of the PTSD Checklist - Civilian version (PCL-C)?

Two or more

At or above what PCL-C score is a referral for a mental health evaluation required (assuming the deplorer self-reported level of functioning is "very difficult" to "extremely difficult")?

MHA provider will complete only Part C, Section II of the PHA and must certify the Mental Health Assessment process by signing and dating the Mental Assessment portion of the PHA.

True

What is the time period covered by the questions in the PTSD Screening checklist PCL-C?

One month

Providers can use the Alcohol Feedback Cards to show Service Members how their drinking compares to the drinking of deployed Service members. In what ways are the feedback cards broken down?

A and B

During provider feedback, you should offer an impression of the Service member's symptoms and referral options.

True

After completing the Self-Report Survey, Service members must:

Can proceed directly to the person-to-person interview if screening for PTSD and depression is negative

During the person-to-person interview, the provider performs which of the following functions?

All of the above

The brief intervention for managing risky drinking includes which of the following activities?

All of the above

How many questions on the Patient Health Questionnaire-2 (PHQ-2) for depression must be endorsed as "2" or "3" ("more than half of the days" or "nearly every day") to require administration of the Patient Health Questionnaire-8 (PHQ-8)?

At least two

What type qualifies as a person-to-person deployment mental health assessment?

All of the above

By law, a deployment mental health assessment is NOT required at which of the time periods listed below?

Within 30 days after return from deployment

When should the provider consider a mental health referral for the Service member?

All of the above

Why is the Civilian rather than the Military version of the PTSD Checklist (PCL) is used in the deployment mental health assessment?

All of the above

Which Service members are eligible for the Military Health System's inTransition Program, which is designed to assist Service members receiving mental health treatment by ensuring a smooth transition to their next provider in case of transfer or separation from the Service?

All of the above

Which type of provider is NOT eligible to be trained and certified to perform the person-to-person interview portion of the Mental Health Assessment?

Licensed practical nurse

In making a decision to refer Service members to mental health care for depression or PTSD, which of the following things should providers consider?

Both of these choices

The brief intervention for managing risky drinking includes which of the following activities?

All of the above

At or above what AUDIT-C score should a referral for alcohol treatment be considered?

What determines if the Service member must answer the entire 10 questions on the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test?

If the AUDIT-C is contains 3 questions marked positive

In accordance with DoD policy, the DoD PHA is designed to?

All of the above

True or False. The PHA is conducted annual and includes a MHA.

True

True or False. Each Service can use their own system to implement the DoD Periodic Health Assessment.

True

What are the progressive parts of the DoD Periodic Health Assessment?

All of the above

True or False. Service Members must answer all questions on the DoD Periodic Health Assessment.

True

Module 3: Record Review and Recommendations

When it asks you to choose your role, you will choose

HCP Record Reviewer

Drag and drop each item the Record Reviewer must confirm and include in Part B Record Review into the cone.

medications

outside medical care

deployments

profile status

allergies

immunizations

women's health

Reserve component workman compensations

VA disability claims

Module 4: Mental

Health Assessment
When it asks you to choose your role, you will choose

HCP Record Reviewer

Module 5: PHA Provider Recommendations and Referrals

When it asks you to choose your role, you will choose

HCP Record Reviewer

Follow-up questions assessing functional impairment help providers identify concerns for further evaluation and treatment.

True

During the person-to-person interview, the provider performs which of the following functions?

All of the above

The DoD Periodic Health Assessment must be completed:

Electronically

Prior to providing a digital signature and notating the Periodic Health Assessment completion date, the PHA Provider must complete which of the following:

Both A and B

What type qualifies as a person-to-person deployment mental health assessment?

All of the above

For "Yes" and "Unsure" answers to questions about emotional problems or major life stressors, providers should do which of the following:

All of the above

The three progressive parts of the DoD Periodic Health Assessment include which of the following?

All of the above

What is the time period covered by the questions in the PTSD Screening checklist PCL-C?

One month

During Part C, Health Care Provider review, health care personnel trained in the DOD Periodic Health Assessment and/or Mental Health Assessment process can complete which of the following?

Both the DOD Periodic Health Assessment and Mental Health Assessment

Which of the following statements are true?

A and C

In making a decision to refer Service members to mental health care for depression or PTSD, which of the following things should providers consider?

Both A and B

Which of the following health care personnel roles can be performed simultaneously?

A and B

The brief intervention for managing risky drinking includes which of the following activities?

All of the above

Which of the following statements are true about the newly standardized DoD PHA?

All of the above

The Periodic Health Assessment Provider performs which of the following functions during the Health Care Provider review process?

A and B

The brief intervention for managing risky drinking includes which of the following activities?

All of the above

Which type of provider is NOT eligible to be trained and certified to perform the person-to-person interview portion of the Mental Health Assessment?

Licensed practical nurse

Which of the following is true about the Service member portion of the DoD Periodic Health Assessment?

A and C

The Periodic Health Assessment Provider must complete the DoD Periodic Health Assessment in the following manner(s).

Face-to-face

At or above what AUDIT-C score should a referral for alcohol treatment be considered?

Providers can use the Alcohol Feedback Cards to show Service Members how their drinking compares to the drinking of deployed Service members of the same sex and age group. Other considerations include:

None of the above

An MHA provider completing only Part C, Section II of the PHA must perform which of the following for their section to be considered complete? certify the Mental Health Assessment process by signing and dating the Mental Assessment portion of the PHA.

Certify, sign, and date the Mental Health portion of the PHA

During provider feedback, you should:

All of the above

After completion of the self-assessment, the Service member receives electronic health education based on the answers they provided. Service members have the capability to do what with the electronic education they receive?

All of the above

During the record review process, the Record Reviewer performs which of the following functions?

All of the above

When can the PHA Provider document recommended referrals for further Service member evaluation?

After review of the Service member's responses, Record Reviewer's inputs, AND MHA Provider recommendations

While screening for alcohol consumption, the provider notes that the member is positive on the three questions AUDIT-C. The Service member must:

Complete the entire 10 question AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test)

After completing the Self-Report Survey, Service members must:

Can proceed directly to the person-to-person interview if screening for PTSD and depression is negative

During the first process of the DoD Periodic Health Assessment, which of the following occurs?

A and B

In accordance with DoD policy, the DoD Periodic Health Assessment is designed to?

All of the above

Which of the following is true about the Service member portion of the DoD Periodic Health Assessment?

The Service member can only complete their annual PHA utilizing the electronic DD Form 3024 at

All the above

The civilian rather than the military version of the PTSD Checklist (PCL) is used in the deployment mental health assessment in order to ensure coverage of symptoms caused by all traumatic stressors including combat and sexual trauma?

True**

During the record review process of the DoD periodic health assessment, which of the following are sources the record reviewer could reference?

All of the above

During the person-to-person interview, the provider performs which of the following functions?

All of the above

Which of the following health care personnel roles can be performed simultaneously?

A and B (Record Reviewer And MHA)

During the first process of the DoD Periodic Health Assessment, which of the following occurs?

JKO DHA Employee Safety Course

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Which of the following establishes how safety regulations apply specifically to the army?

AR 385-15, the safety program

Employees participate in safety promotion and awareness in all of the following ways except

Conducting accident investigations

What is the purpose of the Army's Risk Management (RM) five-step process

Identifying hazards and controlling risk

Which of the following directly represents how employees can support the Program Management function of the army safety program

Not (review safety posters and other campaign materials.)

Employees most directly support the inspections and assessments function of the Army Safety Program by

Not (reviewing safety posters and other campaign material

What is the focus of the hazard analysis and countermeasures function of the Army Safety Program?

Collecting, reviewing, and analyzing data to identify safety trends

How can employees directly support the Hazard Analysis and Countermeasures function of the Army Safety Program?

Make suggestions to increase workplace safety

Which of the following are key factors that can serve as framework to help you isolate and address potential hazards?

Work environment, equipment used, and actions performed

Based on the OSHAct, which of the following is not an employee's right?

Choosing to miss a required safety training session

Based on the OSHAct, which of the following is not an employee's right?

Not (reviewing safety inspection results/reports)

Your supervisor has decided to have ypu backfill a forklift position at the warehouse while the regular operator is out on vacation. All of the following are your rights under the OSHAct except:

Directing another employee to complete the work for you

As a lab tech at the base hospital, you have seen fellow employees routinely trip over the cord to a diagnostic machine. You would like to report this hazard to your supervisor, but are concerned he might be angry with you if you do so. Do you have

Yes, you can report the hazard and request an inspection anonymously

Which of the following, by OSHAct, is an employee's right during a safety inspection

Observe or paticapate in the saftey process

Under the OSHAct, what are your rights with regard to the review of medical records, test results, and accident/illness reports?

NOT ( you may only see your own results and reports related to your own injuries)

Under the OSHAct, employees have a right to receive safety training on all of the following, EXCEPT:

Specialized equipment they do not currently use

Which statement is not a responsibility that an employee should exercise when protecting themselves?

Employees have leeway tp decide whether specified PPE is necessary.

Of the following, which is not an employee responsibility for ensuring a safe and healthful workplace?

Conducting a formal safety inspection

Employee responsibilities to ensure a safe and healthful workplace include all of the following EXCEPT:

Establishing policy and procedures

If an employee experiences a work-related injury, what should he/she do?

Report the injury to the employer and seek treatment promtly.

What is the federal regulatory basis for safety and health requirements in Army workplaces?

Not (AR 385-10, The Army Safety Program)

where can we learn more about the army safety program?

AR 385-10 details the army safety program and

which of your employee safety and health rights apply when working with unfamiliar possibly dangerous equipment?

right to request additional training on workplace hazard would apply when working with unfamiliar equipment

which of your employee safety and health right is applicable in the event of workplace injury?

right to report a work-related injury would apply in the event of a workplace injury

what are your OSHA health and safety rights during an offical investigation?

OSHA provides employees the right to participate in the investigation and to speak with the investigator in private

do your employee safety and health rights allow you to view OSHA notices issued to your employer?

OSHA guarantees employees the right to view any citations issued to their workplace. These notices should be posted in a place where employees can see it.

Do you know what other documents your OSHA employee rights guarantee you access to?

you are guaranteed access to your medical records, test that measure hazards in the workplace

What should Natasha do if she's behind on prep, but scheduled for forklift safety training?

Take forklift training prior to operating the forklift

Does everyone have the right to join the safety committee?

employees have the right to paricipate in safety and health committees.

Hypothetically, what should you do if, at the start of the shift, you notice the personal protective gloves have holes in them and have dry rotted?

report manager and replace your gloves before you begin any work that requires PPE to be worn

Doesn't the responsibility of workplace safety fall on the employer?

safety is the responsibility of employer and employees within the Army safety Program.

Do you know which employee right would apply to situation like this?

employees have a right to a safe workplace

if someone had found this exposed wire, which of their OSHA employee rights would apply?

it is the employee's right to raise a safety or health concern with their employer or OSHA

could the employee contact OSHA?

the employee has the right to file a complaint with OSHA that will result in an inspection of their workplace

if you use your rights, what's to stop my boss from retaliating like stopping me from getting promoted?

employees have the right to file a complaint with OSHA within 30 days if they've been retaliated against for exercising their rights.

JKO DMLSS: Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) Basics (FOUO)

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

Once you are logged into Customer Support, which button would you clock to view a work order?

A) Catalog Search
B) Order Supply
C) WR Status
D) Search Equipment Work Order
E) Customer

D) Search Equipment Work Order

The acronym DMLSS stands for:

A) Defense Medical logistics Standard Support
B) Defense Medial Life Support System
C) Deployed Medical Logistics Standard System
D) Defense Maintenance Logistics Standard System

A) Defense Medical logistics Standard Support

True or False? Once the DMLSS SA has created the New Smart Card-enabled user, he/she will notify the new user(s).

A) True
B) False

A) True

Catalog Searches may also be accessed from the _____ menu.

A) Utilities
B) Window
C) Navigate
D) File

C) Navigate

Click the area of the window you would select first when changing you Default Printer to Xerox Phaser 8560.

You are looking for Nursing in the Department type-ahead field. You type the Letter N, and the list is advanced to the first items in the list beginning with N. When you add the letter U, the list advances to the first items in the list beginning with NU. Is this an editable or non-editable type-ahead field?

A) Editable
B) Non-Editable

A) Editable

Match the items to the correct position.

Field Help
Menu
Horizontal Tool Bar
Vertical Tool Bar
Server/Build Release
Title Bar

E) Field Help
B) Menu
C) Horizontal Tool Bar
D) Vertical Tool Bar
F) Server/Build Release
A) Title Bar

Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply. In reference to your current application:

A) The Navigate menu lists all options for the current application
B) The horizontal toolbar contains only the most commonly used modules
C) The vertical toolbar varies depending on the current module and the tasks you are performing

A) The Navigate menu lists all options for the current application
B) The horizontal toolbar contains only the most commonly used modules
C) The vertical toolbar varies depending on the current module and the tasks you are performing

Which area of the window provides you with online help specific to the New Work Order window?

What is the meaning of the "red dot" next to some fields on this window?

A) These fields are "locked" and cannot be edited
B) These field have been populated from various data entered elsewhere in DMLSS
C) It is mandatory that these fields be completed before saving

C) It is mandatory that these fields be completed before saving

Notice the tabs on this window. Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.

A) You must proceed in order from left to right when selecting tabs
B) The Search Summary Result tab is "grayed out," meaning the table is incomplete
C) Clicking a tab name moves the tab to the front
D) Tabs indicate multiple window layer available in a window

C) Clicking a tab name moves the tab to the front
D) Tabs indicate multiple window layer available in a window

Notice the tabs on this window. Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.

A) !
B) %
C) @
D) #

B) %

What is the meaning of the "grayed out" areas in this window? Select all that apply.

A) They cannot be edited from this window
B) They contained erroneous data
C) They are mandatory, or required fields

A) They cannot be edited from this window

Match the items to the correct positions.

Sourced Items
Contracted Items
Unsourced Items
The Customer Catalog
The MTF Catalog
The LOG Catalog

E) Sourced Items
D) Contracted Items
C) Unsourced Items
A) The Customer Catalog
B) The MTF Catalog
F) The LOG Catalog

Select the area of the window that would alphabetically sort the Search Summary Result rows by their SOS

True or False? You can adjust the width of a catalog search result column, and you can change where it is displayed by dragging it to another location.

A) True
B) False

A) True

Which button is used to advance to the last retrieved catalog record?

On the window, if you want to highlight the first, third and fifth rows (all purchased by the case), which key would you hold down while making your selections?

A) Shift
B) Control

B) Control

Click the area of the window that you would click to exit DMLSS.

JKO DMLSS: Catalog Search and Record Management (FOUO)

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

MTF catalog records are pulled together from various possible sources. Where might the catalog records come from? Select all that apply

A) Site Personnel
B) Master Catalog
C) Manufacturers

A) Site Personnel
B) Master Catalog

Which button provides information on catalog items?

A) Cat Search
B) Gain/Loss
C) LOG Order
D) Cust Req
E) Issues
F) Trans History

A) Cat Search

Match the Catalog Search tabs with their descriptions

Basic Search
Advanced Search
Categorical Search

B) Basic Search
C) Advanced Search
A) Categorical Search

When using the Catalog Search, which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.

A) Search results are limited to the first 500 records.
B) You can adjust the Search Limit to fewer, but not greater, than 500 records.
C) The Search Limit can be set as high as 999.

A) Search results are limited to the first 500 records.
B) You can adjust the Search Limit to fewer, but not greater, than 500 records.

Match the Catalog Search with tis definition below:

Sourced items
Unsourced Items
Contracted Items
MTF

D) Sourced items
A) Unsourced Items
C) Contracted Items
B) MTF

With the exception of customer catalog searches, how many characters must be typed in a search field for a generic search? Please type a number

Which button takes you to the ECAT vendor Website?

A) Cat Search
B) Gain/Loss
C) LOG Order
D) Search
E) ECAT
F) Help Topics

E) ECAT

Where would you click to expand the Dental Supplies sub-category?

Select the ways that items can be added to your MTF catalog. Select all that apply.

A) From the IM Navigate menu, select New Catalog Item.
B) Copy another site's MTF Catalog yo your site.
C) Use the Add like button when viewing an existing MTF Catalog Record
D) Phone the manufacturer and ask that they add an item to your MTF catlog
E) Use catalog search to locate an item in the Sourced and Contracted Items Scopes, and click the add MTF button.

A) From the IM Navigate menu, select New Catalog Item.
C) Use the Add like button when viewing an existing MTF Catalog Record
E) Use catalog search to locate an item in the Sourced and Contracted Items Scopes, and click the add MTD button.

Special characters in Item IDs, such as #$@"%, make database searches difficult.
A) True
B) False

B) False

Using a Basic Search, the Number field will search and return results from which of the following fields: (Check all that apply)

A) Item ID
B) NDC
C) NSN
D) GTIN
E) PVON
F) Manufacturer Catalog Number
G) Vendor Item Number
H) ECAT Supplier Part
I) ECAT Catalog ID

A) Item ID
B) NDC
C) NSN
D) GTIN
E) PVON
F) Manufacturer Catalog Number
G) Vendor Item Number
H) ECAT Supplier Part
I) ECAT Catalog ID

Which button would you click to mark this as a Controlled Substance in the MTF Restrictions?

True or False?
Your primary source of supply for LOF is selected on the SOS Cat tab.

A) True
B) False

B) False

Which area of the window opens the Business Common Name Look-Up window?

In the SOS Lookup window, what area of the window allows the results to be filtered by the SOS code?

JKO DMLSS: New Item Request Approval Process (FOUO)

September 10, 2022 Dwayne Morise

MTF catalog records are pulled together from various possible sources. Where might the catalog records come from? Select all that apply

A) Site Personnel
B) Master Catalog
C) Manufacturers

A) Site Personnel
B) Master Catalog

Which button provides information on catalog items?

A) Cat Search
B) Gain/Loss
C) LOG Order
D) Cust Req
E) Issues
F) Trans History

A) Cat Search

Match the Catalog Search tabs with their descriptions

Basic Search
Advanced Search
Categorical Search

B) Basic Search
C) Advanced Search
A) Categorical Search

A) Search results are limited to the first 500 records.
B) You can adjust the Search Limit to fewer, but not greater, than 500 records.

Match the Catalog Search with tis definition below:

Sourced items
Unsourced Items
Contracted Items
MTF

D) Sourced items
A) Unsourced Items
C) Contracted Items
B) MTF

With the exception of customer catalog searches, how many characters must be typed in a search field for a generic search? Please type a number

Which button takes you to the ECAT vendor Website?

A) Cat Search
B) Gain/Loss
C) LOG Order
D) Search
E) ECAT
F) Help Topics

E) ECAT

Where would you click to expand the Dental Supplies sub-category?

Special characters in Item IDs, such as #$@"%, make database searches difficult.
A) True
B) False

B) False

A) Item ID
B) NDC
C) NSN
D) GTIN
E) PVON
F) Manufacturer Catalog Number
G) Vendor Item Number
H) ECAT Supplier Part
I) ECAT Catalog ID

Which button would you click to mark this as a Controlled Substance in the MTF Restrictions?

True or False?
Your primary source of supply for LOF is selected on the SOS Cat tab.

A) True
B) False

B) False

Which area of the window opens the Business Common Name Look-Up window?

In the SOS Lookup window, what area of the window allows the results to be filtered by the SOS code?